Physiology Practice Test 1
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology, within the NCLEX test plan under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Physiology section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Physiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Physiology Practice Test 1
In which condition will there be an increase in secretion of ADH?
- Dehydration
- Haemorrhage
- Hypoglycemia
- Both Dehydration and Haemorrhage
Explanation: Answer reason: ADH secretion increases in both dehydration and hemorrhage because decreased circulating volume or increased osmolality stimulates hypothalamic receptors, triggering the posterior pituitary to release ADH to conserve water.
Fluidity of cell membrane is due to ……?
- Integral Protein
- Phospholipids
- Carbohydrates
- Cholesterol
Explanation: Answer reason: Cell membrane fluidity is primarily due to the phospholipid bilayer, whose fatty acid tails allow lateral movement of molecules and maintain membrane flexibility.
Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at?
- Sympathetic ganglia
- Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
- Parasympathetic ganglia
- Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
Explanation: Answer reason: Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings primarily release norepinephrine, not acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is used at autonomic ganglia and parasympathetic postganglionic synapses, but not at most sympathetic postganglionic terminals.
Blood pressure is controlled by?
- Medulla oblongata
- Thyroid gland
- Thymus
- Corpus Luteum
Explanation: Answer reason: The medulla oblongata regulates blood pressure through its vasomotor center, which controls heart rate and vascular tone via autonomic nervous system pathways.
ADH is produced by ?
- Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
- Hypothalamus
- Pons
- Medulla Oblongata
Explanation: Answer reason: ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus, specifically in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei, and then transported to the posterior pituitary for storage and release.
A nurse was tepid sponging a 4-year-old baby in emergency room with a febrile condition, some fumes of water were Observed remaining on the child's body. what process of heat conduction was likely to lower the child's temperature?
- Radiation
- Convection
- Evaporation
- Conduction
Explanation: Answer reason: Evaporation lowers body temperature because the phase change from liquid to vapor requires heat energy, which is drawn from the skin surface. This makes it the most effective cooling mechanism during tepid sponging.
What is the normal range of intracellular pressure in mmHg?
- 30 to 40 mmHg
- 20 to 30 mmHg
- 10 to 30 mmHg
- 10 to 20 mmHg
Explanation: Answer reason: The normal intracellular (intraocular) pressure range is 10–20 mmHg, which maintains proper eye shape and optic nerve function. Pressures above this range can impair aqueous humor outflow and increase the risk of optic nerve damage.
Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by?
- Active transport
- Diffusion
- Facilitated transport
- Osmosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Fatty acids are lipid-soluble, allowing them to move across the cell membrane by simple diffusion without the need for transport proteins or energy. Their hydrophobic nature lets them pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer.
The synthesis of ATP occurs in?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosomes
- Lysosomes
- Nucleus
Explanation: Answer reason: ATP synthesis primarily occurs in the mitochondria, where oxidative phosphorylation takes place within the inner mitochondrial membrane. This process uses the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis to generate large amounts of ATP, making mitochondria the cell’s primary energy-producing organelle.
About one third to one half of the total body lymph is produced by?
- Stomach
- Liver
- Heart
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: The liver contributes a large proportion of lymph to the thoracic duct—approximately one third to one half—due to extensive sinusoidal filtration and high protein-rich interstitial fluid formation.
Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?
- Androgens
- Catecholamines
- Electrolytes
- Estrogens
Explanation: Answer reason: Calcium, potassium, and sodium exist as ions in body fluids and are classified as electrolytes, unlike the other options, which are hormones or neurotransmitters.
Tick the substance that changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to second messengers?
- CAMP
- CGMP
- Protein
- Calcium ions
Explanation: Answer reason: G proteins couple receptors to effector enzymes (e.g., adenylate cyclase and phospholipase C), but are not second messengers. Second messengers include cAMP, cGMP, and Ca2+.
At what age does taste perception develop in a baby?
- Birth
- 4 months
- 6 months
- 8 months
Explanation: Answer reason: Taste buds are functional at birth; newborns distinguish tastes and show a preference for sweet. The taste for salt matures later, around 4–6 months.
What is the common mineral salt present in sweat?
- Calcium Oxalate
- Potassium sulfate
- Sodium Chloride
- Iron sulphate
Explanation: Answer reason: Sweat is primarily a dilute solution of sodium chloride; NaCl is the predominant mineral salt excreted in sweat.
What is the amount of fluid lost from the skin per day?
- 300 mL
- 700 mL
- 800 mL
- 350 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: Insensible water loss through the skin averages about 600–800 mL/day; a commonly used single value is 700 mL.
The primary factor responsible for body heat production is?
- Metabolism
- Release of thyroxine
- Muscle activity
- Stress
Explanation: Answer reason: Heat is primarily generated by metabolic reactions throughout the body; thyroid hormone, muscle activity, and stress modulate heat production, but are not the fundamental sources.
The mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following, except?
- Transmembrane receptors that bind to and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
- Gene replacement is the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect.
- Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by ligand binding
- Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal-transducer protein (G-protein), which in turn generates an intracellular second messenger
Explanation: Answer reason: Gene replacement therapy modifies DNA, not a receptor-mediated signaling process. The other options describe classic transmembrane receptor mechanisms.
Which of the following muscles is involuntary?
- Skeletal muscle
- Smooth muscle
- Cardiac muscle
- Both B and C
Explanation: Answer reason: Skeletal muscle is under voluntary control, while both smooth and cardiac muscle contract involuntarily; therefore, the correct choice is both B and C.
Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?
- Anabolism
- Catabolism
- Tolerance
- Homeostasis
- Metabolism
Explanation: Answer reason: Homeostasis is the physiological process of maintaining a stable internal environment. Anabolism and catabolism are metabolic pathways; tolerance is a reduced response to a substance; and metabolism is the sum of all biochemical processes.
What is the function of saliva in the mouth?
- Provide a taste.
- Aid digestion
- Protect teeth.
- Fight bad breath
Explanation: Answer reason: Saliva contains salivary amylase, which initiates carbohydrate digestion by breaking down starches into maltose. It also lubricates food for swallowing and supports oral hygiene. This enzymatic function marks the beginning of the digestive process in the gastrointestinal system.
Marianne is now at the defervescence stage of the fever; which of the following is expected?
- Delirium
- Gooseflesh
- Cyanotic nail beds
- Sweating
Explanation: Answer reason: During defervescence, the fever set point drops, and the body dissipates heat via vasodilation and diaphoresis; sweating is expected. Delirium and gooseflesh occur during the fever peak/chill phase; cyanosis is not typical of defervescence.
The powerhouse of the cell is...?
- Lysosomes
- Mitochondria
- Golgi bodies
- Nucleus
Explanation: Answer reason: Mitochondria generate ATP through cellular respiration, providing the cell with energy—hence they are called the powerhouse.
What percentage of the human body is water?
- 78%
- 88%
- 50%
- 65%
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults, total body water averages about 60–65% of body weight; 65% is the best answer among the options.
What is the normal temperature of a human body?
- 98.6°F
- 98.4°F
- 39.0°F
- 0°F
Explanation: Answer reason: The normal average human body temperature is approximately 98.6°F (37°C). The other values are not standard normal temperatures.
Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ______.?
- Autocrine
- Paracrine
- Endocrine
- Neuron
Explanation: Answer reason: Paracrine signaling acts on nearby target cells. Autocrine signaling affects the same cell, endocrine signaling is long-distance via the blood, and neuronal signaling is synaptic.
The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio of H2CO3 to NaHCO3 is?
- 1 : 10
- 1 : 20
- 1 : 25
- 1 : 30
Explanation: Answer reason: A blood pH of 7.4 is maintained by the bicarbonate buffer with a 20:1 ratio of base to acid (HCO3−: H2CO3). Given as acid to base (H2CO3: NaHCO3), the ratio is 1:20.
Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than?
- 40 degrees Celsius
- 39 degrees Celsius
- 100 degrees Fahrenheit
- 105.8 degrees Fahrenheit
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyperpyrexia is an extreme fever defined as a core temperature above about 41°C (105.8°F). Only 105.8°F meets this threshold.
Which part of the human body heals the fastest?
- Skin
- Finger
- Tongue
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral mucosa, particularly the tongue, heals rapidly due to its rich blood supply, saliva's growth factors and antimicrobials, and rapid epithelial turnover.
A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. On examination, the pyloric sphincter is found to be thickened and does not open readily. Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his blood probably indicates?
- Acidosis
- Leukocytosis
- Alkalosis
- An excessively low pH.
- Excessive proteinuria
Explanation: Answer reason: Projectile vomiting from pyloric stenosis causes loss of gastric HCl, leading to hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and an elevated blood pH.
The human body's normal pH is _______.?
- Between 7 and 8.
- Between 7 and 8:35.
- Between 7:45 and 8:35
- Between 7:35 and 7:45
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal arterial blood pH is tightly regulated between 7.35 and 7.45, which is the correct range.
John had a fever of 39.5 degrees two days ago, but yesterday he had a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today his temperature has surged to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
- Relapsing
- Intermittent
- Remittent
- Constant
Explanation: Answer reason: Relapsing (recurrent) fever features febrile episodes separated by periods of normal temperature that last at least a day; the pattern of fever–normal–fever across days fits this.
Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
- The highest temperature usually occurs later in the day, around 8 P.M. to 12 A.M.
- The lowest temperature is usually in the afternoon, around 12 p.m.
- Thyroxine decreases body temperature.
- Elderly people are at risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, decreased thermoregulatory control, and a sedentary lifestyle.
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal circadian variation places body temperature at its lowest in the early morning and at its highest later in the day or evening. Options B and C are incorrect, and D misattributes risk factors to hyperthermia rather than hypothermia.
What is 70% of the human body made of?
- Blood
- Muscle
- Water
- Skin
Explanation: Answer reason: The majority of the human body mass is water (about 60–70%), making water the best answer.
Where is the respiratory center located?
- Medulla oblongata
- Cerebellum
- Pons
- Hypothalamus
Explanation: Answer reason: The primary respiratory rhythm-generating centers (dorsal and ventral respiratory groups) are located in the medulla oblongata; pontine centers only modulate breathing.
Dehydration means loss of what?
- Blood
- Water
- Glucose
- Plasma
Explanation: Answer reason: Dehydration is defined as a deficit of body water; it does not specifically mean loss of blood, glucose, or plasma.
Which organ controls blood pressure?
- Heart
- Brain
- Liver
- Kidneys
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys regulate long-term arterial pressure via the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system and control of extracellular fluid volume and sodium balance.
What organ can you live without?
- Kidney
- Pancreas
- Uterus
- Intestines
Explanation: Answer reason: The uterus is a reproductive organ not essential for sustaining life; many people live normally after hysterectomy. In contrast, kidneys, pancreas, and intestines perform vital excretory, endocrine/digestive, and absorptive functions.
A client is admitted with metabolic acidosis. The nurse considers that two body systems interact with the bicarbonate buffer system to preserve healthy body fluid pH. Which two body systems should the nurse assess for compensatory changes?
- Skeletal and nervous
- Circulatory and urinary
- Respiratory and urinary
- Muscular and endocrine
Explanation: Answer reason: Bicarbonate buffering is regulated by the lungs (CO2/carbonic acid) and the kidneys (H+ excretion and HCO3− reabsorption). In metabolic acidosis, respiratory and renal systems provide compensation.
Main cause of hypoglycaemia in a newborn?
- Immature kidneys
- Immature lungs
- Immature liver
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Neonatal hypoglycemia commonly results from limited glycogen stores and immature hepatic gluconeogenesis; kidneys and lungs are not primary causes.
Proximal muscle weakness and atrophy in a child with PEM are due to which electrolyte disturbance?
- Magnesium
- Calcium
- Zinc
- Phosphate
Explanation: Answer reason: PEM commonly leads to hypophosphatemia, which reduces ATP generation and causes proximal muscle weakness and myopathy. The other options are less specifically linked to proximal muscle weakness in PEM.
The most common electrolyte abnormality causing seizures in hospitalized patients is?
- Hypokalemia
- Hypernatremia
- Hyponatremia
- Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyponatremia is the most frequent electrolyte disorder in hospitalized patients and can cause cerebral edema leading to seizures, especially when sodium falls rapidly.
The lack of oxygen in the tissue is called?
- Anoxia
- Hypoxia
- Anorexia
- Cyanosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypoxia is reduced oxygen supply at the tissue level. Anoxia is complete absence of oxygen, anorexia is loss of appetite, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to deoxygenated hemoglobin.
Which of the following activities is increased by the sympathetic nervous system?
- Heart rate
- Secretion of digestive juices
- Secretion of saliva
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Sympathetic activation increases heart rate while it inhibits gastrointestinal and salivary secretions; therefore only heart rate is increased.
Hypothermia in a neonate is characterized by?
- Hyperactivity
- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperglycemia
- Increased urinary output.
Explanation: Answer reason: Cold stress in newborns increases metabolic demand and nonshivering thermogenesis, rapidly consuming glucose and resulting in hypoglycemia; hyperglycemia, hyperactivity, and increased urine output are not typical.
Physiological jaundice in infants appears?
- At birth
- Within first week of birth
- In second week of birth
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Physiologic jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life, peaks at days 3–5, and resolves by about one week in term infants—thus within the first week.
Difference between rectal & oral temp. is?
- 1°F
- 2°F
- 0.5°F
- 1°C
Explanation: Answer reason: Rectal temperature is about 0.5°C (≈0.9°F) higher than oral; rounded, this is 1°F.
The factors influencing heat production are?
- A, b, c
- B, c, d
- A, c, d
- A, b, c, d
Explanation: Answer reason: Heat production rises with increased metabolism and sympathetic activity. Oxidation of food, anxiety/nervousness, and sympathetic stimulation increase thermogenesis. Narcotic drugs generally depress CNS/metabolism and reduce heat production, so they are not included.
Changes occur into pyrexia?
- Increased pulse rate
- Decreased pulse rate
- Increased B.P.
- Decreased B.P
Explanation: Answer reason: Fever increases metabolic rate and sympathetic activity, typically raising heart rate by about 10 beats/min per 1°C; BP change is variable. Thus increased pulse rate is the expected change.
A patient with albuminuria develops edema because of?
- Fall in tissue hydrostatic pressure
- Rise in plasma hydrostatic pressure
- Fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure
- Rise in tissue colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Albuminuria causes loss of albumin leading to hypoalbuminemia, which decreases plasma oncotic (colloid) pressure, favoring fluid movement into interstitial spaces and resulting in edema.
Maximum amount of urea is present in?
- Dorsal aorta
- Hepatic vein
- Renal vein
- Hepatic portal vein
Explanation: Answer reason: Urea is synthesized in the liver and released into the hepatic veins; thus hepatic vein blood has the highest urea concentration. The renal vein has the least due to renal excretion, and the portal vein carries blood before hepatic conversion.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
