Question 1

The antimicrobial drug that cannot be used orally?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amikacin is an aminoglycoside that is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and therefore is administered parenterally. Cephalexin, erythromycin, and cefaclor all have oral formulations.

Question 2

Which of the following group of antibiotics have bactericidal effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aminoglycosides are concentration‑dependent bactericidal antibiotics acting on the 30S ribosomal subunit; tetracyclines and macrolides are generally bacteriostatic.

Question 3

Which injection is used for allergic reactions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is the first-line injection for severe allergic reactions/anaphylaxis. Vitamin B12 treats deficiency, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and cefotaxime is an antibiotic.

Question 4

Epinephrine reacts with which of the following receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine is a catecholamine that activates alpha and beta adrenergic receptors; cholinergic (muscarinic and nicotinic) receptors respond to acetylcholine, not epinephrine.

Question 5

What is the most important factor to be considered in drug prescription?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Age most strongly affects pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics (especially in pediatrics and geriatrics), guiding dose selection and safety more broadly than weight or race.

Question 6

What is cetirizine used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used for allergic conditions such as allergic rhinitis and urticaria; it is not for infections or stomach problems. While it relieves pruritus, the primary indication is allergy.

Question 7

Which drug is important for treating a sore throat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: First-line therapy for bacterial pharyngitis (e.g., group A Streptococcus) is penicillin or amoxicillin. Tetracycline and metronidazole are not first-line; azithromycin is an alternative for penicillin allergy.

Question 8

Which pharmacological treatment is commonly used for managing left-sided heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loop diuretics relieve fluid overload and pulmonary congestion in HFrEF; calcium channel blockers are not standard and may worsen HFrEF, anticoagulants and antibiotics are not routinely indicated.

Question 9

Which class of drugs is commonly used as first-line treatment for acid peptic disorders?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PPIs irreversibly inhibit the gastric H+/K+ ATPase, providing the most potent and sustained acid suppression, making them the first-line therapy for GERD and peptic ulcer disease. H2RAs, antacids, and prostaglandin analogues are alternatives or adjuncts.

Question 10

Which medication is the odd one out among Albendazole, Clotrimazole, Ketoconazole, and Antifungal azoles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Albendazole is an anthelmintic, whereas clotrimazole and ketoconazole are azole antifungals and “antifungal azoles” denotes that class. Therefore Albendazole is the odd one out.

Question 11

Which medication is most commonly used as the first-line treatment for Prinzmetal angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prinzmetal (variant) angina is due to coronary vasospasm; calcium channel blockers relieve and prevent spasm and are first-line. Beta-blockers may worsen vasospasm, and ACE inhibitors/antiplatelets are not primary therapy for variant angina.

Question 12

Which medication class is commonly prescribed for patients with GERD to reduce gastric acid production?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PPIs block the gastric H+/K+ ATPase, directly reducing gastric acid secretion and are first-line for GERD. Antacids neutralize existing acid, antihistamines are H1 blockers, and laxatives affect bowel motility.

Question 13

Which class of drugs is commonly available over-the-counter for the treatment of mild acid peptic disorders?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antacids are widely available OTC and are typically used for rapid relief of mild, occasional acid-related symptoms; prostaglandin analogues are prescription-only, and PPIs/H2RAs are used for more persistent symptoms despite some OTC availability.

Question 14

Which of the following natural penicillins has the longest duration of action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzathine penicillin G is a low-solubility IM depot formulation that releases drug slowly, giving the longest duration among natural penicillins; procaine penicillin is long-acting but shorter.

Question 15

Blockade of which receptors reduces heart rate and is beneficial in hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Beta-1 receptors are primarily in the heart; blocking them (beta-blockers) decreases heart rate and contractility, lowering blood pressure and benefiting hypertension.

Question 16

How does bromhexine act in the respiratory system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bromhexine is a mucolytic; it breaks down and depolymerizes mucopolysaccharides in sputum to reduce viscosity and aid clearance.

Question 17

If a mother received lithium treatment for bipolar disorder during pregnancy, which fetal defect is most likely to occur?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lithium exposure in early pregnancy is classically associated with congenital cardiac anomalies, particularly Ebstein anomaly of the tricuspid valve.

Question 18

Which of the following drugs is neither a bronchodilator nor anti-inflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ketotifen is an H1 antihistamine with mast cell–stabilizing properties and is not a bronchodilator or corticosteroid anti-inflammatory. Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer without antihistaminic action; beclomethasone is anti-inflammatory; mepyramine is an antihistamine but not a mast cell stabilizer.

Question 19

Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, reducing gastric mucosal protection and increasing risk for gastritis.

Question 20

Propranolol, a non-selective beta-adrenergic blocker, is contraindicated in patients with which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nonselective beta-blockers like propranolol block beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, risking bronchospasm and asthma exacerbation; therefore they are contraindicated in asthma.

Question 21

What is the most appropriate treatment for a 46-year-old patient with thickened, discolored fingernails and fungal hyphae seen on KOH preparation from nail scrapings?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Findings indicate onychomycosis; first-line therapy is an oral antifungal, most effectively oral terbinafine. Hydrocortisone is a steroid, acyclovir is antiviral, and amoxicillin is antibacterial.

Question 22

Which solution is used as an astringent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aluminum acetate (Burow's solution) is an astringent used topically; the others are antiseptics or stimulants, not astringents.

Question 23

Which medication is most commonly recommended for the treatment of maternal hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propylthiouracil is preferred in pregnancy—especially the first trimester—due to lower teratogenic risk compared with methimazole/carbimazole. Radioactive iodine is contraindicated; levothyroxine treats hypothyroidism; corticosteroids are not first-line therapy.

Question 24

Which subclass of sympatholytics is most appropriate to control symptoms such as hypertension in a patient with pheochromocytoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pheochromocytoma causes excess catecholamine release; initial blood pressure control requires alpha-adrenergic blockade (e.g., phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin). Beta blockade alone risks unopposed alpha stimulation and worsening hypertension.

Question 25

Central inhibition of sympathetic outflow can be achieved through the activation of which receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alpha2 receptor activation in the CNS (e.g., clonidine) decreases sympathetic outflow via presynaptic inhibition of norepinephrine release.

Question 26

Which adverse effect is most likely mediated through histamine H1 receptors in a patient experiencing itching and rash after taking a new medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Histamine H1 activation causes bronchoconstriction, vasodilation with increased permeability, and pruritus. Dry mouth is anticholinergic, increased appetite is not an H1 effect, and increased heart rate is mainly H2 mediated.

Question 27

How do indirectly-acting sympathomimetics exert their effects on target tissues?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Indirect-acting sympathomimetics increase synaptic norepinephrine primarily by promoting its release from presynaptic terminals, rather than directly stimulating receptors or increasing reuptake.

Question 28

Which receptor in the brain do benzodiazepines primarily target to produce their sedative and hypnotic effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzodiazepines act as positive allosteric modulators at GABA-A receptors, enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission and producing sedation and hypnosis.

Question 29

Which group of antibiotics carries boxed warnings for tendinitis, tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, and CNS effects such as hallucinations, anxiety, insomnia, confusion, and seizures?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones have FDA boxed warnings for tendinitis and tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, and CNS effects including hallucinations, anxiety, insomnia, confusion, and seizures.

Question 30

What is the primary use of the injection Solu-Medrol (Methylprednisolone)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Solu-Medrol is methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid used for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects, not for vomiting, urinary infections, or hemostasis.

Question 31

Which non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic selectively acts on the omega-1 subtype of the GABA-A receptor and is commonly used for the short-term treatment of insomnia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that selectively binds the BZ1 (omega-1) subtype of the GABA-A receptor and is used for short-term insomnia. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate, diazepam is a benzodiazepine, and buspirone is a 5-HT1A partial agonist anxiolytic.

Question 32

What is the primary action of mydriatic drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mydriatic drugs produce pupillary dilation (e.g., phenylephrine, tropicamide); constriction is caused by miotics and vascular effects are not their primary action.

Question 33

Which of the following routes of administration refers to the introduction of a drug directly into the bone marrow?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intramedullary means within the medullary (marrow) cavity of bone. Intra-articular is into a joint, intraperitoneal into the peritoneal cavity, and intrathecal into the CSF.

Question 34

Which sulfa drug is used in combination with pyrimethamine for the treatment of malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sulfadoxine is paired with pyrimethamine (Fansidar) as an antimalarial regimen; the other sulfonamides are used for different indications.

Question 35

Which enzyme is inhibited by the sulfonamide group of antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sulfonamides are PABA analogs that competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase, blocking folate synthesis in bacteria.

Question 36

Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with lidocaine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lidocaine can cause cardiovascular depression and peripheral vasodilation, leading to hypotension; the other options are not typical adverse effects.

Question 37

What is a frequent adverse effect of high-dose cimetidine therapy in a patient with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes, especially at high doses used for Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, leading to clinically significant inhibition of metabolism of many drugs. The other options are incorrect or rare (e.g., antiandrogenic—not antiestrogenic—effects).

Question 38

Which tetracycline drug is the most appropriate choice for treating a patient with acne vulgaris due to higher efficacy, better tissue penetration, and longer half-life?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Minocycline is a lipophilic tetracycline with superior tissue and sebaceous gland penetration and a longer half-life, making it more effective for acne vulgaris than other tetracyclines.

Question 39

The local anesthetic drugs act by inhibiting activation and preventing the propagation of action potentials in neurons by blocking which channel?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local anesthetics reversibly block voltage-gated sodium channels in neuronal membranes, preventing depolarization and propagation of action potentials.

Question 40

What is the treatment of choice for community-acquired pneumonia in a neonate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Empiric therapy for neonatal community-acquired pneumonia targets GBS, Listeria, and gram-negative bacilli; the standard regimen is ampicillin plus gentamicin for synergistic coverage.

Question 41

Lithium therapy during pregnancy increases the chance of what in the fetus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lithium is teratogenic, classically associated with congenital cardiac defects—especially Ebstein anomaly—rather than neural tube or limb defects.

Question 42

Half life (t1/2) is the time required to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drug half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration or total amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% due to elimination. Option A reflects this definition; the other options describe metabolism, absorption, or protein binding, which are not definitions of half-life.

Question 43

Ziprasidone capsule is typically used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ziprasidone (Geodon) is an atypical antipsychotic used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

Question 44

Inj Atropine is used in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic that blocks vagal effects on the heart, increasing heart rate; it is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia.

Question 45

What is the primary use of Mifepristone tablets?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mifepristone is an antiprogestin used, typically with misoprostol, for medical termination of early intrauterine pregnancy.

Question 46

Atenolol is used for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker commonly prescribed to lower blood pressure; thus it treats hypertension.

Question 47

What is promethazine used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Promethazine is a first-generation antihistamine with antiemetic and anticholinergic properties used for allergic reactions and to relieve nausea and vomiting; therefore, all listed uses are correct.

Question 48

Chloroquine is given for treating which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug used to treat susceptible Plasmodium infections, not AIDS, cancer, or tetanus.

Question 49

Cholestyramine acts as antidiarrheal by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant; it binds intestinal bile salts, reducing bile acid–induced diarrhea. It does not act as an opioid or somatostatin analog.

Question 50

Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics – cephalosporins?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cefaclor is a second-generation cephalosporin. The others are different classes: streptomycin (aminoglycoside), phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V), and erythromycin (macrolide).

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