Physiology Practice Test 22
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Physiology. This section explores body functions to strengthen nursing understanding of assessment and intervention planning. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 22nd part of the Physiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Physiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Physiology Practice Test 22
Which of the following physiological responses follows eating a large meal?
- Pulse rate increases
- Peristalsis rate increases
- Enzyme production decreases
- Parasympathetic nervous activity decreases
Explanation: Answer reason: This increases gastrointestinal motility to mix and propel food through the stomach and intestines, so peristaltic activity rises. Digestive secretions (including enzymes) generally increase rather than decrease to support digestion. A common trap is assuming heart rate must rise; however, the most direct and consistent postprandial change is increased GI motility under parasympathetic dominance.
Which of the following mechanisms is used when the body becomes too cold?
- Blood vessel dilation
- Sweating
- Blood vessel constriction
- Vitamin D production
Explanation: Answer reason: Sympathetic stimulation causes peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow to the skin and thereby decreasing heat loss via radiation and convection. In contrast, vasodilation and sweating are heat-dissipating responses used when the body is too warm. Vitamin D production is related to UV exposure and calcium homeostasis, not an acute cold-defense mechanism.
When running on the treadmill, which of the following sympathetic responses will occur?
- Increased digestive activity
- Increased blood pressure
- Saliva production
- Pupil constriction
Explanation: Answer reason: This is driven by increased heart rate/contractility and peripheral vasoconstriction in nonessential vascular beds, which raises systemic arterial pressure. By contrast, sympathetic tone generally reduces gastrointestinal motility/secretions and tends to decrease salivation (dry mouth). It also causes pupil dilation rather than constriction.
Most sensitive organ for hypoxia?
- Brain
- Lungs
- Kidney
- Thyroid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: Interruption of cerebral oxygenation rapidly leads to impaired consciousness and irreversible neuronal injury within minutes. In contrast, organs like the kidney and thyroid have comparatively greater tolerance to short periods of hypoxia before permanent damage occurs. The lungs are the site of oxygen uptake but are not the organ classically considered most vulnerable to systemic hypoxemia in terms of rapid cell death.
Plsma protien level below ....will lead to edema?
- 5 g/dl
- 6 g/dl
- 7 g/dl
- 8 g/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal total plasma protein is roughly ~6–8 g/dL, so a level below about 6 g/dL indicates reduced oncotic pressure and higher risk of edema. Among the options, 5 g/dL is the only value clearly below the normal range and therefore best matches the threshold concept being tested. Values of 6–8 g/dL are within or at the lower end of typical normal limits and are less consistent with edema due solely to hypoproteinemia.
You have drawn an arterial blood gas on your patient. In reviewing the results you note the following: pH 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and bicarbonate of 22mEq/L. What do you interpret these results to mean?
- Metabolic acidosis, compensated
- Metabolic alkalosis, compensated
- Respiratory acidosis, compensated
- Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
Explanation: Answer reason: Here, the PaCO2 is low at 30 mm Hg, aligning with the alkalemic tendency (pH 7.45 at the upper limit of normal). The bicarbonate is low-normal at 22 mEq/L, which is consistent with renal compensation (metabolic compensation lowers HCO3− to offset the alkalosis). The metabolic options would require the bicarbonate to be the primary abnormality, and respiratory acidosis would feature an elevated PaCO2, which is not present.
Which of organ continuously works (24 hours)?
- Heart
- Nose
- Brain
- Eye
Explanation: Answer reason: The brain maintains respiration drive, cardiovascular regulation, thermoregulation, and endocrine/autonomic coordination throughout sleep and wakefulness. In contrast, the eye’s visual processing depends on external stimuli and can be functionally “resting” during sleep, and the nose is not continuously active in the same essential regulatory sense. While the heart also beats continuously, the question typically targets the organ that remains active even during sleep to maintain homeostasis and life-sustaining control centers.
The ear is an organ of?
- Sight
- Balancing
- Smell
- Taste
Explanation: Answer reason: These structures send signals to the brainstem and cerebellum to coordinate posture, gait, and eye movements (vestibulo-ocular reflex). While the ear is also responsible for hearing, that choice is not offered, making equilibrium the best match among the options. The other options correspond to different sensory organs (eyes for sight, nose for smell, tongue for taste).
ORS is used to prevent?
- Cold
- Allergy
- Fever
- Dehydration
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly prevents and treats dehydration caused by diarrhea and vomiting by replacing both water and essential electrolytes. It does not treat viral respiratory symptoms, allergic reactions, or directly reduce fever, although hydration can support comfort during febrile illness. Therefore the best answer is the option describing prevention of fluid loss complications.
The normal body temperature (adult) is?
- 100°F
- 99.5°F
- 98.6°F
- 97°F
Explanation: Answer reason: 98.6°F Normal adult core temperature is typically cited as about 37°C, which corresponds to 98.6°F, and is used as a standard reference point for baseline thermoregulation. While normal ranges vary by person, time of day, and measurement site, 98.6°F remains the classic “normal” value in exams. Values like 100°F are more consistent with a low-grade fever rather than a baseline norm. Options like 97°F can be seen in some individuals or peripheral readings but are not the standard reference for normal adult body temperature.
ORS is used to prevent?
- Fever
- Dehydration
- Pain
- Cold
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly addresses the primary risk of acute gastroenteritis and other diarrheal illnesses: volume depletion leading to hypovolemia. It does not target the inflammatory set-point changes that cause fever, nor does it provide analgesia for pain. It also has no antiviral or decongestant role for common colds.
Human saliva produces..?
- Pepsin
- Trypsin
- Amylase
- Lipase
Explanation: Answer reason: This is a key physiologic function of salivary glands in the early phase of digestion. Pepsin is produced in the stomach (as pepsinogen) by chief cells, and trypsin is a pancreatic enzyme secreted as trypsinogen into the duodenum, making them incorrect. While lipase activity is primarily gastric and pancreatic, the standard single best answer for human saliva is the carbohydrate-digesting enzyme amylase.
How much water loss during respiration in 24 hrs?
- 100 ml
- 200 ml
- 300 ml
- 400 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: In a typical adult, daily insensible loss is about 700–900 mL total, with the respiratory portion commonly estimated around 300–400 mL over 24 hours at normal temperature and resting ventilation. Among the choices, this standard physiologic estimate is best matched by 400 mL. Lower values like 100–200 mL would underestimate usual pulmonary evaporative loss in an average adult.
Normal bp at birth ?
- 80/50 mmhg
- 50/40 mmhg
- 120/80 mmhg
- 110/70 mmhg
Explanation: Answer reason: A typical term newborn’s average BP is roughly around the 60–80/40–50 mmHg range in the first day of life, making this option the closest match. The 120/80 and 110/70 values reflect adult/older pediatric norms and would be unusually high for a newborn. The 50/40 value is lower than expected for a normal term neonate and would raise concern for hypotension depending on gestational age and clinical context.
Organ Transplant Which of the following organ cannot be transplanted –?
- Kidney
- Heart
- Lung
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: The central nervous system cannot be transplanted as an intact organ because of the impossibility of reconnecting and restoring the complex network of neuronal synapses and long tracts, along with profound issues of ischemic vulnerability and loss of integrated identity/function. In contrast, kidney, heart, and lung transplants are established procedures because these organs can be anastomosed to blood vessels (and airways for lungs) and can resume physiologic function with immunosuppression. A common distractor is assuming any vital organ is “not transplantable,” but clinical practice clearly supports solid-organ transplantation for the other three options.
Which one has high composition in the blood..?
- RBCs
- WBCS
- Plasma
- Platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasma makes up the largest proportion of whole blood volume (about 55%), carrying proteins (albumin, clotting factors), electrolytes, nutrients, hormones, and waste products. The formed elements (RBCs, WBCs, platelets) together account for the remaining ~45%, with RBCs comprising most of that formed portion. A common confusion is equating “most numerous cells” (RBCs) with “largest component,” but by volume plasma is greater.
Which of the following descriptions best defines general adaptation syndrome?
- Activation of brain signals followed by avoidance in response to a perceived threat.
- The arousal of the hippocampus after being triggered by a specific memory.
- The body's response to stress over both short and long-term periods.
- The development of depression over time is a result of a negative situation.
Explanation: Answer reason: General adaptation syndrome describes the predictable physiologic pattern the body follows when exposed to a stressor, progressing through alarm, resistance, and exhaustion phases. This definition emphasizes an integrated, whole-body stress response that can be acute initially and then persist or evolve with ongoing exposure. The other options describe narrower concepts such as avoidance behavior (a coping/behavioral response), memory-linked arousal, or a psychological outcome like depression rather than the systemic physiologic stress model. Because GAS is fundamentally about the body’s staged response over time to stress, this option best matches the concept tested.
The maximum amount of carbon dioxide in the human body is transported as?
- Bicarbonate
- Carbide
- Amylase
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Bicarbonate then exits the RBC in exchange for chloride (chloride shift), allowing the majority of CO2 content to circulate in plasma as HCO3−. Only a smaller fraction is carried bound to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds or dissolved directly in plasma. The other listed choices are not physiologic transport forms for CO2 in human blood.
A nurse cares for a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction because of a suspected bowel obstruction. Which of the following arterial blood gas results might be expected in this patient?
- PH 7.52, PCO2 54 mmHg.
- PH 7.42, PCO2 40 mmHg.
- PH 7.25, PCO2 25 mmHg.
- PH 7.38, PCO2 36 mmHg.
Explanation: Answer reason: pH 7.52, PCO2 54 mmHg. Loss of gastric secretions from bowel obstruction with NG suction leads to loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, producing a metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH). The expected physiologic compensation is hypoventilation to retain CO2, which raises PaCO2. This pattern therefore shows alkalemia with an elevated PaCO2 consistent with compensated metabolic alkalosis. By contrast, a low pH with low PaCO2 reflects respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis (or primary respiratory alkalosis), which is not expected from gastric acid loss.
The site for production of ATP in a cells is?
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi body
- Ribosome
- Cytoplasm
Explanation: Answer reason: These processes occur on the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae), making this organelle the main ATP-producing site in eukaryotic cells. The Golgi body mainly modifies and packages proteins/lipids, and ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis rather than energy production. Although glycolysis produces a small amount of ATP in the cytoplasm, it is not the principal site of ATP production under aerobic conditions.
How does variability appear in fetal heart rate monitoring?
- A steady increase in the heart rate
- Consistent heart rate without fluctuations
- A steady decrease in the heart rate
- Irregular fluctuations in the baseline fetal heart rate
Explanation: Answer reason: Clinically it is seen as irregular oscillations around the baseline rather than a uniform trend up or down. An absent or perfectly consistent tracing suggests reduced autonomic responsiveness and can be concerning when persistent, especially with other nonreassuring features. Therefore, the description that matches variability is irregular baseline fluctuations.
Vomiting is a disorder of...?
- Stomach
- Intestine
- Liver
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: g., vagal inputs from the gut) and blood-borne emetogenic signals. This central control initiates the stereotyped motor sequence (nausea, retching, increased abdominal pressure, and expulsion). While gastric or intestinal irritation can trigger the reflex, they act mainly as peripheral stimuli rather than the primary control site. Therefore the key “disorder” site tested here is central neural regulation rather than a single gastrointestinal organ.
Vitamin d is produced in human body in..?
- Muscle
- Nerve
- Skin
- Bone marrow
Explanation: Answer reason: This is the key site of endogenous production; subsequent hydroxylations occur in the liver (25-hydroxylation) and kidney (1α-hydroxylation) to form the active hormone. Muscle and nerve do not perform this photochemical conversion. Bone marrow is involved in hematopoiesis rather than vitamin D biosynthesis.
Intrinsic factor helps to absorption of....?
- Vita B3
- Vita B9
- Vita B12
- Vita B6
Explanation: Answer reason: It binds vitamin B12 in the gut, protecting it from digestion and enabling receptor-mediated absorption (cubilin/amnionless) in the ileum. Loss of intrinsic factor (e.g., pernicious anemia, gastrectomy) therefore leads specifically to vitamin B12 malabsorption and megaloblastic anemia with possible neurologic deficits. Folate (B9) is absorbed primarily in the proximal small intestine and does not require intrinsic factor, making it a common distractor.
Chvostek's sign is an indication of ?
- Hypernatremia
- Hypocalcaemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypercalcaemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Tapping the facial nerve triggers ipsilateral facial muscle twitching when calcium is low, commonly seen with hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, or after thyroid/parathyroid surgery. Sodium abnormalities can cause neurologic symptoms but do not characteristically produce this facial nerve hyperexcitability sign. Elevated calcium tends to decrease neuromuscular excitability, making this finding unlikely in hypercalcaemia.
Plasma protein which determines oncotic?
- Albumin
- Globulin
- Heme
- Prothrombin
Explanation: Answer reason: Albumin is the most concentrated plasma protein and has a strong osmotic effect, making it the dominant determinant of plasma oncotic pressure. When albumin is low (e.g., liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malnutrition), fluid shifts to the interstitial space causing edema and ascites. Globulins contribute less because their effective concentration and osmotic contribution are smaller. Prothrombin is a clotting factor and heme is not a circulating plasma protein responsible for oncotic pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is hypokalemic. The client presents with irritability, muscle weakness, twitching and hypoventilation. Which of the following is the client exhibiting?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory Acidosis
- Respiratory Alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Alkalemia decreases respiratory drive, which can present as hypoventilation with resulting CO2 retention as compensation. Neuromuscular irritability (twitching, irritability) and muscle weakness are consistent with low potassium and the increased excitability seen with alkalemia. In contrast, primary respiratory alkalosis is driven by hyperventilation, not hypoventilation, making it a poor fit for the stem.
Baby's first cry indicates?
- Circulation
- Breathing
- Digestion
- Reflexes
Explanation: Answer reason: Crying requires air movement through the airway and implies that the newborn has initiated respiration with at least partial alveolar aeration. This transition helps clear fetal lung fluid, establish functional residual capacity, and improve oxygenation, supporting the shift from fetal to neonatal gas exchange. Circulatory changes also occur at birth, but the cry is most directly an indicator of respiratory adaptation rather than gastrointestinal function or general reflex activity.
What percent of Human body is water ?
- 50
- 70
- 75
- 80
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the choices provided, this rounded estimate is best represented by 70%, whereas 50% is more consistent with older age or higher adiposity and 75–80% is more typical for newborns/infants. Because body composition (fat vs lean mass), age, and sex shift total body water, most single-number MCQs expect an approximate adult value rather than an extreme. Therefore the best single answer here is the nearest standard approximation.
Structures involved in blood ph regulation is..?
- Kidney
- Lungs
- Blood plasma
- All the above
Explanation: Answer reason: The lungs rapidly adjust pH by changing ventilation to alter PaCO2, shifting the carbonic acid–bicarbonate equilibrium. The kidneys provide slower but powerful control by excreting H+ (including as ammonium and titratable acid) and regenerating/reabsorbing HCO3−. Blood plasma contains the major extracellular buffer system (bicarbonate) that immediately minimizes pH changes, so all listed structures are involved.
After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- Lethargy
- Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- Muscle weakness
- Muscle irritability
Explanation: Answer reason: This leads to prominent neuromuscular manifestations, classically generalized weakness that can progress to hyporeflexia or paralysis and may also impair respiratory muscle function. While lethargy can occur, it is less specific and less clinically defining than weakness for low potassium states. “Muscle irritability” is more characteristic of hypocalcemia (tetany) rather than hypokalemia, and increased pulse rate with elevated blood pressure is not the typical hallmark of potassium depletion.
Age of puberty in females Is approximately?
- 13 years
- 16 years
- 25 years
- 7 years
Explanation: Answer reason: The average onset of female pubertal changes is around 10–11 years, with menarche commonly occurring around 12–13 years, making 13 years a reasonable approximate exam answer when a single number is requested. Age 16 is later than typical for onset and would raise concern for delayed puberty/primary amenorrhea evaluation if no pubertal signs are present. Age 7 is generally considered precocious puberty in girls in many clinical frameworks, and 25 years is incompatible with normal pubertal timing.
A 58-year-old client with a history of COPD is admitted with shortness of breath, confusion, and headache. ABG results: • pH = 7.28 • PaCO2 = 60 mmHg • HCO3− = 26 mEq/L Which condition is the nurse most likely to identify?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: A primary acid–base disorder is identified by first assessing pH (acidic if <7.35) and then determining whether PaCO2 or HCO3− is driving the change. The pH of 7.28 indicates acidemia, and the markedly elevated PaCO2 of 60 mmHg indicates CO2 retention as the cause, which is characteristic of a respiratory process. The HCO3− is 26 mEq/L (within normal range), supporting an acute or minimally compensated picture rather than a primary metabolic disturbance. In COPD, hypoventilation and ventilation–perfusion mismatch commonly lead to hypercapnia, producing symptoms such as headache and confusion consistent with CO2 narcosis.
Fever is a rise in...?
- Pressure
- Temperature
- Sugar
- Infection
Explanation: Answer reason: Pyrogens (often from infection or inflammation) stimulate cytokine release, which increases prostaglandin E2 and resets the thermoregulatory center upward. This produces heat-conserving and heat-generating responses (e.g., vasoconstriction, shivering) until the body reaches the new temperature set point. Infection is a common cause of fever but is not the physiologic parameter that rises by definition, and pressure or blood sugar are not defining features of fever.
What percent of your body's blood supply goes to the brain?
- 2%
- 20%
- 50%
- None of them
Explanation: Answer reason: At rest, the brain receives roughly 15–20% of cardiac output despite being only about 2% of body mass, matching this option. The 2% figure is commonly confused with the brain’s proportion of body weight rather than its blood flow. A value as high as 50% would be incompatible with normal distribution of systemic perfusion to other vital organs.
Which part of the inner ear is associated with sense of balance?
- Semicircular canals
- Cochlear nerve po
- Bony labyrinth
- Cochlea
Explanation: Answer reason: The semicircular canals specifically sense rotational (angular) movements, providing key input for equilibrium and the vestibulo-ocular reflex. The cochlea and cochlear nerve are primarily responsible for hearing, not balance. “Bony labyrinth” is a structural term for the osseous housing and is not the specific sensory organ responsible for balance detection.
An unconscious client is admitted to an emergency room. Arterial blood gas measurements reveal a pH of 7.30, a low bicarbonate level, a normal carbon dioxide level, a normal oxygen level, and an elevated potassium level. These results indicate the presence of?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Overcompensated respiratory acidosis
- Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The low pH (7.30) confirms acidemia, and the low bicarbonate identifies a primary metabolic cause. A normal PaCO2 indicates there is no primary respiratory acidosis and little to no respiratory compensation occurring at the time of measurement. The elevated potassium is a common accompanying finding in metabolic acidosis due to hydrogen–potassium shifts and impaired renal handling.
The nurse is reviewing medical-surgical concepts with a group of nursing students. When discussing pain, it is appropriate for the nurse to categorize pain that occurs with short duration as?
- Chronic pain
- Acute pain.
- Referred pain.
- Neuropathic pain.
Explanation: Answer reason: Pain classification by duration distinguishes acute from chronic; acute pain has a sudden onset, is typically linked to tissue injury or inflammation, and lasts a short time with expected resolution as healing occurs. This matches the stem’s emphasis on “short duration.” Chronic pain is defined by persistence beyond normal healing time (often >3 months), making it the opposite of the concept being tested. Referred and neuropathic describe pain mechanism/location rather than duration, so they do not best answer the question asked.
Main pigment in RBC is...?
- Hemoglobin
- Melanin
- Chlorophyll
- Albumin
Explanation: Answer reason: This molecule is the dominant protein in red cells and is responsible for their red pigmentation as well as O2/CO2 transport. Melanin is a skin/eye pigment, chlorophyll is a plant pigment, and albumin is a plasma protein rather than an RBC pigment. Therefore the best answer is the oxygen-binding pigment found inside RBCs.
The normal pH of blood is --?
- 6.0-6.5
- 7.35-7.45
- 8.0-8.5
- 5.0-5
Explanation: Answer reason: 7.35-7.45 Normal arterial blood pH is tightly regulated by buffer systems (especially bicarbonate), the lungs (CO2 elimination), and the kidneys (H+ secretion and HCO3− handling). The physiologic range is slightly alkaline to support enzyme function and cellular metabolism. Values below this range indicate acidemia and can depress myocardial contractility and impair responsiveness to catecholamines, while higher values indicate alkalemia and can reduce cerebral blood flow and shift electrolytes like potassium. The other ranges listed are incompatible with normal human homeostasis and would reflect severe, life-threatening derangements.
A client is admitted with severe dehydration secondary to prolonged vomiting. The provider orders 0.45% Normal Saline (½ NS). Which physiological effect is most likely to occur with this fluid prescription?
- Water will move out of the cells, causing cellular shrinkage
- Water will move into the cells, increasing the risk of cerebral edema
- There will be no net movement of water across the cell membrane
- The solution will replace only intravascular volume without affecting cells
Explanation: Answer reason: 45% normal saline is hypotonic relative to plasma, so it lowers extracellular osmolality and drives water movement from the intravascular/extracellular space into cells by osmosis. Cellular swelling is the expected physiologic effect, and in vulnerable tissues such as the brain this can manifest as increased risk for cerebral edema. In contrast, a hypertonic solution would pull water out of cells and cause cellular shrinkage, while isotonic solutions produce minimal net transcellular water shift. Hypotonic fluids also distribute broadly into the intracellular and interstitial compartments rather than replacing only intravascular volume.
A client has a history of taking over-the-counter magnesium supplements. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing hypermagnesemia?
- Tetany
- Hypertension
- Hyperreflexia
- Paralytic ileus
Explanation: Answer reason: This leads to decreased gastrointestinal motility and can manifest as ileus/constipation progressing to paralytic ileus. Hypermagnesemia also tends to cause hyporeflexia, hypotension, and bradycardia, not increased reflexes or blood pressure. Tetany is more consistent with hypocalcemia (and sometimes hypomagnesemia) due to heightened neuromuscular irritability.
The nurse is screening clients for those at increased risk for developing metabolic acidosis. At highest risk for developing metabolic acidosis is the client who?
- Has nausea and vomiting
- Has sepsis and hypotension
- Is taking large doses of thiazide diuretics
- Has decreased oral intake and is dehydrated
Explanation: Answer reason: Sepsis with hypotension is a classic setting for global hypoperfusion and lactic acidosis, making it the highest-risk scenario among the choices. In contrast, vomiting typically causes loss of gastric acid leading to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Thiazide diuretics more commonly contribute to metabolic alkalosis via volume contraction and potassium/hydrogen loss, and dehydration alone does not predict acidosis unless it causes significant shock or renal failure.
How much of the total body weight is composed of water?
- 80% to 90%.
- 70% to 80%.
- 60% to 70%.
- 50% to 60%.
Explanation: Answer reason: Total body water in a typical healthy adult is about 60% of body weight, varying with age, sex, and body fat (higher in infants/lean individuals, lower in older adults/obesity). This range best captures normal physiologic variation while staying anchored to the commonly tested 60% estimate. The higher ranges (70–90%) overestimate adult total body water and are more consistent with newborns rather than the general adult population. The 50–60% range can apply to some older adults or those with higher adiposity, but it is not the best general estimate for total body water.
Anxiety elicits changes in the neurohumoral release patterns involving the neurotransmitters, including?
- Acetylcholine.
- Epinephrine.
- Insulin.
- Sodium.
Explanation: Answer reason: Anxiety activates the sympathetic nervous system and adrenal medulla, producing a surge in catecholamines that drive the “fight-or-flight” response. This neurohumoral response increases circulating catecholamines, leading to tachycardia, increased blood pressure, tremor, and heightened alertness. Among the options, the catecholamine listed is the one most directly tied to acute anxiety-related physiologic changes. Insulin is an endocrine metabolic hormone and sodium is an electrolyte, so neither is a neurotransmitter mediating anxiety symptoms; acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter but is not the primary mediator of the classic sympathetic stress response.
Which client is at greatest risk for developing respiratory alkalosis?
- A client in labor
- A client with diabetes
- A client with renal failure
- An immediate postoperative client
Explanation: Answer reason: During labor, pain, anxiety, and coached rapid breathing commonly increase minute ventilation, making hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis more likely. Diabetes more classically predisposes to metabolic acidosis from ketoacidosis, not primary respiratory alkalosis. Renal failure typically leads to metabolic acidosis due to impaired acid excretion, and immediate postoperative patients are more often at risk for hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis from residual anesthetics/opioids.
Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?
- Plasma membrane
- Transporter proteins
- ATP
- Concentration gradient
- Aquaporins
Explanation: Answer reason: Diffusion and facilitated diffusion rely on the plasma membrane and may use channel/carrier proteins, and osmosis often occurs through aquaporins. The concentration gradient is the driving force for these passive movements. The presence of an ATP requirement defines active transport mechanisms (e.g., pumps) rather than passive transport.
Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane?
- By osmosis.
- Through simple diffusion.
- With the help of a nonspecific transporter.
- Through facilitated diffusion.
- Through porins.
Explanation: Answer reason: Small nonpolar gases move across the lipid bilayer down their concentration gradient without requiring energy or a membrane transport protein. Oxygen is lipophilic enough to dissolve in the phospholipid core and pass directly through the membrane. Osmosis applies specifically to water movement, not to gases. Facilitated diffusion and transporters/porins are mainly needed for polar or charged solutes that cannot cross the hydrophobic bilayer efficiently.
By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Extracellular enzymes
- Aquaporins
Explanation: Answer reason: Cells accomplish this via membrane pumps or cotransporters that use ATP directly (primary active transport) or use stored ion gradients (secondary active transport). In contrast, simple and facilitated diffusion are passive processes that only move substances down their gradient, and aquaporins merely provide channels for passive water movement. Extracellular enzymes aid in breaking down molecules outside the cell rather than transporting them across the membrane.
A chill is a sign that?
- Body temperature is falling.
- Body temperature is rising.
- Body temperature is not changing.
- The metabolic rate is decreasing.
- Blood vessels are dilating.
Explanation: Answer reason: Chills occur when the hypothalamus raises the body’s temperature set point (commonly during infection/pyrogen exposure), and the body perceives itself as “cold” relative to that new set point. Skeletal muscle shivering and peripheral vasoconstriction are activated to generate and conserve heat, which is the physiologic process of increasing core temperature. Therefore a chill typically signals the febrile rise phase rather than cooling. Vasodilation is more consistent with fever breaking and heat loss, not the onset of chills.
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