Question 1

Which physiologic effect of a pulmonary embolism would initially affect oxygenation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A pulmonary embolus primarily obstructs pulmonary blood flow, creating ventilated but underperfused alveoli (increased physiologic dead space) and an acute V/Q mismatch. This leads to impaired oxygen uptake and hypoxemia early, even when the patient compensates with tachypnea and increased minute ventilation. In contrast, options describing blocked ventilation reflect airway/alveolar problems (e.g., asthma, mucus plugging) rather than an embolic event. While very large emboli can cause severe hypoxemia and hemodynamic collapse, the key initial mechanism is reduced perfusion to otherwise ventilated lung units.

Question 2

The nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which client should the nurse identify as being at the greatest risk for developing bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: SLE represents a systemic autoimmune disease with potential pulmonary immune-mediated injury, making this client the highest-risk option listed. Smoking history is more classically linked to COPD and lung cancer rather than BOOP as a key risk factor. CHF predisposes to pulmonary edema, and short-course cephalexin for UTI is not a typical trigger compared with autoimmune or certain high-risk drug/toxin exposures.

Question 3

A student nurse is asking the staff nurse why a client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen, if needed. The nurse determines that teaching was effective when the student makes which statement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  In some clients with long-standing COPD/emphysema, chronically elevated carbon dioxide blunts central chemoreceptor responsiveness, so hypoxemia becomes a more important driver of ventilation (peripheral chemoreceptors). Administering high-flow oxygen can reduce this hypoxic respiratory drive and worsen hypoventilation, contributing to CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis. Therefore, low-flow oxygen is used and titrated to maintain adequate oxygenation while avoiding excessive suppression of ventilatory drive. Options describing breathing triggered by oxygen rising or by carbon dioxide falling are physiologically incorrect for the rationale being tested.

Question 4

A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He’s tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase and has no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing. Based on the assessment findings, the nurse suspects that the client is experiencing which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The thin body habitus and tripod positioning (leaning forward with arms braced) reflect increased work of breathing and an attempt to optimize diaphragmatic mechanics. The absence of cough helps distinguish it from chronic obstructive bronchitis, which typically has chronic productive cough. ARDS would more often have acute severe hypoxemia with diffuse crackles and is not characterized by a prolonged expiratory phase or chronic “pink puffer” features.

Question 5

The nurse is teaching the client about his diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism. The client tells the nurse that the doctor told him that he has a ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Which statement by the client best conveys an understanding of the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A pulmonary embolism obstructs pulmonary blood flow, creating alveoli that are still receiving air but cannot receive adequate perfusion (increased dead space). This produces a high V/Q state and contributes to impaired gas exchange and hypoxemia despite ventilation. The alternative pattern—perfusion without ventilation—better describes shunt physiology such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Therefore the client’s statement identifying ventilation without perfusion best matches PE-related V/Q mismatch.

Question 6

The community health nurse is evaluating the 16-year-old client’s 48-hour post-tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse records a 6-mm induration noted at the injection site. During the assessment, the client gives the nurse a personal history. Which details should be most concerning to the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: TST interpretation depends on the patient’s risk category, with lower induration cutoffs used for immunocompromised clients. In people with HIV, an induration of ≥5 mm is considered positive, so a 6-mm result suggests TB infection and warrants prompt follow-up to rule out active disease. The other histories (immigration from high-prevalence areas or recent contact with active TB) typically use a ≥10 mm cutoff for TST positivity, making 6 mm less immediately diagnostic in those categories. A prior chest x-ray for pneumonia does not by itself change the TST cutoff or indicate TB infection.

Question 7

The nurse caring for a client with lung cancer who is scheduled for a wedge resection the following day. What part of the lung will be removed?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  A wedge resection is a limited, nonanatomic resection that removes a small, triangular section of lung tissue containing the lesion plus a margin of healthy tissue. It does not remove an entire lobe (lobectomy) or an entire lung (pneumonectomy). It is also smaller than a segmentectomy, which removes an anatomic bronchopulmonary segment with its associated bronchioles and alveoli. Therefore the best description is a small, localized slice near the lung surface.

Question 8

Which muscle is primarily involved in the process of breathing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Contraction of the diaphragm flattens and moves it downward, increasing thoracic volume and lowering intrathoracic pressure, which produces inspiration. The other listed muscles primarily act on the arm (biceps), knee (quadriceps), or scapula/neck (trapezius) and are not the main drivers of resting breathing, though some may assist as accessory muscles during respiratory distress. Therefore, the best answer is the muscle that directly changes thoracic volume for normal inspiration.

Question 9

What should be the size of the endotracheal tube for a newborn weighing 2000 to 3000 gms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 3.0 Neonatal endotracheal tube (ETT) size is selected primarily by weight/gestational age to achieve an adequate tracheal seal with minimal airway trauma and acceptable ventilation pressures. For infants around 2–3 kg, standard neonatal resuscitation and intubation sizing charts recommend a 3.0 mm internal diameter tube. A smaller tube (e.g., 2.5) increases resistance and may cause inadequate ventilation and excessive leak, while larger sizes (3.5–4.0) raise the risk of subglottic injury and inability to pass through the glottis. Thus, the weight-based best choice in this range is the 3.0 mm ETT.

Question 10

Respiratory drive in COPD patient is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is commonly tested as “hypoxic drive,” meaning oxygen level becomes the predominant stimulus for breathing. Therefore, among the choices, oxygen best represents the respiratory drive emphasized in COPD exam questions. A key clinical implication is to titrate supplemental oxygen to target saturations (often 88–92%) to avoid worsening CO2 retention in susceptible patients.

Question 11

The nurse is planning a client education program about complications of unmanaged Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). Which of the following conditions should the nurse include as a possible complication of COPD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic hypoxemia from COPD causes pulmonary vasoconstriction and remodeling, leading to pulmonary hypertension. Over time, this increases right ventricular afterload and can progress to cor pulmonale and clinical heart failure. This is a well-recognized complication of long-standing, poorly controlled COPD and directly relates to cardiopulmonary pathophysiology. Weight gain is less characteristic because many COPD patients develop weight loss/cachexia, and while lung cancer shares risk factors (e.g., smoking), it is not a direct physiologic complication of COPD in the way pulmonary hypertension-related failure is.

Question 12

A 59 year old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain thats mid-sternal and radiates to the back, and tachycardia. History of international travel from Asia recently and deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the patient's symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The combination of sudden dyspnea, pleuritic/retrosternal chest pain, and tachycardia is classic for this process, and recent long-distance travel plus known deep vein thrombosis are major risk factors. Tuberculosis and viral pneumonia typically produce a more subacute infectious syndrome (fever, cough, progressive symptoms) rather than an abrupt onset after a DVT. Heart failure more often causes orthopnea, crackles, and volume overload findings instead of a sudden event linked to thrombosis.

Question 13

The term “pink puffer” refers to the female client with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: To maintain oxygenation, the patient typically hyperventilates and uses pursed-lip breathing, which helps keep airways open during exhalation and can preserve relatively “pink” coloration compared with chronic bronchitis. In contrast, chronic obstructive bronchitis is associated with hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and cyanosis (“blue bloater”) due to mucus hypersecretion and ventilation–perfusion mismatch. ARDS and asthma are acute processes and are not the traditional entities tied to the pink puffer/blue bloater COPD teaching descriptors.

Question 14

Lung is a part of....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The lungs are the main organs of ventilation and gas exchange, moving air in and out and exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveoli. While the cardiovascular system transports gases in blood and the digestive system processes nutrients, neither includes the lungs as component organs. Therefore the option stating the lungs belong to the breathing system is the single best answer.

Question 15

After deep inspiration, maximum expiration of lungs is called ______?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The stem describes exactly this maneuver: deep inspiration followed by maximum expiration. Total lung capacity instead refers to the volume in the lungs after maximal inspiration (includes residual volume), not what can be exhaled out. Inspiratory capacity is only the amount that can be inspired after a normal expiration, and functional residual capacity is the volume remaining after a normal expiration.

Question 16

What lung sound is considered normal during auscultation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They are typically soft, low-pitched, and heard throughout inspiration with a shorter expiratory phase. The other options are adventitious sounds that indicate pathology: crackles suggest fluid or alveolar opening (e.g., CHF, pneumonia), wheezes suggest bronchospasm or narrowed airways (e.g., asthma), and rhonchi suggest secretions in larger airways. Therefore the only normal baseline auscultatory finding listed is vesicular breath sounds.

Question 17

In which organ does the exchange of gasses primarily occur?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This process primarily takes place in the alveoli, enabling oxygen to diffuse into blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse out down partial-pressure gradients. The kidneys regulate acid-base balance and can excrete CO2 indirectly via bicarbonate handling, but they are not the main site of O2/CO2 exchange. The heart circulates blood and the intestines absorb nutrients, neither serving as the primary diffusion surface for respiratory gases.

Question 18

The functional unit of lung is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alveoli provide a very large surface area with a thin alveolar-capillary membrane and dense capillary network, enabling efficient diffusion driven by partial pressure gradients. Bronchi and bronchioles are mainly conducting airways that move air to and from the distal lung but are not the primary sites of diffusion. The trachea is a large conducting airway that conditions air and maintains patency, not a functional gas-exchange unit.

Question 19

A patient presents with accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. What is this condition known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is distinct from pneumothorax, which is air in the pleural space causing lung collapse. Pulmonary edema refers to fluid within the lung interstitium/alveoli rather than the pleural cavity. Pulmonary hypertension is elevated pulmonary arterial pressure and does not describe fluid collection in the pleural space.

Question 20

The nurse identifies a need for further education when the caregiver of a child recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis states which of the following is a common finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recurrent respiratory infections are common due to impaired mucociliary clearance and mucus plugging. Pancreatic insufficiency leads to fat malabsorption, producing bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stools. Elevated chloride in sweat makes it characteristically “salty,” which is the basis of the sweat chloride test; therefore the statement about excessive salivation reflects misunderstanding.

Question 21

When auscultating the sounds over the trachea and larynx, the nurse correctly identifies these as which type of lung sounds?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These are characterized by a stronger expiratory phase with a brief pause between inspiration and expiration. That pattern matches normal bronchial breath sounds. Bronchovesicular sounds are typically heard over the main bronchi (e.g., between the scapulae), while vesicular sounds predominate over peripheral lung fields; adventitious sounds are abnormal added sounds such as crackles or wheezes.

Question 22

Twenty-four hours after CS delivery, a neonate at 30 weeks AOG is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. When explaining to the parents about the cause of this syndrome, the nurse would discuss about an alteration of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Surfactant is composed largely of phospholipids, with lecithin (phosphatidylcholine) being a key component produced by type II pneumocytes. Prematurity at 30 weeks means surfactant production is often insufficient, and cesarean delivery can reduce the catecholamine-mediated lung fluid clearance that supports early respiratory transition. The other options are not central determinants of surfactant quantity or function in the immediate newborn period.

Question 23

Which of the following respiratory conditions is always considered a medical emergency?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epiglottitis causes inflammatory swelling of the epiglottis and supraglottic tissues, creating a high risk of abrupt airway occlusion with minimal warning. This requires urgent airway management and avoidance of agitation or unnecessary throat examination that could precipitate complete obstruction. In contrast, asthma and LTB (croup) can range from mild to severe and are not inherently emergencies in every presentation, while cystic fibrosis is typically a chronic disease with episodic exacerbations rather than an always-immediate airway emergency.

Question 24

A nurse is caring for a patient with an acid-base imbalance caused by COPD. Which imbalance is likely present?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Increased PaCO2 drives the carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer toward higher hydrogen ion concentration, lowering pH and producing a primary respiratory acidosis. Over time, the kidneys compensate by retaining bicarbonate, but the primary disturbance remains respiratory. Respiratory alkalosis would require excessive CO2 blowing off (hyperventilation), which is the opposite of typical COPD physiology.

Question 25

Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is initially most suggestive of pulmonary edema?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This initial hyperventilatory response tends to lower PaCO2, so an early ABG pattern is respiratory alkalosis with decreased CO2. Hypercapnia is more typical later, when fatigue and worsening ventilation-perfusion mismatch reduce effective ventilation. “Anoxia” is not a typical ABG descriptor and implies extreme oxygen absence rather than the early compensatory ABG change.

Question 26

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung parenchyma allow pneumonia to develop?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to alveolar edema and exudate filling airspaces, impairing gas exchange and producing consolidation—hallmarks of pneumonia. The other options can predispose to infection or coexist as complications (e.g., atelectasis from mucus plugging, pleural effusion as parapneumonic effusion), but they are not the core parenchymal mechanism by which pneumonia develops. Bronchiectasis is chronic airway dilation with recurrent infections, focusing on bronchi rather than the defining alveolar inflammatory process of pneumonia.

Question 27

Respiratory effort reflects—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Respiratory effort (work of breathing) is primarily determined by lung/airway mechanics and gas exchange demands, making it a direct indicator of how well the respiratory system is functioning. Increased effort commonly reflects increased airway resistance (e.g., bronchospasm, secretions) or decreased lung compliance (e.g., edema, pneumonia, ARDS), both pulmonary problems. While cardiac failure can secondarily increase work of breathing via pulmonary edema, the parameter still reflects the state of the lungs/airways where the effort is generated. Brain function mainly regulates the drive to breathe rather than the mechanical effort seen with obstructive or restrictive lung pathology, and liver function is not a primary determinant of respiratory effort.

Question 28

Inflammation of lungs is called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This condition typically reflects infectious or inflammatory consolidation of airspaces, leading to impaired gas exchange and respiratory symptoms. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the pharynx (throat), not the lungs. Colitis and gastritis are inflammations of the colon and stomach, respectively, and are gastrointestinal rather than respiratory diagnoses.

Question 29

Hypoxia means low —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term is derived from “hypo-” (low) and “-oxia” (oxygen). This directly distinguishes it from hypoglycemia (low glucose) and electrolyte abnormalities like hyponatremia (low sodium/salt) or hypocalcemia (low calcium). Clinically, hypoxia manifests with signs such as dyspnea, tachycardia, restlessness, or cyanosis depending on severity and chronicity.

Question 30

Normal tidal volume of the lungs is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This value reflects baseline ventilation without forced inspiration or expiration. The larger volumes listed correspond to different lung capacities (e.g., vital capacity) rather than a single resting breath. Therefore, the value closest to normal tidal volume is 500 mL.

Question 31

Gas exchange takes place in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alveoli provide an enormous surface area and a very short diffusion distance, optimized by surfactant and dense capillary networks. Bronchi, trachea, and larynx are conducting airways that move, filter, warm, and humidify air but lack the specialized alveolar-capillary interface for diffusion. Therefore the site of oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide elimination is the alveoli.

Question 32

Coughing out blood is known as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood produced with coughing typically originates from the lower respiratory tract (larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs), which is termed hemoptysis. In contrast, epistaxis is bleeding from the nose, hematuria is blood in urine, and hematemesis is vomiting blood from the gastrointestinal tract. Correct identification helps clinically distinguish pulmonary bleeding from GI or nasal sources and guides appropriate evaluation.

Question 33

Inflammation of lungs is —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches “inflammation of lungs” as a disease entity affecting lung tissue itself. Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi (airways) rather than the lung parenchyma, so it is a common distractor but less accurate for the stem wording. Asthma is primarily a chronic inflammatory airway disorder with bronchospasm, and emphysema is alveolar destruction (COPD) rather than an acute inflammatory process.

Question 34

A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Active pulmonary tuberculosis classically presents with constitutional symptoms (low-grade fever, chills, night sweats, weight loss) plus chronic respiratory findings. Hemoptysis can occur due to cavitary lung disease and airway inflammation/erosion. This cluster is far more characteristic of TB than isolated high fever with nausea (more consistent with an acute systemic infection) or headache with photophobia (meningitis pattern). Chest or back pain alone is nonspecific and does not capture the hallmark systemic plus pulmonary symptom pattern of active TB.

Question 35

The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) should consider that, in this client, impaired gas exchange is mostly likely related to which factor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When perfusion continues through these nonventilated alveoli, a right-to-left intrapulmonary shunt occurs, making hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen. This shunt physiology is the key mechanism driving impaired gas exchange in ARDS. Air trapping is more characteristic of obstructive diseases (e.g., asthma/COPD), and alpha-1-antitrypsin problems relate to emphysema rather than ARDS.

Question 36

The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes cardiac failure a clinically expected risk in long-standing emphysema/chronic bronchitis. In contrast, obstructive lung disease typically decreases FEV1 and lowers the FEV1/FVC ratio rather than producing an increased FVC. Physical chest changes in emphysema trend toward a “barrel chest” (increased AP diameter), not a narrowed chest cavity. Clubbing is not a classic expected finding in uncomplicated COPD and should prompt evaluation for other chronic hypoxic or malignancy-related conditions.

Question 37

A chest x-ray showed a client’s lungs to be clear. His Mantoux test is positive, with a 10mm of induration. His previous test was negative. These test results are possible because?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A newly positive Mantoux after a prior negative indicates new TB infection (conversion), reflecting development of a delayed-type (cell-mediated) immune response to tuberculin. A clear chest x-ray supports absence of active pulmonary disease but does not rule out latent TB infection. Prior treated TB can leave persistent positivity, but that does not explain a documented change from negative to positive. “Seroconversion” is not a TB skin test concept and hematogenous spread would not be inferred from PPD results alone.

Question 38

When fluid is present in the alveoli?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gas exchange depends on diffusion across a thin alveolar-capillary membrane with adequate surface area and minimal diffusion distance. Alveolar fluid creates a barrier and increases diffusion distance, reducing oxygen transfer (and to a lesser extent carbon dioxide), leading to impaired oxygenation and V/Q problems. While fluid can contribute to alveolar collapse in some conditions, the primary, direct physiologic consequence of fluid-filled alveoli is reduced diffusion efficiency. The presence of alveolar fluid does not by itself prove heart failure, since pneumonia, ARDS, and aspiration can produce the same finding.

Question 39

The etiology of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is related to damage to the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ARDS causes diffuse inflammatory injury that increases permeability of the pulmonary capillary endothelium and alveolar epithelium, allowing protein-rich fluid to leak into alveoli. This produces noncardiogenic pulmonary edema and refractory hypoxemia despite normal or low left-sided filling pressures. A left-ventricular problem would cause cardiogenic pulmonary edema via elevated hydrostatic pressure rather than permeability injury. Injury to the trachea or mainstem bronchus may impair ventilation or cause obstruction but does not explain the characteristic capillary leak edema of ARDS.

Question 40

The basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome results from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ARDS is driven by diffuse alveolar-capillary injury from inflammation, leading to increased permeability pulmonary edema, loss of surfactant, and alveolar collapse with refractory hypoxemia. Injury to type II pneumocytes reduces surfactant production, increasing surface tension and promoting atelectasis, which directly worsens shunt physiology. This aligns with the classic decreased lung compliance and severe oxygenation impairment seen in ARDS. In contrast, decreased capillary permeability would reduce fluid leak and is opposite of the key mechanism causing noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true regarding venous thromboembolism (VTE) and pulmonary embolus (PE)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pulmonary embolism can present nonspecifically and should be considered whenever there is sudden, otherwise unexplained hypoxemia, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypotension, or acute respiratory distress. Maintaining a high index of suspicion is essential because PE symptoms vary widely and classic triad findings are uncommon. Bradycardia is not a classic feature (tachycardia is more typical), making that option incorrect. Likewise, dyspnea/chest pain/hemoptysis do not occur in nearly all patients, and critically ill patients are generally higher risk and often need prophylaxis unless contraindicated.

Question 42

The nurse calculates the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for the following values: PaO2 is 78 mm Hg; FiO2 is 0.6 (60%)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Using the given values, 78 ÷ 0.6 = 130, indicating significant hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen. A P/F ratio

Question 43

The patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would exhibit which of the following symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because blood is passing through poorly ventilated or nonventilated alveoli, simply increasing inspired oxygen often fails to raise PaO2 adequately. Surfactant is typically decreased/inactivated in ARDS, contributing to atelectasis and stiff lungs (reduced compliance), not improved compliance. Hyperventilation more commonly produces respiratory alkalosis early; respiratory acidosis occurs when ventilation fails, not as a direct result of hyperventilation.

Question 44

The lungs are covered by the membrane called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The lungs are covered by the pleura, with the visceral layer directly adherent to the lung surface and the parietal layer lining the chest wall, enabling low-friction movement during breathing. The pericardium instead surrounds the heart, not the lungs. Peritoneum lines the abdominal cavity, and Glisson’s capsule surrounds the liver, making them incorrect for lung covering.

Question 45

Which of the following is the likely contributing factor of an elevated red blood cell count in a patient with a history of chronic bronchitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In chronic bronchitis, long-standing ventilation-perfusion mismatch and impaired gas exchange commonly lead to sustained hypoxemia. This physiologic compensation increases oxygen-carrying capacity, explaining an elevated RBC count. Hypercapnia can occur in COPD but does not directly trigger erythropoietin-mediated erythrocytosis. Reduced fluid intake or insensible losses can cause hemoconcentration (relative polycythemia) but are less directly tied to chronic bronchitis as the primary mechanism.

Question 46

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse auscultates the right lower lobe, expecting to note which type of breath sounds?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces tubular, harsh breath sounds similar to those normally heard over the trachea, but now heard over the affected peripheral lung field. Normal right lower lobe findings would more typically be soft, low-pitched vesicular sounds, so hearing this pattern suggests consolidation rather than normal aeration. Completely absent sounds would be more concerning for severe airflow obstruction, pleural effusion, or pneumothorax rather than uncomplicated pneumonia.

Question 47

Larynx is the part of system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It houses the vocal cords and participates in phonation, but functionally it is part of the respiratory tract for airflow conduction. It also protects the lower airway during swallowing via epiglottic closure and reflexes. The other listed systems do not include airway conduits or voice box anatomy, making them incorrect.

Question 48

Which of the following is used to diagnose asthma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spirometry measures FEV1, FVC, and the FEV1/FVC ratio, and a significant bronchodilator response supports asthma. Chest X-ray and CT are mainly used to evaluate alternative diagnoses or complications rather than confirm asthma. EEG is unrelated because it evaluates brain electrical activity, not respiratory airflow limitation.

Question 49

Main organ of Respiration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The alveoli within the lungs provide a large surface area and thin diffusion barrier essential for efficient exchange with pulmonary capillaries. The heart supports circulation of blood to and from the lungs but does not perform gas exchange itself. Kidneys and liver have important metabolic and acid–base roles, yet they are not the primary organs responsible for breathing and direct gas exchange.

Question 50

The primary physiological alteration in the development of asthma is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle rapidly narrows the airways, increasing resistance and producing wheeze and shortness of breath. Airway inflammation and mucus hypersecretion are important contributors, but they are not as immediately responsible for the hallmark episodic, reversible obstruction as bronchospasm. An infectious process is not the defining initiating mechanism of asthma, even though infections can trigger exacerbations.

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