Triage Practice Test 1
Triage NCLEX Practice Test
Triage, within the NCLEX test plan under Safe and Effective Care Environment → Management of Care, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Triage section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Triage Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Triage Practice Test 1
Which phone message should the nurse in the outpatient clinic return first to ensure client safety?
- An older adult preparing for bowel cleansing who reports watery diarrhea.
- A mother with a newborn describing painful breast engorgement.
- A client three days after cataract surgery reporting mild nausea.
- A client with a C6 spinal cord injury who reports a sudden pounding headache.
Explanation: Answer reason: A client with a cervical spinal cord injury who suddenly develops a severe headache is likely experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, a critical emergency that can quickly cause dangerously high blood pressure. Immediate nursing intervention is required to remove the trigger (e.g., bladder distension).
The nurse has just received the shift report and is preparing to make initial rounds. Which client should be assessed first to prevent deterioration?
- The client with a history of a cerebral aneurysm whose oxygen saturation is 99%.
- The client three days after coronary artery bypass graft surgery with a temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).
- The client admitted one hour ago with shortness of breath.
- The client being prepared for discharge following a femoral-popliteal bypass graft.
Explanation: Answer reason: The newly admitted client with shortness of breath may be unstable or developing respiratory failure. This finding demands immediate assessment and oxygen support to prevent rapid decline.
A client experiences a traumatic amputation of a leg in a motor vehicle accident. Which nursing intervention should initially receive the lowest priority?
- Teaching residual limb care
- Monitoring hemoglobin levels
- Maintaining the compression dressing
- Using therapeutic interviewing techniques.
Explanation: Answer reason: In the immediate post-trauma phase, priorities are circulation and hemorrhage control: maintain the compression dressing and monitor hemoglobin levels. Supportive communication may help, but formal teaching is not appropriate until the client is stabilized. Therefore, education on residual limb care is the lowest initial priority.
Which client in the intensive care unit is the most stable for transfer to the step-down neurological unit?
- Client, diagnosed with bacterial meningitis, has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7.
- Client is 1 day postoperative after a transsphenoidal craniotomy with a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak.
- Client diagnosed with a frontal lobe stroke 4 days ago is exhibiting confusion.
- Client with a head injury is having seizures.
Explanation: Answer reason: The stroke patient, 4 days post-event and confused, is relatively stable for step-down care. The others are high acuity: a GCS of 7 indicates severe coma; a suspected postoperative CSF leak risks meningitis and requires close monitoring; and active seizures after head injury require ICU-level management.
The nurse is working in the emergency room when a client arrives with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. Which action should receive priority?
- Starting an IV.
- Applying oxygen.
- Obtaining blood gases
- Medicating the client for pain.
Explanation: Answer reason: Burns to the face and neck suggest a possible inhalation injury and airway edema. Following the ABCs, the airway and breathing take priority—apply oxygen immediately.
The nurse in the emergency department is responsible for the triage of four recently admitted clients. Which client should the nurse send directly to the treatment room?
- 23-year-old female complaining of a headache and nausea.
- A 76-year-old male is complaining of dysuria.
- A 56-year-old male complaining of exertional shortness of breath.
- 42-year-old female complaining of a recent sexual assault.
Explanation: Answer reason: A recent sexual assault requires immediate placement in a private treatment room for safety, privacy, timely forensic evidence collection, and urgent prophylaxis. The other complaints are non-emergent or stable.
A pregnant patient arrives at the community health center with a moderate bloody discharge; what should the nurse do first?
- Check fetal descent by performing Leopold's maneuver.
- Perform a vaginal examination to determine cervical dilation.
- Check for rupture of the membrane with a sterile speculum.
- Notify the physician of possible abruptio placentae
Explanation: Answer reason: Moderate vaginal bleeding in pregnancy may indicate placenta previa or abruptio placentae. Vaginal or speculum exams should be avoided until placental location is known. This is a potential obstetric emergency; the priority is to notify the provider immediately for further evaluation and management.
The nurse is caring for a newborn with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?
- Risk of dehydration
- Ineffective airway clearance
- Altered nutrition
- Risk of injury
Explanation: Answer reason: The airway is the immediate priority (ABCs). In TEF, the esophagus connects to the trachea, causing a high risk of aspiration and obstruction; maintaining a patent airway is paramount before addressing dehydration, nutrition, or general injury risk.
The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- The 78-year-old, who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago, has a PEG tube.
- The 5-month-old, discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia, is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension.
- The 50-year-old with MRSA is being treated with vancomycin via a PICC line.
- The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter.
Explanation: Answer reason: See the client most susceptible to infection first, and infectious clients last. High-dose corticosteroids and a central venous catheter make this client markedly immunosuppressed and at high risk for severe infection. The MRSA client should be scheduled last.
The nurse is caring for clients on the postpartum unit. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- Primipara who has delivered an 8-pound baby boy.
- Gravida IV, para IV, who experienced one hour of labor.
- Gravida II, para II, whose placenta was delivered 10 minutes after the infant.
- Primipara receiving 100 mg of meperidine (Demerol) during her labor.
Explanation: Answer reason: The client whose placenta was delivered 10 minutes ago is in the immediate postpartum period, which is the highest-risk time for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony and bleeding can occur rapidly and without warning, requiring immediate fundal and bleeding assessment. Although precipitous labor increases the risk of hemorrhage, it represents a potential risk rather than an immediate condition. Therefore, the client in the immediate postpartum period takes priority.
The nurse is working on a neurological unit. If the following events occur simultaneously, which would receive the RN's priority?
- A client with a cerebral aneurysm complains of sudden weakness on the right side.
- A client with a suspected brain tumor complains of a headache.
- Client, post-op lumbar laminectomy, vomits.
- Client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has a temperature of 99.6°F.
Explanation: Answer reason: Sudden focal neurological deficit in a client with a cerebral aneurysm suggests an acute hemorrhage or stroke and threatens the airway, breathing, and cerebral perfusion. This requires immediate RN assessment and intervention. The other findings are nonemergent in comparison.
Which of the following needs is given a higher priority among others?
- The client has attempted suicide, and a safety precaution is needed.
- The client has a disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation.
- The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone.
- The client is thirsty and dehydrated.
Explanation: Answer reason: Use Maslow and the ABCs: physiologic needs take priority. Dehydration threatens circulation and perfusion and must be addressed before safety and psychosocial concerns.
The nurse has just received the change-of-shift report. The nurse should give priority to assessing the client with?
- A thoracotomy with 110 mL of drainage in the past hour.
- A cholecystectomy with an oral temperature of 100°F.
- A patient who underwent a transurethral prostatectomy and complains of urgency to void.
- A stapedectomy patient who reports diminished hearing in the past hour
Explanation: Answer reason: Chest tube drainage >100 mL/hr after thoracotomy suggests active hemorrhage and requires immediate assessment. The other findings are expected or less urgent: low-grade fever post-cholecystectomy, urinary urgency after TURP, and diminished hearing after stapedectomy due to packing.
Triage means?
- Large
- Emergency
- Short
- None of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: Triage means sorting or prioritizing patients by urgency; none of the given choices state this, so 'None above' is correct.
Which victim should be transported by helicopter to the nearest hospital after a car accident involving four vehicles?
- A 10-year-old with a simple fracture of the femur is crying and cannot find his parents.
- A middle-aged woman with cold, clammy skin and a heart rate of 120 bpm is unconscious.
- A middle-aged man with severe asthma and a heart rate of 120 bpm is having difficulty breathing.
- A 70-year-old man with a severe headache who is conscious.
Explanation: Answer reason: Unconsciousness with signs of shock (cold, clammy skin and tachycardia) indicates circulatory collapse and a life-threatening condition requiring immediate advanced care. This patient’s critical status warrants helicopter evacuation for rapid stabilization and definitive treatment.
What is the priority nursing diagnosis in the case of neonatal jaundice?
- Deficient knowledge about infant jaundice.
- Fatigue related to elevated serum bilirubin.
- Hyperthermia related to an infection.
- Parenteral anxiety related to the disease condition.
Explanation: Answer reason: Physiologic needs take priority. Elevated bilirubin in neonatal jaundice can cause lethargy and poor feeding (fatigue), which is a direct physiologic problem. Hyperthermia is not inherent to jaundice, and knowledge/anxiety are psychosocial and lower priority.
After a storm, the rescue team is searching for injured people. A nurse on the team discovers a victim lying next to a broken natural gas line. The victim is not breathing and is bleeding heavily from a leg wound. How should the nurse proceed? Place care in order of its priority?
- Take the victim's vital signs.
- Start rescue breathing immediately.
- Apply pressure to the surface of the foot wound.
- Remove the victim from the immediate vicinity.
- Transport the victim to the hospital immediately.
Explanation: Answer reason: Scene safety is the highest priority. With a broken natural gas line, the nurse must first remove the victim from danger before initiating airway or bleeding interventions.
An apartment fire spreads to seven apartment units. Victims suffer burns, minor injuries, and broken bones from jumping out of windows. Which client should be transported first?
- A woman who is five months pregnant with no apparent injuries.
- A middle-aged man with no injuries who has rapid respirations and a cough.
- A 10-year-old with a simple fracture of the humerus is in severe pain.
- A 20-year-old woman with first-degree burns on her hands and forearms.
Explanation: Answer reason: In mass-casualty triage, airway compromise or inhalation injury takes priority. Rapid respirations and cough suggest possible airway burns requiring urgent care.
Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia?
- Fluid volume deficit
- Impaired gas exchange
- Ineffective coping
- Risk for infection
Explanation: Answer reason: Use ABCs: pneumonia impairs alveolar ventilation and oxygenation, making impaired gas exchange the immediate life-threatening priority. The others are secondary; risk for infection is not priority when infection already exists.
A six year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in this child's nursing care would include all of the following EXCEPT?
- Provide nutrition of the child
- Assess respiratory status and signs of cyanosis
- Give fowler position/semi-fowler position
- Give oxygen according to the programme
Explanation: Answer reason: Immediate priorities for pneumonia follow the ABCs: assess breathing, position to ease ventilation, and provide oxygen. Nutrition is important but not an immediate priority.
In triage, yellow color indicates..?
- Emergent
- Urgent
- Nonurgent
- Dead
Explanation: Answer reason: In disaster triage, yellow tags denote delayed/urgent care needs; red is emergent, green is nonurgent, and black is deceased/expectant.
A 10-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the ward. Which of the following observations needs immediate action by the nurse?
- Sitting upright and refusing to lie down
- Oxygen saturation - 96%
- Breath rate - 20/min
- Refusing to eat food
Explanation: Answer reason: Upright posture and refusal to lie down indicate significant respiratory distress/orthopnea in an asthmatic child and require immediate intervention. SpO2 of 96% and RR 20/min are within normal limits for age; refusal to eat is not emergent.
As soon as the enters the post anesthesia care unit , first priority assessment by the nurse?
- Urinary output
- ECG monitoring
- Level of consciousness
- Airway Patency and respiratory status
Explanation: Answer reason: In the PACU, the immediate priority follows ABCs. Post-anesthesia patients are at highest risk for airway obstruction and hypoventilation, so airway patency and respiratory status must be assessed first.
Priority intervention in patient of head injury is?
- Peripheral perfusion
- Patency of airway
- NormalBreathing
- Hydration
Explanation: Answer reason: Use ABCs for trauma: ensure airway patency first in a head-injured patient to prevent hypoxia and aspiration.
Thirty people are injured in a train derailment. Which client should be transported to the hospital first?
- A 20-year-old who is unresponsive and has a high injury to his spinal cord.
- An 80-year-old who has a compound fracture of the arm.
- A 10-year-old with a laceration on his leg.
- A 25-year-old with a sucking chest wound.
Explanation: Answer reason: In mass casualty triage, clients with life-threatening but potentially survivable injuries are treated first. A sucking chest wound impairs ventilation and oxygenation, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory failure. Others have less urgent or nonsurvivable conditions.
In what order should the nurse prioritize assessment of four clients: an 85-year-old with bacterial pneumonia and high fever, a 60-year-old postoperative thoracotomy client with chest tubes requesting pain medication, a 35-year-old with suspected tuberculosis and cough, and a 56-year-old with emphysema due for bronchodilator with no respiratory distress?
- Assess the 85-year-old with bacterial pneumonia first, then the 60-year-old postoperative client, followed by the 35-year-old with suspected tuberculosis, and lastly the 56-year-old with emphysema.
- Assess the 60-year-old postoperative client first, then the 85-year-old with bacterial pneumonia, followed by the 56-year-old with emphysema, and lastly the 35-year-old with suspected tuberculosis.
- Assess the 35-year-old with suspected tuberculosis first, then the 56-year-old with emphysema, followed by the 85-year-old with bacterial pneumonia, and lastly the 60-year-old postoperative client.
- Assess the 56-year-old with emphysema first, then the 35-year-old with suspected tuberculosis, followed by the 60-year-old postoperative client, and lastly the 85-year-old with bacterial pneumonia.
Explanation: Answer reason: Prioritize by ABCs and acuity: the elderly client with bacterial pneumonia and high fever is at highest risk for respiratory compromise; next is the postoperative thoracotomy client with chest tubes needing pain control to support ventilation; the suspected TB client is stable and seen after isolation measures are initiated; the emphysema client without distress and only due for a bronchodilator is last.
Which client should the triage nurse see first when four clients present at the same time in the emergency department?
- 45-year-old female on oral contraceptives with unusually heavy menstrual bleeding
- 24-year-old with a dog bite to the leg from the family dog who is current on rabies shots
- An irritable 4-month-old with a petechial rash, nuchal rigidity, and temperature of 103.4°F
- 16-year-old football player with twisted ankle who has no deformity and pedal pulse
Explanation: Answer reason: An infant with petechial rash, fever, and nuchal rigidity suggests meningococcal meningitis/sepsis, a rapidly life-threatening and contagious emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention.
After receiving handoff shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A patient post lobectomy with a Jackson-Pratt drain who reports the bandage coming loose.
- A patient with latent tuberculosis (TB) who is prescribed rifabutin and reports reddish-orange urine.
- A patient with asthma who reports increased difficulty breathing after inhaler use.
- A patient with chronic bronchitis whose pulse oximetry reading is 89% on room air.
Explanation: Answer reason: Increased difficulty breathing after inhaler use in a patient with asthma indicates worsening bronchospasm or poor response to treatment and may signal impending respiratory failure. This represents an acute change in respiratory status requiring immediate assessment. Although an SpO2 of 89% is low, it may be an expected baseline in clients with chronic bronchitis. Acute respiratory deterioration takes priority over chronic findings.
The nurse is constructing a nursing care plan for a client post-operative open cholecystectomy. Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority for this client?
- Risk for ineffective airway clearance
- Activity intolerance
- Risk for urinary retention
- Acute pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Use ABCs for prioritization. After an open cholecystectomy (upper abdominal surgery), pain and splinting can impair deep breathing and coughing, increasing risk for atelectasis and secretions. Airway clearance takes precedence over pain or urinary issues.
The nurse has just received a report from the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A 50-year-old COPD client with a PCO2 of 50
- A 24-year-old admitted after an MVA complaining of shortness of breath
- A client with cancer requesting pain medication
- A 1-day post-operative cholecystectomy with a temperature of 100°F
Explanation: Answer reason: Use ABCs and unstable vs. stable. A trauma patient with shortness of breath may have airway/breathing compromise (e.g., pneumothorax) and requires immediate assessment. The COPD client with PCO2 of 50 may be baseline, cancer pain is important but not emergent, and a low-grade post-op fever (100°F) is expected.
The nurse caring for a client after a suspected CVA recognizes which nursing diagnosis as the priority?
- Impaired communication
- Sensory perceptual alteration
- Alteration in cerebral tissue perfusion
- Impaired mobility
Explanation: Answer reason: After a suspected stroke, the top priority is maintaining adequate cerebral perfusion to prevent further brain ischemia. Other diagnoses are important but not immediately life‑threatening.
The nurse in the ER has received report of four clients en route to the emergency department. Which client should the nurse see first? A client with?
- Third-degree burns to the face and neck area, with singed nasal hairs
- Second-degree burns to each leg and thigh area, who is alert and oriented
- A chemical burn that has been removed and liberally flushed before admission
- An electrical burn entering and leaving on the same side of the body
Explanation: Answer reason: Facial and neck burns with singed nasal hairs indicate possible inhalation injury and impending airway compromise, which takes highest priority in triage.
A client is post-operative laryngectomy for cancer of the larynx. Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority for this client?
- Disturbed body image related to major changes in the structure and function of the larynx
- Ineffective airway clearance related to excess mucus in airway, due to surgical procedure
- Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement related to the inability to have food intake, due to dysphagia
- Impaired verbal communication related to inability to talk, due to removal of larynx
Explanation: Answer reason: Use ABCs: after laryngectomy the immediate priority is maintaining a patent airway; excess secretions can obstruct the airway. Body image, nutrition, and communication are important but not as urgent as airway clearance.
The nurse is caring for clients on a respiratory unit. Upon receiving the following client reports, which client should be seen first?
- Client with emphysema expecting discharge
- Bronchitis client receiving IV antibiotics
- Bronchitis client with edema and neck vein distention
- COPD client with PO2 of 85
Explanation: Answer reason: The presence of edema and jugular vein distention in a bronchitis client indicates right-sided heart failure secondary to chronic pulmonary disease (cor pulmonale). This is a sign of worsening cardiopulmonary compromise and requires immediate assessment. The other clients are stable or expected findings for their conditions.
A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority at this time?
- Impaired gas exchange related to increased blood flow
- Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease
- Risk for injury related to edema
- Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion
Explanation: Answer reason: DVT causes venous obstruction with congestion and reduced tissue perfusion in the affected limb, making impaired peripheral tissue perfusion the immediate priority. Option A is incorrect pathophysiology and not current unless PE occurs; B is not expected; C is a risk rather than the actual primary problem.
Which current client is best for immediate discharge when a major disaster is expected and a large influx of clients is anticipated within an hour?
- An older adult client admitted 4 days ago with diagnosis of a stage 3 pressure injury.
- An older adult client admitted 12 hours ago with diagnosis of pyelonephritis.
- An older adult client 3 days postoperative after total hip replacement.
- An adult client 24 hours postoperative after a vaginal hysterectomy.
Explanation: Answer reason: During disaster discharge planning, the safest clients to discharge are stable patients with chronic, non–acute needs. A stage 3 pressure injury after 4 days is stable and manageable at home, whereas the others have acute infections or are in the early postoperative period requiring monitoring.
Which telephone message should the nurse in the pediatric clinic return first?
- Parent states the extremities of 2-day-old client extend and return to the previous position when the crib is bumped.
- Parent states the circumcision site of a 3-day-old client is covered with yellowish exudate.
- Parent states that 4-day-old formula-fed client has had one stool per day for the past 2 days.
- Parent states the umbilical cord stump of 5-day-old client is moist at the base and slightly red.
Explanation: Answer reason: Moist, reddened umbilical stump suggests possible infection (omphalitis) and requires prompt assessment. The Moro/startle reflex (A) and yellow exudate on a healing circumcision (B) are normal findings, and one stool daily in a formula-fed newborn (C) can be normal.
Which patient condition requires more immediate attention: a person who is septic and developing petechiae, a COPD patient with symptoms and 90% oxygen saturation, or a patient with DVT who missed one dose of anticoagulant?
- Person who is septic and developing petechiae
- COPD patient with symptoms and 90% oxygen saturation
- Patient with DVT who missed one dose of anticoagulant
Explanation: Answer reason: Petechiae in a septic patient suggests disseminated intravascular coagulation and impending hemodynamic instability, a life‑threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. COPD with 90% SpO2 may be near baseline and less acute, and missing one anticoagulant dose for DVT is lower priority.
Which client with diabetes mellitus should the nurse see first based on the report?
- A female client who reports urinary frequency and burning with urination.
- A client with blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg whose skin is hot and dry to touch.
- A client with blood pressure of 120/50 mm Hg who reports frequent urination and thirst.
- A client who reports experiencing constant hunger.
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypotension with hot, dry skin indicates severe hyperglycemia with dehydration (DKA/HHS) and potential hypovolemia/shock, requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other clients have non-urgent or stable symptoms.
Which client with diabetes mellitus should the nurse see first based on the report received?
- A female client who reports urinary frequency and burning with urination.
- A client with BP of 90/60 mm Hg and whose skin is hot and dry to touch.
- A client with BP of 120/50 mm Hg who reports frequent urination and thirst.
- A client who reports experiencing constant hunger.
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypotension with hot, dry skin suggests severe hyperglycemia with dehydration (DKA/HHS) and potential shock. This is the most unstable patient and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
When planning care for a male client admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign the highest priority?
- Impaired physical mobility
- Ineffective breathing pattern
- Disturbed sensory perception (tactile)
- Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming
Explanation: Answer reason: Cervical spine injury can compromise diaphragmatic function (phrenic nerve C3–C5) and airway protection. Using ABCs, airway/breathing take priority; thus the highest-priority diagnosis is Ineffective breathing pattern.
Which telephone message should the nurse return first in the pediatric clinic?
- Parent states the extremities of 2-day-old client extend and return to the previous position when the crib is bumped.
- Parent states that the circumcision site of 3-day-old client is covered with yellowish exudate.
- Parent states that 4-day-old formula-fed client has had one stool per day for the past 2 days.
- Parent states that the umbilical cord stump of a 5-day-old client is moist at the base and slightly red.
Explanation: Answer reason: Moist, reddened umbilical stump suggests possible infection (omphalitis) and requires prompt assessment. The Moro reflex (A) is normal, yellow exudate on a healing circumcision (B) is expected, and one stool daily in a formula-fed newborn (C) can be normal.
After receiving a report from the night nurse, which client should the nurse see first?
- A 31-year-old woman refusing sucralfate before breakfast
- A 40-year-old man with left-sided weakness asking for assistance to the commode
- A 52-year-old woman complaining of chills who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy
- A 65-year-old man with a nasogastric tube who had a bowel resection yesterday
Explanation: Answer reason: Newly postoperative clients (within 24 hours) are highest priority due to risk for complications and need for immediate assessment, including NG tube patency, bleeding, and bowel function. The other clients are stable or issues can be delegated/handled later.
Which client should the nurse prioritize on a med-surg unit?
- Client with ileostomy bag that has leaked stool all over
- Client with COPD at 90% O2
- Client with DVT that missed their last warfarin dose
- Client with sepsis who is developing petechiae
Explanation: Answer reason: Petechiae in a septic client suggests DIC and impending hemodynamic instability—an immediate life-threatening complication. The ostomy leak is non-urgent, COPD with SpO2 90% may be baseline (target 88–92%), and a missed warfarin dose for DVT is not as emergent.
Which current client is best for immediate discharge during a major disaster with a large influx of clients expected in less than 1 hour?
- An older adult client admitted 4 days ago with diagnosis of stage 3 pressure injury.
- An older adult client admitted 12 hours ago with diagnosis of pyelonephritis.
- An older adult client 3 days postoperative after a total hip replacement.
- An adult client 24 hours postoperative after vaginal hysterectomy.
Explanation: Answer reason: During disaster triage, stable clients who can safely continue recovery at home or in long-term care facilities are discharged first to free beds. A client hospitalized for a pressure injury is stable, chronic, and does not require acute care, whereas postoperative or acutely infected clients still need monitoring.
Which client should the nurse see first in the emergency department after a weather disaster?
- The client complaining of chest pain and nausea who is diaphoretic
- The client with a simple fracture of the radius from a fall on a staircase
- The client complaining of slight redness and itching at the IV site in his hand
- The client presenting with a sprained ankle from a tree branch falling on him
Explanation: Answer reason: The client with diaphoresis and chest pain suggests myocardial ischemia, a life-threatening priority requiring immediate care. Musculoskeletal injuries are stable and can safely wait.
Which client message should the nurse return first in the outpatient clinic?
- An older adult client undergoing bowel prep and reporting watery diarrhea.
- A client with a newborn and experiencing breast engorgement.
- A client who had a cataract extraction 3 days ago and reporting nausea.
- A client diagnosed with C6 spinal cord injury and reporting headache.
Explanation: Answer reason: Headache in a client with a cervical (C6) spinal cord injury suggests autonomic dysreflexia, a life-threatening emergency seen with injuries at or above T6. It requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other issues are expected or less urgent.
Which adult client should the triage nurse assess first in the emergency department?
- A client with temperature of 100°F (37.8°C).
- A client reporting pain after falling off a chair.
- A client reporting vomiting for the past several hours.
- A client with persistent nosebleed.
Explanation: Answer reason: A persistent nosebleed (epistaxis) may indicate arterial bleeding or a coagulopathy, posing a higher risk for significant blood loss or airway compromise. According to triage principles, clients with active bleeding are prioritized for immediate assessment.
An unconscious client with multiple injuries arrives in the emergency department; which nursing intervention receives the highest priority?
- Establishing an airway
- Replacing blood loss
- Stopping bleeding from open wounds
- Checking for neck fracture
Explanation: Answer reason: Follow ABCs in trauma; airway is the first priority for an unconscious patient to prevent hypoxia and death.
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