Question 1

Oral steroids are prescribed on a taper in order to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Abrupt discontinuation of systemic glucocorticoids can cause hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression to manifest as adrenal insufficiency and rebound inflammation. A taper allows endogenous cortisol production to recover while gradually reducing exogenous steroid exposure. This directly addresses the key safety risk of fatigue, hypotension, nausea, and potential adrenal crisis after stopping therapy. The other options do not reflect the primary pharmacologic rationale for tapering, which is preventing withdrawal and adrenal suppression-related complications.

Question 2

Mitomycin (Mutamycin) is prescribed to a client with colorectal cancer. All of which are the routes of administration, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, it is used via intravenous infusion for systemic therapy and can be delivered intraarterially to target regional tumor blood supply. It is also used intravesically for bladder cancer via direct bladder instillation, reflecting its utility as a local chemotherapeutic agent. The oral route is not a standard or accepted route for this medication because it is not formulated/used for reliable GI absorption and systemic delivery.

Question 3

Drug of choice for iron deficiency anemia-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral ferrous salts are first-line because they provide adequate bioavailable iron, are effective for most patients, and are practical for outpatient therapy. Vitamin B12 and folic acid treat megaloblastic anemia from their respective deficiencies rather than iron lack. Erythropoietin is reserved for select hypoproliferative states (e.g., chronic kidney disease) and is not the primary therapy when iron deficiency is the cause.

Question 4

To decrease the likelihood of bradyarrhythmias in children during endotracheal intubation, succinylcholine (Anectine) is used with which of the following agents?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An anticholinergic premedication blocks muscarinic receptors, blunting vagal tone and helping prevent clinically significant bradyarrhythmias. Atropine is the classic agent used for this purpose in pediatric rapid sequence intubation. In contrast, epinephrine and isoproterenol are sympathomimetics typically reserved for treating unstable bradycardia rather than routine prophylaxis, and lidocaine is used to blunt airway reflexes/ICP responses, not to prevent vagally mediated bradycardia.

Question 5

Dr. Jones prescribes corticosteroids for a child with nephritic syndrome. What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids to this child?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In nephritic processes driven by glomerular inflammation, this reduces immune-related injury to the glomeruli and helps stabilize renal function. Decreased proteinuria may occur as a downstream effect when glomerular inflammation improves, but it is not the core pharmacologic purpose. They do not prevent infection; in fact, they can increase infection risk by suppressing immune responses.

Question 6

Nurse Megan is reviewing antiviral medications used to treat influenza with a patient. Which of the following is NOT an example of an antiviral medication for influenza?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Influenza antivirals are drugs with activity against influenza viruses, classically including neuraminidase inhibitors and older agents with anti-influenza A activity. Oseltamivir and zanamivir are neuraminidase inhibitors used for treatment and prophylaxis of influenza. Amantadine is an older agent previously used for influenza A (now largely limited due to resistance) and is still categorized as an anti-influenza antiviral. Ethionamide is not an influenza antiviral; it is a second-line antimycobacterial used in tuberculosis regimens, making it the clear exception.

Question 7

A client with a history of emboli is receiving Lovenox (enoxaparin). Which drug is given to counteract the effects of enoxaparin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This positively charged molecule binds heparin compounds to reduce anticoagulant effect (it fully reverses unfractionated heparin and partially reverses LMWH). Vitamin K (phytonadione) reverses warfarin rather than heparins, making it a common distractor. Calcium gluconate is used for calcium channel blocker toxicity or to stabilize the myocardium in hyperkalemia, and methylergonovine is a uterotonic for postpartum hemorrhage, so neither addresses LMWH anticoagulation.

Question 8

Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example would be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hormone-dependent malignancies can be treated by blocking or reducing the trophic hormonal signaling that drives tumor growth. Many breast cancers are estrogen receptor–positive, so agents that antagonize estrogen signaling (e.g., SERMs such as tamoxifen, or estrogen suppression strategies) directly target a key growth pathway. In contrast, ACTH would stimulate adrenal steroid production and would not be a standard antineoplastic therapy for adrenal carcinoma. Glucagon is used primarily for severe hypoglycemia or beta-blocker overdose, and thyroxine is used for thyroid hormone replacement/suppression rather than as a typical “hormonal anticancer agent” example in this context.

Question 9

Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAIDs inhibit COX enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin-mediated mucus and bicarbonate secretion and impairing mucosal blood flow, which predisposes to mucosal irritation, erosions, and bleeding. This mechanism makes them a classic medication-related cause of gastritis and peptic injury. By contrast, milk and bicarbonate act as short-term symptom relievers rather than primary mucosal irritants, and enteric coating reduces direct gastric exposure compared with non-enteric formulations.

Question 10

Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug class decreases heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand while allowing longer diastolic filling time, which can improve symptoms and outcomes. Compared with broad “antihypertensives,” this option names the specific cornerstone class commonly used across cardiomyopathy-related heart failure regimens. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates are used more selectively (e.g., angina/afterload effects or certain hypertrophic cardiomyopathy situations) and are not the most widely used class overall.

Question 11

Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metoclopramide is a dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist with prokinetic action, making it appropriate for nausea control in this context. The other choices (cimetidine/Tagamet and famotidine) are H2-receptor antagonists used for acid-related disorders (e.g., GERD, ulcers) rather than primary antiemetic prophylaxis for chemotherapy. Therefore, the best match for preventing nausea from chemotherapy among the listed options is the antiemetic agent.

Question 12

All of the following symptoms are evidence of a superinfection except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: White oral plaques indicate oral candidiasis (thrush), creamy vaginal discharge is consistent with vulvovaginal candidiasis, and a darkened tongue can reflect black hairy tongue from altered oral flora—each fitting a superinfection pattern. A skin rash, in contrast, is more typical of a drug hypersensitivity reaction or other dermatologic process rather than microbial overgrowth from flora disruption. Therefore it is the best “except” choice among the options.

Question 13

Typhoid Fever is controlled by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi and requires antibiotic therapy for control. Ciprofloxacin is a commonly used antibiotic effective against this organism. Paracetamol and ibuprofen only reduce fever and pain, and amoxicillin is less commonly used due to resistance patterns.

Question 14

Methotrexate is specifically used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the defining role of a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug: reducing disease activity and preventing structural progression rather than only treating symptoms. The other options are mismatched to its primary indications—hypertension is treated with antihypertensives, allergies with antihistamines/corticosteroids, and epilepsy with antiseizure agents. Clinically, recognizing methotrexate as a DMARD also cues key safety monitoring (CBC, LFTs) and folic acid supplementation to reduce toxicity.

Question 15

A patient presents to the ER with pinpoint pupils. Poor attention. And slurred speech. Upon assessment of vitals. The patient is found with BP 92/60, HR 58, RR 14, and T 96.8. Which substance is this patient's intoxication most likely related to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The hypotension, bradycardia, and low-normal temperature support a depressant toxidrome rather than a stimulant picture. Cocaine typically causes mydriasis with tachycardia and hypertension, making it a poor fit. Alcohol can cause slurred speech and inattention but does not reliably cause pinpoint pupils, so it is less specific than an opioid toxidrome.

Question 16

A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic. The nurse knows that furosemide is primarily administered for its?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In heart failure, this reduces intravascular volume and venous return (preload), helping relieve pulmonary/peripheral congestion and edema. The other options describe actions of different drug classes (e.g., anticoagulants for clot prevention and antipyretics for fever reduction) and are not therapeutic effects of furosemide. A key clinical implication is monitoring for volume depletion and electrolyte losses (especially hypokalemia), which aligns with its primary diuretic purpose.

Question 17

Which electrolyte imbalance is most common with Furosemide?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb, increasing urinary sodium delivery distally and promoting potassium loss in the urine. This mechanism commonly leads to low serum potassium, especially with higher doses or inadequate dietary replacement. The resulting hypokalemia is clinically important because it increases risk for muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias and can potentiate digoxin toxicity. A common distractor is hyperkalemia, which is more associated with potassium-sparing diuretics or renal failure rather than furosemide.

Question 18

Which vitamin is given with ATT in TB meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Supplementation prevents neurotoxicity, which is particularly important in severe TB such as TB meningitis where prolonged therapy and malnutrition risk are common. This preventive strategy targets a predictable adverse effect rather than treating the infection directly. Other listed vitamins do not specifically prevent isoniazid-associated neurotoxicity and are not routinely co-prescribed for this purpose.

Question 19

Medicine is used for Piles or Hemorrhoids?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Softening stool and reducing straining is a core medical approach, so agents that promote easier defecation (e.g., stool softeners/osmotic laxatives) are commonly used. Aspirin can increase bleeding risk and does not treat the cause. Diazepam and rifampicin have no therapeutic role for hemorrhoids in standard care.

Question 20

Ceftriaxone belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: As a third-generation cephalosporin, it has enhanced Gram-negative coverage and good CNS penetration, making it commonly used for serious infections such as meningitis and gonorrhea. Penicillins are also beta-lactams but represent a different class with distinct prototype drugs and resistance patterns. Macrolides and quinolones have different mechanisms (50S inhibition and DNA gyrase/topoisomerase inhibition, respectively), so they do not fit ceftriaxone’s pharmacologic identity.

Question 21

MORPHINE is used as —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches its primary clinical use as a potent analgesic, including in postoperative pain and cancer pain when appropriately monitored. It is not an antimicrobial agent, so choices suggesting antibiotic or antifungal activity are pharmacologically incorrect. It also has no role in neutralizing gastric acid, making an antacid option a category error.

Question 22

Warfarin is used as —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: None of the listed options describe an anticoagulant drug class or therapeutic use, so a single best answer cannot be selected from the provided choices without inventing an option. Selecting any of the given categories would be factually incorrect and unsafe in an exam context. A common distractor is confusing warfarin with anti-inflammatory or pain medications, but its primary effect is on coagulation pathways, not inflammation or analgesia. The correct classification would be “anticoagulant,” which is not offered.

Question 23

Caffeine acts as –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By blocking adenosine’s inhibitory tone, it increases alertness, reduces fatigue, and can cause insomnia, tremor, and tachycardia at higher doses. It does not lower fever, so it is not an antipyretic, and it does not neutralize gastric acid like an antacid. A common distractor is calling it a depressant because withdrawal can cause headache and lethargy, but its direct pharmacologic effect is stimulatory.

Question 24

Loperamide is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loperamide is a peripherally acting µ-opioid receptor agonist that decreases intestinal motility and increases fluid/electrolyte absorption, reducing stool frequency and urgency. This mechanism directly treats acute noninfectious diarrhea and some chronic diarrhea states by slowing transit time. It would worsen constipation because it further reduces gut motility, making that option incorrect. It has no primary antipyretic action for fever and is not an antitussive for cough at therapeutic doses used clinically.

Question 25

Digoxin is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used primarily in heart failure (especially HFrEF) when symptoms persist despite guideline-directed therapy, and it can reduce hospitalizations by improving symptoms and exercise tolerance. It also slows AV nodal conduction, which is helpful for ventricular rate control in atrial fibrillation, but that is not among the choices. The other options do not match digoxin’s pharmacologic targets: it does not treat bronchospasm, hyperglycemia, or pyrexia.

Question 26

Levothyroxine is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Levothyroxine is synthetic thyroxine (T4) used for thyroid hormone replacement when endogenous hormone production is insufficient. In hypothyroidism, replacing T4 restores normal metabolic activity and reduces symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Giving thyroid hormone in hyperthyroidism would typically worsen thyrotoxic symptoms and is not a standard treatment (except in rare, specific block-and-replace regimens). It also does not treat diabetes or fever directly, though thyroid status can influence glucose metabolism and temperature regulation.

Question 27

Clozapine is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its main clinical use is for schizophrenia, especially when symptoms persist despite adequate trials of other antipsychotics or when suicidality is a major concern. The alternatives listed are not primary indications: depression and anxiety are typically treated with antidepressants/anxiolytics, and insomnia with hypnotics or targeted sleep interventions. A key exam association is the need for ANC monitoring due to risk of agranulocytosis, reinforcing that this drug’s role is in severe psychotic disorders rather than common mood or sleep complaints.

Question 28

Ciprofloxacin is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism and clinical use place it in the antibacterial class rather than agents targeting fungi (ergosterol pathways) or viruses (viral polymerases/proteases). Antacids are gastric acid–neutralizing agents and are not anti-infectives; they can also reduce absorption of fluoroquinolones via chelation, highlighting the distinction. Therefore, the best classification among the options is an antibiotic.

Question 29

Propranolol belongs to which class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By reducing β1-mediated heart rate and contractility and suppressing renin release, it lowers myocardial oxygen demand and blood pressure. This mechanism differs from calcium channel blockers (which inhibit L-type calcium channels), ACE inhibitors (which block angiotensin-converting enzyme), and alpha-blockers (which antagonize α1 receptors to vasodilate). A common exam clue is that propranolol’s nonselective β2 blockade can worsen bronchospasm in asthma/COPD, reinforcing that it is a beta-blocker.

Question 30

Chloroquine is used for-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, it is used for treatment (and sometimes prophylaxis) of malaria caused by chloroquine-sensitive Plasmodium species. The other options do not match chloroquine’s primary antimicrobial spectrum or approved therapeutic role. A common pitfall is confusing it with antibiotics (for tuberculosis) or chronic disease drugs (for diabetes or hypertension), which require entirely different mechanisms and indications.

Question 31

Warfarin is used as —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disorders such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and to reduce stroke risk in atrial fibrillation or with certain mechanical valves. The other options represent unrelated drug classes (acid suppression, antimicrobial therapy, allergy symptom control) that do not match warfarin’s mechanism or indications. Because its effect is monitored by PT/INR and bleeding is the principal risk, it is categorically an anticoagulant medication.

Question 32

Gliclazide is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gliclazide is a second-generation sulfonylurea used in type 2 diabetes, fitting this class definition. Biguanides (e.g., metformin) mainly reduce hepatic gluconeogenesis and improve insulin sensitivity rather than directly triggering insulin secretion. Thiazolidinediones act via PPAR-γ to increase insulin sensitivity, and insulin analogs are injectable insulin formulations, not oral secretagogues.

Question 33

Nitroglycerin is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its predominant clinical benefit in ischemic chest pain is venodilation, which reduces preload and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby relieving anginal symptoms. It can also dilate coronary arteries and relieve coronary spasm, further improving myocardial perfusion. In contrast, asthma requires bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory therapy rather than vasodilators, so it does not match the primary therapeutic action.

Question 34

Hydrocortisone is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glucocorticoids are classified as corticosteroids and exert anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects by altering gene transcription and reducing cytokine-mediated inflammation. This mechanism and class clearly distinguish it from antihistamines (histamine receptor blockers), antibiotics (antimicrobials), and diuretics (increase renal sodium/water excretion). Therefore, the best classification is the steroid hormone class rather than agents targeting infection, histamine, or fluid balance.

Question 35

Prednisolone is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It reduces cytokine production and leukocyte migration, which is why it is commonly prescribed for asthma exacerbations, autoimmune disease flares, and allergic/inflammatory conditions. It is not an antibiotic because it does not target bacteria or inhibit microbial growth. It is also not an antacid or a primary analgesic; any pain relief is indirect through reduction of inflammation rather than direct nociceptive blockade.

Question 36

Azithromycin is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Azithromycin is a macrolide (specifically an azalide) that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 50S ribosomal subunit, making it effective for many respiratory pathogens and atypical organisms. Aminoglycosides instead target the 30S subunit and are typically parenteral with notable nephro/ototoxicity profiles, which does not match azithromycin. Cephalosporins are beta-lactams that inhibit cell-wall synthesis, and quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase/topoisomerase—both distinct from azithromycin’s 50S mechanism.

Question 37

Atenolol is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These effects reduce cardiac output and blunt sympathetic drive, making it a standard medication for treating high blood pressure and other cardiovascular conditions. Asthma is a classic contraindication/caution for beta-blockers due to risk of bronchospasm, even though beta-1 selectivity is not absolute. Diabetes is not a primary indication, and beta-blockers can mask hypoglycemia symptoms. Anemia is not treated with beta-blockade and has different pathophysiologic management.

Question 38

Which drug is used to treat Tubcoliosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The correct choice is a first-line anti-TB drug that inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, disrupting the mycobacterial cell wall and making it highly effective against TB. The other options are common antibiotics for typical bacterial infections and do not reliably treat TB, particularly due to intrinsic resistance and the need for combination anti-TB therapy. In standard practice, this medication is combined with other first-line agents (e.g., rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) depending on the regimen and susceptibility results.

Question 39

Heparin is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism places it in the drug class used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disorders such as DVT, PE, and acute coronary syndromes. In contrast, antibiotics target microorganisms, antacids neutralize gastric acid, and antipyretics reduce fever—none affect the coagulation cascade directly. Clinically, the main safety concern with this class is bleeding risk, consistent with its clot-preventing action.

Question 40

Diclofenac sodium is used as –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly produces anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects, which is its primary clinical use in conditions like musculoskeletal pain and arthritis. Although NSAIDs can also reduce fever, that effect is secondary and not the most characteristic classification compared with pain/inflammation control. It is not used to neutralize gastric acid, and it does not treat hypertension; in fact, NSAIDs may worsen blood pressure control in some patients.

Question 41

Clopidogrel is used to prevent –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This lowers the risk of thrombus formation in atherosclerotic disease, especially after acute coronary syndrome or coronary stent placement, and in secondary prevention of ischemic stroke/TIA. The key intended prevention is arterial thrombosis rather than infections, endocrine disorders, or fever. A common clinical consequence of this mechanism is increased bleeding risk, which aligns with its clot-prevention role.

Question 42

Fluconazole is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets yeasts and some dimorphic fungi, making it effective for conditions like candidiasis and cryptococcal disease. It does not have activity against bacteria or viruses because their cell structures and replication pathways differ from fungi. Protozoa also do not rely on ergosterol-based membranes in the same way, so this drug is not used as an antiprotozoal agent.

Question 43

Gentamicin is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drugs in this class inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit and are most effective against aerobic gram-negative organisms. A classic exam association is their concentration-dependent killing and notable toxicities (nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity), which align with gentamicin’s clinical monitoring requirements. The other listed classes (macrolides, cephalosporins, tetracyclines) have different ribosomal targets or cell-wall mechanisms and do not include gentamicin.

Question 44

Linezolid is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MDR-TB requires additional drugs beyond first-line therapy because of resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin, and linezolid is included in many MDR/XDR-TB treatment protocols. It is not used for viral or fungal infections because its mechanism targets bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit. Drug-sensitive TB is primarily treated with first-line agents (e.g., isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol), so linezolid is not a standard choice there.

Question 45

Acyclovir is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism makes it most effective against herpesviruses such as HSV-1, HSV-2, and varicella-zoster virus. It does not target bacterial cell walls/ribosomes, fungal ergosterol pathways, or protozoal metabolic enzymes, so those infection types are not appropriate indications. Clinically, it is used to treat genital herpes, herpes labialis, shingles, and severe varicella, with renal dosing considerations due to urinary excretion.

Question 46

Naproxen belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism and its common clinical uses (e.g., arthritis, musculoskeletal pain, dysmenorrhea) align with the NSAID class. It is not a steroid because it does not act via glucocorticoid receptors or produce steroid-type immunosuppression. It is also not an antibiotic or antacid, as it has no antimicrobial activity and does not neutralize gastric acid; instead, it can increase GI ulcer/bleeding risk like other NSAIDs.

Question 47

Losartan belongs to which class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism defines the angiotensin receptor blocker class and distinguishes it from ACE inhibitors, which block angiotensin II production instead. It is not a beta-blocker, which lowers blood pressure primarily via beta-adrenergic blockade (decreasing heart rate/contractility and renin release). It is also not a calcium channel blocker, which inhibits L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and/or myocardium, and “vasodilator” is too nonspecific compared with the precise pharmacologic class tested.

Question 48

Ribavirin is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its role is to inhibit viral replication when paired with agents such as interferon (and previously with certain direct-acting antivirals), rather than treating bacterial, fungal, or protozoal diseases. Bacterial meningitis requires antibacterial therapy with agents that penetrate the CSF, not ribavirin. Amoebiasis is treated with nitroimidazoles (e.g., metronidazole) and luminal agents, which are mechanistically unrelated.

Question 49

Piroxicam is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its primary clinical use is symptomatic treatment of inflammatory musculoskeletal conditions, especially rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. This matches the therapeutic goal of decreasing joint pain, swelling, and stiffness in arthritis. While NSAIDs can reduce fever, piroxicam is not typically selected primarily as an antipyretic compared with other agents. It has no therapeutic role in treating depression or asthma and can worsen bronchospasm in aspirin-sensitive patients.

Question 50

Mefenamic acid is used to treat —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary dysmenorrhea is largely prostaglandin-mediated, so NSAIDs are first-line symptomatic therapy for menstrual cramps. This makes it a targeted and common indication compared with nonspecific conditions like “cold,” where symptomatic choices vary and are not specific to this drug. It does not treat diabetes, and it is not an antihistamine for allergy management.

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Oral steroids are prescribed on a taper in order to?

Mitomycin (Mutamycin) is prescribed to a client with colorectal cancer. All of which are the routes of administration, except?

Drug of choice for iron deficiency anemia-?

To decrease the likelihood of bradyarrhythmias in children during endotracheal intubation, succinylcholine (Anectine) is used with which of the following agents?

Dr. Jones prescribes corticosteroids for a child with nephritic syndrome. What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids to this child?

Nurse Megan is reviewing antiviral medications used to treat influenza with a patient. Which of the following is NOT an example of an antiviral medication for influenza?

A client with a history of emboli is receiving Lovenox (enoxaparin). Which drug is given to counteract the effects of enoxaparin?

Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example would be?

Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?

Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effects?

All of the following symptoms are evidence of a superinfection except?

Typhoid Fever is controlled by?

Methotrexate is specifically used for?

A patient presents to the ER with pinpoint pupils. Poor attention. And slurred speech. Upon assessment of vitals. The patient is found with BP 92/60, HR 58, RR 14, and T 96.8. Which substance is this patient's intoxication most likely related to?

A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic. The nurse knows that furosemide is primarily administered for its?

Which electrolyte imbalance is most common with Furosemide?

Which vitamin is given with ATT in TB meningitis?

Medicine is used for Piles or Hemorrhoids?

Ceftriaxone belongs to –?

MORPHINE is used as —?

Warfarin is used as —?

Caffeine acts as –?

Loperamide is used in –?

Digoxin is mainly used in –?

Levothyroxine is used in –?

Clozapine is mainly used in –?

Ciprofloxacin is an example of –?

Propranolol belongs to which class?

Chloroquine is used for-?

Warfarin is used as —?

Gliclazide is an example of –?

Nitroglycerin is used in –?

Hydrocortisone is an example of –?

Prednisolone is an example of –?

Azithromycin is –?

Atenolol is mainly used in –?

Which drug is used to treat Tubcoliosis?

Heparin is an example of –?

Diclofenac sodium is used as –?

Clopidogrel is used to prevent –?

Fluconazole is used to treat –?

Gentamicin is –?

Linezolid is used in –?

Acyclovir is mainly used in –?

Naproxen belongs to –?

Losartan belongs to which class?

Ribavirin is used in –?

Piroxicam is used to treat –?

Mefenamic acid is used to treat —?

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