Physiology Practice Test 20
Physiology NCLEX Practice Test
Physiology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Physiology. This section explores body functions to strengthen nursing understanding of assessment and intervention planning. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 20th part of the Physiology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Physiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Physiology Practice Test 20
Normal saline is an ?
- Isotonic solution
- Hypotonic solution
- Hypertonic solution
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: 9% sodium chloride) has an effective osmolality close to plasma, so it does not create a net water shift across cell membranes. Isotonic fluids primarily expand the extracellular/intravascular space without causing cells to swell or shrink. This matches how 0.9% NaCl is used clinically for volume resuscitation and replacement. In contrast, hypotonic solutions drive water into cells, and hypertonic solutions pull water out of cells, which is not the behavior of normal saline.
After Death weight is ...?
- Decrease
- Increase
- Same
Explanation: Answer reason: C)same Body weight is determined by mass, and death does not cause an immediate change in the body’s mass. Although physiologic processes stop, the amount of matter present at the moment of death remains essentially unchanged, so the measured weight is the same. Small later changes can occur from dehydration, fluid loss, or gas formation during decomposition, but these are postmortem changes over time rather than an immediate effect of death. Therefore the best single answer is that the weight remains the same.
A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.?
- The life span of RBC is 45 days.
- The life span of RBC is 60 days.
- The life span of RBC is 90 days.
- The life span of RBC is 120 days.
Explanation: Answer reason: Red blood cells normally circulate for about 120 days before being removed by the spleen and liver macrophage system. This physiologic lifespan reflects gradual membrane damage and decreased deformability over time, leading to clearance from circulation. Knowing this helps explain why anemia recovery after bleeding or transfusion is not instantaneous and why chronic hemolysis can quickly lower hemoglobin. The shorter timeframes listed are not the standard lifespan for healthy human erythrocytes and would imply abnormal premature destruction.
The stomach store the food for :
- 4—5 hours
- 7—8 hours
- 9—10 hours
- 2—3 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Typical gastric emptying for a normal mixed meal is on the order of about 3–5 hours, making this duration the best match. Shorter durations are more consistent with liquids or small carbohydrate loads, while much longer durations suggest delayed gastric emptying (e.g., gastroparesis) rather than normal physiology. Therefore, this option aligns with standard physiologic transit timing used in nursing science and basic physiology.
A failure in lymphatic system to return body fluids adequately results in
- Swelling of hands and legs
- Swelling of face and hands
- Oedema in spleen
- Swelling of tissues as oedema
Explanation: Answer reason: When lymphatic drainage fails, fluid accumulates in the interstitial space, producing edema (often protein-rich lymphedema). This is a general tissue phenomenon and can occur in various body regions depending on the site of obstruction or damage. Options limited to specific areas (hands/legs or face/hands) are less universally correct than the broad physiologic outcome.
What is the biological function of potassium ?
- Regulates osmotic pressure in cells
- Cofactor for several enzymes
- Involved in the synthesis of hemoglobin
- Involved in the synthesis of thyroid hormones
Explanation: Answer reason: By balancing intracellular anions and opposing extracellular sodium-driven gradients, it helps maintain normal water distribution across cell membranes. This role is more fundamental and broadly correct than being a primary cofactor for several enzymes, which is classically attributed to magnesium and zinc. Hemoglobin synthesis depends mainly on iron, and thyroid hormone synthesis depends on iodine, not potassium.
A nurse is caring for an anxious fearful client response indicates sympathetic nervous system control?
- Dry skin
- Skin pallor
- Constriction of pupils
- Pulse rate of 60Beats/min
Explanation: Answer reason: This decreased cutaneous perfusion commonly produces paleness/cool skin in anxious or fearful states. In contrast, pupil constriction is a parasympathetic (rest-and-digest) effect; the sympathetic effect would be dilation. A pulse of 60 beats/min suggests relative bradycardia rather than the expected sympathetic tachycardia, making it inconsistent with sympathetic dominance.
Which body system most commonly is affected in patients with electrolyte imbalances?
- Cardiovascular system
- Neuromuscular system
- Renal system
- Endocrine system
Explanation: Answer reason: When levels shift, the earliest and most common manifestations are neuromuscular—weakness, cramps, tetany, paresthesias, and changes in deep tendon reflexes. Cardiac rhythm disturbances are clinically critical, but they are not as broadly or consistently present across electrolyte disorders as neuromuscular signs. The renal system is a frequent cause/regulator of electrolyte balance rather than the primary system “affected” by the imbalance itself.
Which problem can develop as a result of too rapid correction of hypernatremia?
- Pulmonary oedema
- Cerebral oedema
- Arrhythmias
- Renal failure
Explanation: Answer reason: Water then shifts into neurons and glial cells, producing cerebral swelling and rising intracranial pressure with risk of headache, seizures, and herniation. This is why hypernatremia is corrected gradually (typically no more than ~10–12 mEq/L per 24 hours in most situations). Arrhythmias are more classically linked to potassium or calcium disturbances, and pulmonary edema/renal failure are not the characteristic osmotic complication of overly rapid sodium correction.
The percentage of water in the average adult human body is ?
- 80%
- 40%
- 60%
- 90%
Explanation: Answer reason: This value is a standard physiology reference used to estimate fluid volumes and guide clinical calculations (e.g., distribution of water-soluble substances). Higher percentages are more typical of newborns/infants, whereas older adults and those with higher adipose tissue generally have lower total body water. Therefore, 60% best matches the average adult baseline among the choices.
In following which sentence is true?
- Process of inspiration is passive
- Process of expiration is active
- Process of inspiration is active
- Both the processes of respiration is active
Explanation: Answer reason: Expiration at rest is typically passive due to elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall once inspiratory muscles relax. Expiration becomes active only during forced breathing (e.g., exercise, coughing) when abdominal and internal intercostal muscles contract. Therefore the statement describing inspiration as active is the only generally true option as written.
Which Is Know As River Of Life?
- Serum
- Blood
- CSF
- Water
Explanation: Answer reason: It also carries hormones and other signaling molecules that coordinate organ function across the body. In addition, it supports homeostasis through temperature regulation, buffering, and maintenance of fluid balance. Serum is only the liquid component after clotting, CSF primarily cushions the CNS, and water alone does not provide the cellular transport, immune, and hemostatic roles that define this concept.
A fever is indicated when body temperature rises over oral temperature of?
- 98.6 degree F
- 99.5 degree F
- 97.8 degree F
- 100 degree F
Explanation: Answer reason: In many nursing fundamentals/physiology references, an oral temperature at or above about 100°F (≈37.8°C) is used as a practical threshold suggesting fever rather than normal diurnal variation. Values like 98.6°F represent average normal, and 99.5°F can occur with normal circadian fluctuation, activity, or mild environmental effects. Therefore the best cutoff among the choices is the one that most reliably indicates abnormal elevation.
In vibratory motion the maximum displacement of the body on either side of its equilibrium position is called?
- Distance
- Displacement
- Amplitude
- Frequency
Explanation: Answer reason: The maximum value of this displacement measured from equilibrium to the extreme position is termed amplitude. Distance is total path length traveled and can be larger over multiple oscillations, while frequency describes how many oscillations occur per unit time. “Displacement” alone is a general term and does not specifically indicate the maximum (peak) value.
Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
- Stage I non-REM
- Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
- Stage II non-REM
- Delta stage
Explanation: Answer reason: REM sleep shows an EEG pattern closer to wakefulness, supporting complex mentation and dream recall. In contrast, non-REM stages (I and II) are associated with lighter sleep and less vivid, more fragmented thoughts. Delta (slow-wave) sleep is deep non-REM sleep focused on physical restoration and is not the primary stage for vivid dreaming.
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses?
- Bradycardia
- Tachycardia
- Hypotension
- Decreased Myocardial Contractility
Explanation: Answer reason: This produces an increased heart rate and typically increased contractility via enhanced calcium handling in cardiomyocytes. In contrast, bradycardia is a parasympathetic (vagal, muscarinic) effect, and decreased myocardial contractility contradicts the expected beta-1 inotropic response. Hypotension is also not the typical primary effect because sympathetic tone generally increases peripheral vascular resistance via alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction, tending to raise blood pressure.
The first sign of puberty in girls is?
- Acne
- Hair growth in the pubic area and underarms
- Thelarche
- Menarche
Explanation: Answer reason: This breast budding is the earliest reliable Tanner stage change and precedes pubic/axillary hair development, which is more androgen-dependent. Menarche occurs later after sufficient maturation of the reproductive axis and endometrial cycling, so it is not the first sign. Acne can occur in adolescence but is nonspecific and not the earliest consistent marker of pubertal onset.
The body system that functions to maintain fluid balance, support immunity and contains the spleen is the?
- Lymphatic System
- Digestive System
- Urinary System
- Reproductive System
Explanation: Answer reason: It is a core part of immune defense by filtering lymph, housing lymphocytes, and transporting immune cells throughout the body. The spleen is a major lymphatic organ that filters blood, removes aged cells, and supports immune surveillance. The urinary system regulates fluid volume via renal excretion but does not contain the spleen and is not the primary immune-organ system described here.
The nurse is reviewing her patient assignment for the shift and has each of the following patients. Which patient is most at risk for hypokalemia?
- A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum
- A patient in renal failure
- A patient in diabetic ketoacidosis
- A patient with third degree burns
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent, severe nausea/vomiting with dehydration and electrolyte losses, making low potassium a classic risk. In contrast, renal failure more often reduces potassium excretion and predisposes to hyperkalemia. Diabetic ketoacidosis may present with an initially normal/high serum potassium despite total body depletion, but the most direct and common clinical scenario for hypokalemia among these options is ongoing emesis.
Which vitamin is essential for vision?
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: Deficiency impairs dark adaptation first, producing night blindness and progressing to xerophthalmia and corneal damage. This mechanism directly links vitamin A to normal visual function. In contrast, vitamin C is mainly needed for collagen synthesis and antioxidant roles, vitamin B12 for neurologic function and DNA synthesis, and vitamin K for coagulation factor activation.
The presence of which of the following electrolytes contributes to acidosis?
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Hydrogen
- Chloride
Explanation: Answer reason: In physiologic acid–base balance, the primary “acid” in body fluids is H+, so its accumulation directly produces metabolic or respiratory acidosis depending on the source. By contrast, sodium and potassium are major cations but do not intrinsically determine acidity; they mainly affect osmolality and membrane potentials. Chloride can be associated with certain metabolic acidoses (hyperchloremic acidosis) via bicarbonate dilution/shift, but it is not the defining ion that causes acidosis.
The lungs participate in acid-base balance by:
- Reabsorbing bicarbonate
- Splitting carbonic acid in two
- Using CO2 to regulate hydrogen ions
- Sending hydrogen ions to the renal tubules
Explanation: Answer reason: The lungs regulate acid–base status by controlling ventilation, which changes arterial CO2 and thereby shifts the carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer equation (CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3 ⇌ H+ + HCO3−). When ventilation increases, CO2 is “blown off,” driving the reaction left and lowering hydrogen ion concentration (raising pH); hypoventilation retains CO2 and increases hydrogen ions (lowering pH). This is the primary rapid (minutes) respiratory mechanism for pH compensation. In contrast, bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion secretion into renal tubules are kidney functions, not lung functions.
The respiratory system regulates acid-base balance by:
- Increasing mucus production
- Changing the rate and depth of respirations
- Forming bicarbonate
- Reabsorbing water
Explanation: Answer reason: Increasing rate and/or depth removes more CO2, lowering PaCO2 and reducing carbonic acid, which raises pH (respiratory alkalosis tendency). Decreasing ventilation retains CO2, increasing PaCO2 and carbonic acid, lowering pH (respiratory acidosis tendency). Bicarbonate formation and most acid/base buffer handling are predominantly renal and metabolic processes rather than a direct respiratory mechanism. Mucus production and water reabsorption do not meaningfully regulate systemic acid-base balance.
Chloride helps maintain acid-base balance by performing which of the following roles?
- Participating in the chloride shift
- Following sodium to maintain serum osmolarity
- Maintaining the balance of cations in the ICF and ECF
- Separating carbonic acid
Explanation: Answer reason: As bicarbonate (HCO3−) leaves RBCs into plasma, chloride enters RBCs to preserve electroneutrality, facilitating continued CO2 transport and buffering capacity. This exchange helps maintain appropriate plasma bicarbonate levels, which directly affects blood pH. In contrast, following sodium mainly relates to osmolarity and fluid balance rather than the primary buffering/CO2 transport mechanism.
Chloride is absorbed in the?
- Stomach
- Bowel
- Liver
- Kidney
Explanation: Answer reason: Parietal cells take up chloride from the blood across the basolateral membrane and then move it into the gastric lumen where it combines with hydrogen ions to form HCl, reflecting active chloride uptake by the stomach lining. In contrast, the kidney is primarily responsible for regulating chloride balance through filtration and tubular reabsorption rather than being the key site classically tested for chloride absorption. The bowel certainly absorbs electrolytes, but exam framing about chloride linked to HCl production points most directly to the stomach.
Which vitamin helps in blood clotting?
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Explanation: Answer reason: This post-translational modification is vitamin K–dependent for factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S), enabling them to bind calcium and participate effectively in the clotting cascade. Deficiency or antagonism (e.g., warfarin) leads to impaired clot formation and bleeding tendency with prolonged PT/INR. A common distractor is vitamin C, which is important for collagen synthesis and capillary integrity but does not drive coagulation factor activation.
Normal body temperature is?
- 35°C
- 36.5–37°C
- 38°C
- 39°C
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal core body temperature in healthy adults is maintained by hypothalamic thermoregulation within a narrow physiologic range. The stated range reflects typical oral/axillary values commonly used as “normal” in basic physiology and nursing assessments. Values like 38°C and 39°C are generally consistent with fever rather than normal baseline temperature, while 35°C suggests hypothermia. Therefore the option that best represents normal body temperature is the mid–36 to 37°C range.
Adipose tissue stores –
- Water
- Fat
- Protein
- Sugar
Explanation: Answer reason: These lipid stores can be mobilized during fasting or increased energy demand via lipolysis, making fat the main substance stored. While adipose tissue also has endocrine functions, its core storage role is not for water, protein, or sugar. Glucose is mainly stored as glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle rather than in adipocytes.
The process of cell division producing identical cells is –?
- Meiosis
- Binary fission
- Mitosis
- Fertilization
Explanation: Answer reason: This is the mechanism used for growth, tissue repair, and routine cell replacement in multicellular organisms. Meiosis instead reduces chromosome number and creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical cells. Binary fission is a prokaryotic replication method and is not the standard term for eukaryotic cell division in this context. Fertilization is the fusion of gametes and increases genetic variation rather than creating identical daughter cells.
Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: Deficiency therefore leads to impaired activation of factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S), causing bleeding tendency and prolonged clotting times. This directly matches the concept of “essential for blood clotting.” A common distractor is vitamin E, which is an antioxidant and in excess can actually increase bleeding risk by interfering with vitamin K–dependent pathways. Vitamins A and D primarily support vision/epithelial integrity and calcium-bone metabolism, respectively, not coagulation.
Which organ is called "blood bank of body"?
- Liver
- Spleen
- Kidney
- Bone marrow
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen stores a significant volume of blood, especially platelets (and in some animals a larger RBC reserve), and can release them into circulation during physiologic stress. It also filters aged or damaged red blood cells and participates in immune surveillance, aligning with its role as a dynamic blood reservoir. Bone marrow is primarily the site of hematopoiesis, not storage, while liver and kidney do not function as a primary reservoir for circulating blood elements.
The normal body temperature is?
- 37°C
- 35°C
- 39°C
- 40°C
Explanation: Answer reason: 6°F) with small expected diurnal variation. This value represents physiologic homeostasis of heat production and heat loss in a healthy adult. Temperatures around 35°C suggest hypothermia, not normal baseline. Values like 39–40°C indicate fever/hyperthermia and would generally reflect pathologic elevation rather than normal temperature.
Human Ear Unit of sound intensity ______
- Joules per sq. cm
- Watt per sq. cm
- Joules per cm
- Watt per cm
Explanation: Answer reason: Sound intensity is defined as acoustic power transmitted per unit area, so its unit must be power/area. Power is measured in watts, and dividing by area gives W/m^2 (often expressed in smaller units such as W/cm^2 in some contexts). Options using joules are incorrect because joule is energy, not power, and intensity is not energy per area unless specified as energy flux integrated over time. Options expressed per cm rather than per square centimeter are dimensionally wrong because area must be squared.
Salivary amylase is also known as ______?
- Gastrin
- Glyoxylase
- Pepsin
- Ptyalin
Explanation: Answer reason: The historical/alternate name for this enzyme is ptyalin, commonly used in basic physiology and biochemistry contexts. Gastrin is a gastric hormone that stimulates acid secretion, not an enzyme in saliva. Pepsin is a stomach protease that digests proteins, not carbohydrates, and is not present in saliva.
Which of the following is a hazard of immobility?
- Loss of bone calcium
- Increased vital capacity
- Venous vasoconstriction
- A positive nitrogen balance
Explanation: Answer reason: This creates a clinically important risk for osteoporosis and fracture and can contribute to hypercalciuria and renal stone formation. In contrast, immobility decreases chest expansion and typically lowers, not raises, vital capacity. It also tends to cause venous stasis rather than beneficial vasoconstriction, and it is associated with negative (not positive) nitrogen balance due to muscle catabolism.
Which muscle plays a major role in breathing?
- Heart muscle
- Biceps
- Diaphragm
- Intercostal muscles
Explanation: Answer reason: The key muscle for quiet inspiration is the dome-shaped muscle separating thorax and abdomen; when it contracts it descends, increasing intrathoracic volume and lowering alveolar pressure to draw air in. The external intercostals assist by elevating the ribs, but they are secondary to the primary inspiratory driver. Heart muscle and biceps do not generate ventilatory pressure changes needed for respiration.
ORS treatment for?___
- Diarrhea
- B.hypotension
- Dehydration
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: ORS works by coupling glucose and sodium absorption in the intestine, which promotes water uptake and restores extracellular fluid volume. This directly treats mild to moderate dehydration, especially from acute gastroenteritis, by replacing water and electrolytes in physiologic proportions. Diarrhea is a symptom/condition that may cause dehydration, but ORS does not “treat” the diarrhea itself; it prevents and corrects the fluid deficit it creates. Hypotension may improve secondarily as intravascular volume is restored, but persistent or severe hypotension suggests shock and may require IV fluids rather than relying on oral therapy.
Within three (3) minutes after birth the normal heart rate of the infant may range between?
- 100 and 180
- 130 and 170
- 120 and 160
- 100 and 130
Explanation: Answer reason: In the first minutes of life, a normal rate is typically within the broad range of about 100–180 bpm, and brief elevations toward the upper end can occur with crying and stimulation. Ranges that cap at 130–170 or 120–160 are closer to calmer, later newborn baselines and can falsely label normal early tachycardia as abnormal. A narrower 100–130 range would miss many normal newborns in the immediate post-birth period.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving serum albumin. What therapeutic effect does the nurse anticipate?
- Improved clotting of blood
- Formation of red blood cells
- Activation of white blood cells
- Maintenance of oncotic pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Administering serum albumin increases intravascular oncotic pressure, promoting movement of water from the interstitial compartment back into circulation and supporting blood volume. This is why albumin is used as a volume expander in settings such as hypoalbuminemia with edema or third spacing. It does not provide clotting factors, does not stimulate erythropoiesis, and does not directly activate leukocytes.
The major nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is?
- Urea
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Creatinine
Explanation: Answer reason: This strategy minimizes water loss and is advantageous for flight and for developing embryos inside eggs. In contrast, ammonia requires large volumes of water for excretion and is typical of many aquatic animals, while urea is the primary waste in mammals. Creatinine is a minor metabolic waste product and is not the primary nitrogenous excretory product in birds.
How much blood does the body have in reserve and where is it stored?
- 150 ml stored in liver
- 10 ml stored in gall bladder
- 100 ml stored in the spleen
- 15 ml stored in the heart
Explanation: Answer reason: A reserve volume on the order of ~100 mL is commonly cited in basic physiology for humans, recognizing that exact values vary with splenic size and physiologic state. The gallbladder stores bile, not blood, and the heart is a pump rather than a storage organ. While the liver contains a large vascular volume and can serve as a capacitance bed, this item’s specific “reserve blood” pairing in standard teaching points most directly targets the spleen.
Which function of the pancreas increases the release of bile from the gall bladder into the intestine?
- Choleretic action
- Hydrotropic effect
- Cholagogue action
- Emulsification
Explanation: Answer reason: A cholagogue is any agent that promotes discharge of bile into the intestine by stimulating gallbladder emptying. In contrast, choleretics increase bile production by the liver rather than its ejection from the gallbladder. Emulsification is a downstream digestive role of bile salts in the intestine, not a pancreatic function that drives bile release.
The success of distraction and massage as pain management techniques is described by which theory of pain?
- Intensity
- Specificity
- Gate control
- Neuromatrix
Explanation: Answer reason: Massage stimulates large-diameter A-beta fibers, which increases inhibitory interneuron activity in the dorsal horn and reduces pain signal “passage” upward. Distraction engages descending inhibitory pathways and shifts attention, further decreasing perceived pain by reducing central amplification of nociceptive input. Intensity and specificity theories do not explain how competing sensory input or cognitive modulation reduces pain perception, and neuromatrix is broader but less directly tied to tactile counterstimulation mechanisms.
The nurse suspects hypokalemia is present in a patient who has which of the following symptoms?
- Edema, bounding pulse, confusion
- Spasms, diarrhea, irregular pulse rate
- Sunken eyes, Kussmaul breathing, thirst
- Apathy, weakness, abdominal distension
Explanation: Answer reason: This produces fatigue, generalized weakness, and decreased GI motility leading to constipation/ileus with abdominal distension. Potassium depletion can also contribute to lethargy or apathy and predispose to dysrhythmias, but the key symptom cluster here is neuromuscular weakness plus hypomotile bowel. By contrast, spasms are more typical of hypocalcemia, and Kussmaul breathing with thirst suggests metabolic acidosis with dehydration (e.g., DKA) rather than low potassium as the primary disturbance.
The sucking reflex in babies develops
- After 6 months
- In the womb
- After birth
- When taught
Explanation: Answer reason: The fetus demonstrates sucking and swallowing movements prenatally (commonly observed by ultrasound), and by late gestation the reflex is functional enough to support feeding after delivery. Therefore it does not require postnatal learning or teaching. Waiting until 6 months would be inconsistent with the need for effective feeding immediately after birth.
Normal fetal heart rate is?
- 60–80
- 80–100
- 110–160
- 200–250
Explanation: Answer reason: The accepted normal range for a term fetus is 110–160 beats per minute, used clinically as the baseline when interpreting fetal monitoring. Values below this range suggest fetal bradycardia, while sustained values above it suggest tachycardia and may indicate hypoxia, infection, or medication effects. The lower options align more with adult bradycardic ranges rather than fetal physiology, and the highest option is excessively elevated for a normal baseline.
Dehydration commonly occurs in: ..?
- Diarrhea
- Fever
- TB
- Typhoid
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute diarrhea causes large-volume water and electrolyte losses (especially sodium, bicarbonate, and potassium), quickly reducing intravascular volume. This makes dehydration a common and direct complication even when fever or infection is the underlying cause. Fever can increase insensible losses, but typically causes less rapid, less profound volume depletion than significant diarrheal stool output unless prolonged with poor intake.
After a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden drop in blood pressure, but there is no evidence of bleeding. What should the nurse identify as the most likely cause of the change as in blood pressure?
- Inadequate fluid intake
- Consequence of anesthesia
- Increased level of epinephrine
- Reallocation of the blood supply
Explanation: Answer reason: This reduces systemic vascular resistance and venous return, which can drop blood pressure abruptly even without hemorrhage. The change is therefore best explained by redistribution of blood volume into dilated vascular beds. Anesthesia can contribute to hypotension, but the procedure-specific loss of sympathetic tone more directly accounts for a sudden postoperative fall without bleeding.
Blood What prevents clotting of blood in blood vessels?
- Serotonin
- Fibrinogen
- Heparin
- Fibrin
Explanation: Answer reason: Heparin (via potentiation of antithrombin III) inactivates thrombin and factor Xa, preventing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and limiting clot propagation within intact vessels. In contrast, fibrinogen and fibrin are procoagulant substrates/products that form the clot meshwork. Serotonin mainly contributes to vasoconstriction and platelet-related responses rather than serving as the primary intravascular anticoagulant.
Which of the following is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- Protein synthesis
- Energy production
- Cell division
- Waste removal
Explanation: Answer reason: Mitochondria are the primary site of aerobic cellular respiration, generating ATP that powers most cellular processes. They house the citric acid (Krebs) cycle and the electron transport chain, which together produce the majority of a cell’s usable energy. Protein synthesis is mainly performed by ribosomes (often on the rough endoplasmic reticulum), not mitochondria. Waste breakdown and recycling are more characteristic of lysosomes and peroxisomes, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus and cytoskeletal machinery.
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