Question 1

Loratadine is used for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loratadine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis and urticaria by blocking histamine-mediated symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes. It is not an antidiarrheal, antiemetic, or antidiabetic medication. Therefore, the best answer is that it is used for allergy symptoms.

Question 2

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warfarin is a true anticoagulant that reduces blood clot formation by inhibiting vitamin K–dependent clotting factor synthesis, leading to decreased thrombin generation. Aspirin is primarily an antiplatelet agent (inhibits platelet aggregation) rather than an anticoagulant. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic/antipyretic without anticoagulant effects. Ibuprofen is an NSAID with analgesic/anti-inflammatory effects and reversible platelet inhibition, but it is not classified as an anticoagulant.

Question 3

Gen-M tablets is used for the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The package in the image shows GEN-M containing artemether/lumefantrine (40/240 mg), a standard artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). Artemether-lumefantrine is indicated for treatment of uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria and other chloroquine-resistant malaria infections. It is not an antibiotic for pneumonia or typhoid, and it is not used to treat diarrhea.

Question 4

The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug is known as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion) describes what the body does to a drug, which is the definition of pharmacokinetics. Pharmacodynamics instead focuses on what the drug does to the body (mechanism of action and effects). Pharmacy is the broader profession/science of preparing and dispensing medications, not specifically ADME. A pharmacopoeia is an official compendium/standards reference for drugs.

Question 5

Which medication is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is an NSAID that provides analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory effects primarily through inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and reduced prostaglandin synthesis. Acetaminophen is analgesic/antipyretic with minimal anti-inflammatory activity and is not classified as an NSAID. Morphine is an opioid analgesic, and gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used for neuropathic pain—neither is an NSAID.

Question 6

Furosemide can be used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes renal sodium and water excretion, making it effective for reducing edema from conditions such as heart failure and other fluid-overload states. It is also used as an antihypertensive agent, particularly when hypertension is accompanied by volume overload or in certain patients with reduced kidney function. In heart failure, it relieves pulmonary and peripheral congestion by decreasing preload via diuresis. Therefore, all listed indications are appropriate.

Question 7

Which of the following medicine is used for the treatment of Diabetes type 2?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic used in type 2 diabetes mellitus; it lowers blood glucose by stimulating pancreatic beta cells to release insulin. The other options do not treat type 2 diabetes: acetaminophen is an analgesic/antipyretic, mifepristone is an antiprogestin used for medical abortion/Cushing syndrome, and secnidazole is an antimicrobial for protozoal/bacterial infections. Therefore, glipizide is the correct choice for treating type 2 diabetes.

Question 8

Which of the following is antiviral agent used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acyclovir is a guanosine analog antiviral that is activated by viral thymidine kinase and inhibits viral DNA polymerase, making it a first-line therapy for HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections. Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor used for influenza A and B, not HSV. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral (NRTI) used in HIV treatment, and ribavirin is primarily used for certain RNA viruses (e.g., RSV in select cases, hepatitis C in older regimens) rather than HSV. Therefore, acyclovir is the correct choice for HSV.

Question 9

Metformin belongs to which class of antidiabetic drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is a biguanide antidiabetic agent and is considered first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes. Its primary mechanism is decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving peripheral insulin sensitivity, which lowers blood glucose without directly stimulating insulin release. This is why it has a low risk of hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy compared with sulfonylureas or insulin analogs.

Question 10

The gas known as laughing gas is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Laughing gas refers to nitrous oxide (N2O), an inhaled agent with analgesic and anxiolytic effects. It is commonly used in dentistry and procedural settings for conscious sedation. Carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide are not used as anesthetic/analgesic inhalational agents, and sodium is not a gas.

Question 11

Which part of the kidney does furosemide act on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+-K+-2Cl− cotransporter (NKCC2) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Blocking this transporter reduces sodium and chloride reabsorption, abolishes the medullary concentration gradient, and increases excretion of water along with Na+, Cl−, K+, Ca2+, and Mg2+. Therefore, its primary site of action is the loop of Henle rather than the proximal tubule, distal convoluted tubule, or collecting duct.

Question 12

One of the following is commonly used to manage diabetes type 2?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is a first-line oral medication commonly used for type 2 diabetes because it decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity. Insulin lispro can be used in type 2 diabetes, but it is not the most commonly cited initial/standard agent compared with metformin. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist for bronchospasm and is not a diabetes medication. Pioglitazone is used for type 2 diabetes but is generally not first-line due to adverse effects (e.g., weight gain, edema/heart failure risk).

Question 13

Which of the following is a side effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Long-term corticosteroid therapy increases bone resorption and decreases bone formation, leading to reduced bone mineral density and osteoporosis. Chronic steroid use also decreases intestinal calcium absorption and increases renal calcium loss, further weakening bones. In contrast, corticosteroids more commonly cause hyperglycemia (not hypoglycemia), weight gain (not weight loss), and can contribute to hypertension and fluid retention (not hypotension).

Question 14

Which of these drug classes works by containing a beta-lactam ring structure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillins are beta-lactam antibiotics characterized by a beta-lactam ring that is essential for their mechanism of action. The beta-lactam ring binds to penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases), inhibiting bacterial cell-wall peptidoglycan cross-linking and leading to cell lysis. Opioids and beta-blockers act on human receptors and do not contain beta-lactam rings. Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis (30S ribosomal subunit) and are not beta-lactams.

Question 15

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) belongs to which group of antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV, blocking DNA replication. It is therefore not a beta-lactam (penicillins or cephalosporins) and not a tetracycline (protein synthesis inhibitor). Recognizing drug classes is essential because class-specific adverse effects and interactions (e.g., tendinopathy, QT prolongation, chelation with divalent cations) differ from other antibiotic groups.

Question 16

Aceclofenac tablets use for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aceclofenac is an NSAID with analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects used for painful inflammatory conditions (e.g., osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis). It does not treat infections, so option C is incorrect. Because infection is incorrect, "all of these" cannot be the best answer. Between the remaining choices, "pain relief" is the best single use statement that fits aceclofenac’s primary clinical indication.

Question 17

What is the antidote for heparin overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protamine sulfate is the specific reversal agent for unfractionated heparin because it binds heparin to form a stable inactive complex, rapidly reducing anticoagulant effect. Vitamin K reverses warfarin (a vitamin K antagonist), not heparin. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, and atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia or organophosphate poisoning, so neither addresses heparin toxicity.

Question 18

Which of the following drug is used as 1st line treatment for anaphylactic shock?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses airway edema and bronchospasm via beta-2 effects and treats hypotension/shock via alpha-1 vasoconstriction. It also supports cardiac output through beta-1 stimulation and helps inhibit further mediator release from mast cells and basophils. Other agents (e.g., albuterol, antihistamines, corticosteroids) are adjuncts and do not replace immediate epinephrine.

Question 19

Which drug is contraindicated in glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic that causes mydriasis and cycloplegia, which can narrow the anterior chamber angle and obstruct aqueous humor outflow. This can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma by increasing intraocular pressure. In contrast, pilocarpine (a miotic), timolol (beta-blocker), and acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) are commonly used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma.

Question 20

Penicillin is an example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillin is a beta-lactam antibacterial drug used to treat susceptible bacterial infections, so it is classified as an antibiotic. Antibiotics act within the body to inhibit bacterial growth or kill bacteria (e.g., by inhibiting cell wall synthesis). Antiseptics are topical agents used on living tissues to reduce microbial load, and vaccines stimulate immunity rather than treat active infection. Penicillin is not an enzyme.

Question 21

Antibiotics are effective against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antibiotics are medications designed to kill bacteria (bactericidal) or inhibit their growth (bacteriostatic) by targeting bacterial structures and processes such as cell wall synthesis, ribosomal protein synthesis, or DNA replication. They are not effective against viruses because viruses use host-cell machinery and lack these bacterial targets. Fungal infections require antifungals, not antibiotics, so “all pathogens” is incorrect.

Question 22

Loratadine is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loratadine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis and urticaria. It is not an antibiotic, not a painkiller (analgesic), and not an antiseptic. Since none of the listed drug classes match its actual pharmacologic class, the best option is "None.

Question 23

Strep throat with strawberry tongue, the drug of choice would be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Strep throat with a strawberry tongue suggests Group A Streptococcus infection (classically associated with scarlet fever features). The first-line drug of choice for GAS pharyngitis is penicillin (e.g., penicillin V orally) because GAS remains reliably susceptible and penicillin reduces complications such as acute rheumatic fever. Azithromycin and clindamycin are alternatives mainly for patients with significant penicillin allergy, while ceftriaxone is not the standard first-line therapy for uncomplicated strep pharyngitis.

Question 24

What drug is first choice in anaphylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses airway edema and bronchospasm (beta-2 effects) and supports blood pressure by vasoconstriction (alpha-1 effects). It also increases cardiac output (beta-1), helping treat shock physiology. Atropine is for symptomatic bradycardia, dopamine is a vasopressor used if hypotension persists after epinephrine/fluids, and lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic/local anesthetic, not a primary anaphylaxis treatment.

Question 25

Which of the Following is an example of an anti-hypertensive drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metoprolol and atenolol are beta-1 selective beta blockers that lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and cardiac output and by reducing renin release. Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that lowers blood pressure primarily via arterial vasodilation and reduced systemic vascular resistance. Since all three listed drugs are used as antihypertensives, the best answer is "All.

Question 26

Following Syrup is Used For ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dulcolax is a brand associated with bisacodyl, a stimulant laxative used to treat constipation and to promote bowel evacuation. It works by stimulating colonic peristalsis and increasing fluid secretion in the intestine, facilitating stool passage. It is not indicated for infectious diseases like malaria or pneumonia, nor for bronchospastic disease such as asthma.

Question 27

The gas known as Laughing gas is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Laughing gas refers to nitrous oxide (N2O), an inhaled agent used for analgesia and mild sedation, commonly in dentistry and procedural settings. It produces anxiolysis and euphoria, leading to its nickname. The other listed oxides (carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, sodium oxide) are not used clinically as inhaled sedatives/analgesics and do not match this common name.

Question 28

A patient on ACE inhibitor develops persistent cough. Best alternative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin/substance P from ACE inhibition. The best alternative is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), which provides similar blood pressure and renal/cardiac benefits without increasing bradykinin. Losartan is an ARB, whereas verapamil (CCB), propranolol (beta-blocker), and furosemide (loop diuretic) are not direct ACE-inhibitor substitutes for this adverse effect.

Question 29

The drug used to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antenatal corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone or dexamethasone) given to the mother before preterm delivery accelerate fetal lung maturation by increasing surfactant production and improving lung compliance, which reduces the incidence and severity of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Vitamin K is used to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, not RDS. There is no clinical role for a “surfactant inhibitor” in preventing RDS, and furosemide is a diuretic that does not prevent surfactant deficiency-related RDS.

Question 30

Which of the following drugs is used to stop convulsions or Epilepsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A–mediated inhibitory neurotransmission, producing rapid anticonvulsant effects. It is commonly used for acute seizure termination (e.g., active convulsions/status epilepticus management) due to its fast onset. The other options are not anticonvulsants: azithromycin is an antibiotic, amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and oxytocin is a uterotonic hormone.

Question 31

A major toxicity of aminoglycosides affecting hearing is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin, amikacin) can damage inner ear hair cells and the vestibulocochlear apparatus, leading to tinnitus, hearing loss, and/or vertigo—this is termed ototoxicity. While nephrotoxicity is also a major adverse effect, it primarily affects the kidneys rather than hearing. Hepatotoxicity is not a classic aminoglycoside toxicity, and “neurotoxicity” is less specific than ototoxicity for hearing-related injury.

Question 32

Which drug is used as an anti-allergic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis and urticaria by blocking histamine-mediated symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and rhinorrhea. Aspirin is an NSAID/antiplatelet agent and can sometimes worsen allergy/asthma in susceptible individuals. Metformin is an antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes, and amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker for hypertension/angina, not allergy treatment.

Question 33

Which medication is an antiarrhythmic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic used to treat atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias by prolonging repolarization and slowing conduction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for fluid overload and hypertension, not rhythm control. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic (and can prolong QT), and zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic for insomnia, neither of which are antiarrhythmics.

Question 34

The drug is one of the most potent diuretics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loop diuretics such as furosemide are among the most potent diuretics because they inhibit the Na+-K+-2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, producing marked natriuresis and diuresis. Hydrochlorothiazide (a thiazide) produces a more moderate diuretic effect, while amiloride (K+-sparing) is weak and mainly used to prevent hypokalemia. Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) is relatively weak as a diuretic and is more commonly used for glaucoma, altitude sickness, and metabolic alkalosis.

Question 35

Which drug requires renal dose adjustment in a 76-year-old with CrCl 25 mL/min?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enoxaparin is primarily renally cleared, and at CrCl

Question 36

Diuretic drugs increase the production of what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diuretics act on the kidneys to reduce reabsorption of sodium (and sometimes chloride) in renal tubules, causing water to follow osmotically. This increases urinary output (diuresis), which is why these drugs are used for edema and hypertension. They do not stimulate antibody production, saliva production, or insulin secretion as their primary pharmacologic effect.

Question 37

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA-A receptor and can reverse benzodiazepine-induced CNS and respiratory depression. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, atropine treats symptomatic bradycardia/organophosphate poisoning, and protamine sulfate reverses heparin. Clinically, flumazenil is used cautiously because it can precipitate withdrawal and seizures in chronic benzodiazepine users or mixed overdoses (e.g., tricyclic antidepressants).

Question 38

Which route of drug administration is the slowest?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral administration is typically the slowest among these routes because the drug must dissolve, pass through the gastrointestinal tract, and be absorbed before reaching systemic circulation. It may also be delayed by gastric emptying and reduced by first-pass hepatic metabolism. In contrast, intravenous is immediate, and intramuscular and subcutaneous injections generally produce faster absorption than oral due to bypassing GI transit.

Question 39

Which of the following routes of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intravenous administration has the fastest onset because the drug is delivered directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers. Oral, subcutaneous, and intramuscular routes require an absorption phase that delays onset. Among parenteral routes, IV avoids tissue diffusion and is therefore typically immediate in effect compared with IM or SC.

Question 40

Despite its “age”, penicillin G remains the drug of choice in the treatment of infections caused by which of the following organisms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillin G remains the drug of choice for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) because it reliably eradicates the organism and has proven clinical efficacy across disease stages. Many of the other listed organisms commonly produce beta-lactamases (e.g., S. aureus) or have intrinsic resistance mechanisms (e.g., B. fragilis anaerobes), making penicillin G ineffective. Gram-negative bacilli like E. coli and H. influenzae are frequently resistant to penicillin G due to outer membrane permeability and beta-lactamase production.

Question 41

A woman on TB treatment develops peripheral neuropathy. Which drug is responsible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Isoniazid commonly causes peripheral neuropathy due to pyridoxine (vitamin B6) deficiency from interference with B6 metabolism. This risk is higher in pregnancy, malnutrition, alcoholism, HIV, diabetes, and renal failure, and is prevented/treated with pyridoxine supplementation. Rifampin is more associated with hepatotoxicity and orange body fluids, pyrazinamide with hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia, and ethambutol with optic neuritis (red-green color vision changes).

Question 42

Penicillin is effective against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillin G (benzathine penicillin) is the first-line treatment for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum, and it remains highly effective due to retained susceptibility. Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi and is typically treated with agents such as ceftriaxone or azithromycin due to resistance patterns. TB requires multidrug therapy (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol), and malaria is a protozoal infection treated with antimalarials rather than beta-lactam antibiotics.

Question 43

Which of the following factors affects drug absorption the most?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Particle size most strongly affects absorption because smaller particles have a larger surface area-to-volume ratio, allowing faster dissolution in GI fluids. For many orally administered solid drugs, dissolution is a key rate-limiting step before the drug can cross membranes. Color, odor, and tablet shape may influence acceptability or swallowing but do not meaningfully change the pharmacokinetic absorption process compared with particle size.

Question 44

Which medication is used to treat bradycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is the common first-line medication for symptomatic bradycardia because it blocks vagal (parasympathetic) effects at the SA/AV nodes, increasing heart rate and AV conduction. Digoxin can worsen or cause bradycardia due to increased vagal tone and AV nodal slowing. Propranolol (a beta-blocker) also slows heart rate and would typically exacerbate bradycardia. Lisinopril treats hypertension/heart failure but does not acutely correct bradycardia.

Question 45

Dextromethorphan is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dextromethorphan is a centrally acting antitussive that suppresses the cough reflex by acting on the medullary cough center (sigma/NMDA-related activity). It is used for symptomatic relief of nonproductive (dry) cough and does not treat fever, pain, or allergic inflammation. Fever is treated with antipyretics (e.g., acetaminophen/NSAIDs), pain with analgesics, and allergy symptoms with antihistamines or other anti-allergy therapies.

Question 46

Diclofenac drug used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat pain and inflammation (e.g., musculoskeletal pain, arthritis, dysmenorrhea). It works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis and thereby reducing pain and swelling. It is not an antitussive (cough suppressant), appetite stimulant, or primary allergy medication (antihistamine). Therefore, the best answer is pain.

Question 47

What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In acute convulsive status epilepticus, the first-line medication is a benzodiazepine given promptly to terminate ongoing seizure activity. IV lorazepam is preferred over diazepam because it has a longer duration of action in the CNS, reducing seizure recurrence after initial control. Phenytoin (or fosphenytoin) is typically used next to prevent recurrence, and phenobarbital is generally reserved for refractory cases.

Question 48

Cetirizine is commonly used for all of the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine primarily used to treat allergic conditions such as allergic rhinitis (hay fever) and urticaria/pruritic skin rashes. It reduces histamine-mediated symptoms like sneezing, rhinorrhea, and itching. It is not used to treat acute asthma attacks because bronchospasm requires rapid bronchodilation (e.g., inhaled beta-agonists) and/or anti-inflammatory therapy, not antihistamines.

Question 49

Which ovarian stimulation carries risk of OHSS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is most strongly associated with exogenous gonadotropin stimulation (FSH/LH) used in controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, because it can produce multiple follicles and very high estradiol levels. The risk is amplified when ovulation is triggered with hCG, which increases VEGF-mediated capillary permeability leading to third spacing, ascites, and hemoconcentration. Letrozole and clomiphene typically have a much lower OHSS risk because they induce more limited follicular recruitment. Metformin is not an ovarian stimulant and in PCOS may actually reduce OHSS risk when used with IVF protocols.

Question 50

Which of the following medicine is used to relieve the pain, burning, and discomfort caused by infection or irritation of the urinary tract ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used for symptomatic relief of dysuria (pain, burning, urgency) due to irritation/infection of the lower urinary tract. It provides local analgesic effect on the urinary mucosa but does not treat the underlying cause (e.g., bacterial UTI), so it is used adjunctively with definitive therapy when indicated. Metformin treats diabetes, omeprazole reduces gastric acid, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine for anxiety/muscle spasm—not targeted for urinary tract burning.

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