Pharmacology Practice Test 5
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 5th part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacology Practice Test 5
Which of the following is an example of an analgesic?
- Amoxicillin
- Paracetamol
- Insulin
- Diazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic-antipyretic. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic, insulin is a hormone for glycemic control, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic/sedative.
What condition are Bisacodyl tablets used to treat?
- Malaria
- Allergies
- Constipation
- Stroke
Explanation: Answer reason: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative used to relieve constipation.
What type of medication is aspirin classified as?
- Antiemetic
- Analgesic
- NSAID
- Antipyretic
Explanation: Answer reason: Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). While it has analgesic and antipyretic effects, its primary drug class is NSAID; antiemetic is incorrect.
Which antibiotic causes a flu-like syndrome?
- Ethionamide
- Ethambutol
- Rifampicin
- Kanamycin
Explanation: Answer reason: Rifampicin is known to cause an intermittent dosing-related flu-like syndrome (fever, chills, myalgias).
Which drug is the drug of choice for rheumatoid arthritis?
- Imuran
- Aspirin
- Cortisone
- Gold salts
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the listed options, gold salts are the classic disease-modifying therapy specifically used for rheumatoid arthritis, whereas aspirin and cortisone provide symptomatic relief and azathioprine is reserved for refractory cases due to toxicity.
Pantoprazole (Pantop) is used to treat which condition?
- Infection
- Pain
- Diarrhoea
- None of these.
Explanation: Answer reason: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used for acid-related disorders such as GERD and peptic ulcer disease, not for infection, pain, or diarrhoea.
Which of the following is not used for infection?
- Ofloxacin
- Amoxicillin
- Erythromycin
- Paracetamol
Explanation: Answer reason: Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic and has no antimicrobial activity, whereas ofloxacin, amoxicillin, and erythromycin are antibiotics used to treat infections.
The appearance of bone marrow depression is the characteristic side effect of?
- Azithromycin
- Chloramphenicol
- Cefixime
- Doxycycline
Explanation: Answer reason: Chloramphenicol is well known for causing bone marrow suppression, including dose-related reversible depression and rare aplastic anemia; the other antibiotics are not characteristically associated with this effect.
Heart rate is decreased by ____?
- Propranolol
- Dopamine
- Adrenaline
- All
Explanation: Answer reason: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that reduces heart rate (negative chronotropy). Dopamine and adrenaline typically increase heart rate.
Amlodipine is a .................. Drug?
- Diuretic
- Antihypertensive
- Anti-anxiety
- Antiepileptic
Explanation: Answer reason: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, making it an antihypertensive agent; it is not a diuretic, anxiolytic, or antiepileptic.
Study of the drug called?
- Psychology
- Biology
- Microbiology
- Pharmacology
Explanation: Answer reason: The scientific discipline that studies drugs, their actions and effects is Pharmacology.
What is ketamine injection used for?
- Pains
- Sleeping
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic used for induction and procedural sedation (causing sleep/unconsciousness). It is not used to treat fever; while it has analgesic properties, its primary injection use is anesthesia/sedation.
Medicines that relieve pain are called ______?
- Anticellulars.
- Analgesics
- Antifungals.
- Antivirals.
Explanation: Answer reason: Drugs used to relieve pain are analgesics; antifungals and antivirals treat infections, and anticellulars is not a pain-relief class.
Which of the following drugs is used to treat HIV infection?
- Cyclosporine
- Ciprofloxacin
- Zidovudine
- Acivir
Explanation: Answer reason: Zidovudine (AZT) is an antiretroviral NRTI used in HIV therapy; cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant, ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic, and Acivir (acyclovir) treats herpes viruses, not HIV.
Which of the following is NOT a sedative?
- Alprazolam
- Midazolam
- Clonazepam
- Diltiazem
- Hydroxyzine
Explanation: Answer reason: Alprazolam, midazolam, and clonazepam are benzodiazepines with sedative effects; hydroxyzine is a sedating antihistamine. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiovascular conditions and is not a sedative.
Which corticosteroid is preferred for its lower mineralocorticoid effect?
- Prednisolone
- Methylprednisolone
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Methylprednisolone has lower mineralocorticoid (salt-retaining) activity than prednisolone, so it is preferred when minimizing mineralocorticoid effects.
All of the following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity except?
- Treating dehydration
- Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate.
- Hemodialysis
- Using an antagonist
Explanation: Answer reason: Lithium has no specific antagonist. Management focuses on stopping lithium, volume resuscitation to enhance renal clearance, and hemodialysis for severe toxicity; ion-exchange resins may be used adjunctively.
Which of the following is true regarding Maraviroc?
- Not active orally.
- Bind to a transmembrane glycoprotein
- Targets the CXCR4 receptor.
- Impairs immune surveillance.
Explanation: Answer reason: Maraviroc is an oral CCR5 antagonist that blocks HIV gp120 interaction with the host CCR5 receptor. It does not target CXCR4 and does not bind the viral transmembrane glycoprotein gp41 (that is enfuvirtide). Because CCR5 plays a role in leukocyte trafficking, its blockade can impair immune surveillance.
MDT is used for the treatment of what?
- Leprosy
- Diphtheria
- Tuberculosis
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: MDT (multidrug therapy) specifically refers to the WHO-recommended regimen of rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine for leprosy.
What does rapid infusion of insulin cause?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia
- Hypernatremia
- Hyponatremia
Explanation: Answer reason: Insulin rapidly shifts potassium into cells by stimulating Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase, lowering serum potassium and causing hypokalemia.
Anticipatory nausea and vomiting occur?
- One week after chemotherapy.
- Before chemotherapy administration
- During chemotherapy administration.
- Within the first few hours after chemotherapy
Explanation: Answer reason: Anticipatory chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is a conditioned response that occurs prior to receiving chemotherapy, triggered by cues associated with previous treatments.
A drug that can be used to treat hypertension in a diabetic patient is ________?
- Losartan
- Captopril
- Amlodipine
- All
Explanation: Answer reason: ACE inhibitors (e.g., captopril) and ARBs (e.g., losartan) are preferred in diabetics for renal protection, and calcium channel blockers (e.g., amlodipine) are also acceptable antihypertensives. Thus all listed drugs can be used.
Low-osmolar ORS composition?
- Na+ 90 + 311 mOsmol/L
- Na 75 + 245 mOsmol/L
- Na: 60 + 245 mOsmol/L
- Na 60 + 240 mOsmol/L
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO low-osmolarity ORS contains 75 mmol/L sodium with a total osmolarity of 245 mOsm/L.
Excess of vitamin K in a newborn causes which of the following conditions, except?
- Bleeding tendencies
- Haemolysis
- Hyperbilirubinemia
- Vomiting
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess vitamin K in newborns can cause hemolysis, hyperbilirubinemia, and GI upset such as vomiting. Bleeding tendencies are associated with vitamin K deficiency, not excess.
The main drug of choice to treat asthma is...?
- Antibiotics
- Bronchodilators
- Anticholinergic
- Muscle relaxant
Explanation: Answer reason: First-line therapy for acute asthma relief is bronchodilation, typically with inhaled short-acting beta2-agonists. Antibiotics are not routine, anticholinergics are adjuncts, and muscle relaxants are not indicated.
Drug contraindicated in haemophilia?
- Aspirin
- Penicillin
- Ciprofloxacin
- Morphine sulfate
Explanation: Answer reason: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation, increasing bleeding risk; it is contraindicated in hemophilia. The other listed drugs do not impair coagulation similarly.
DDAVP stands for-?
- 1-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin
- 8-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin
- 1-deamino-5-D-arginine vasopressin
- 5-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin
Explanation: Answer reason: DDAVP is desmopressin, a synthetic analogue of vasopressin whose full name is 1-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin.
Currently, no effective medicine is available to cure CF, but doctors can prescribe medicines that help slow the progression of the disease. Which of these types of medicine can do this?
- Bronchodilators
- Antibiotics
- Mucolytic
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: In cystic fibrosis, bronchodilators improve airflow, antibiotics treat/reduce pulmonary infections, and mucolytics thin mucus for clearance—collectively slowing disease progression.
Best for treatment of Exercise induced asthma?
- Montelukast
- Salbutamol
- Ipratropium
- Low dose Inhaled corticosteroids
Explanation: Answer reason: Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., salbutamol) taken shortly before exercise are first-line to prevent and treat exercise-induced bronchoconstriction. Montelukast can help as an alternative prophylactic, while ipratropium and low-dose ICS are not preferred for acute EIB prevention.
Sodium content in mmol/L in WHO oral rehydration solution is?
- 20
- 80
- 90
- 111
Explanation: Answer reason: The original WHO ORS formulation contains sodium 90 mmol/L (glucose 111 mmol/L). Therefore the correct sodium content is 90 mmol/L.
A mother expose to antiepileptic drug sodium valproate during first trimester, which of the abnormalities may be seen in newborn?
- Cerebral palsy
- Cystic fibrosis
- Spina bifida
- Hirschsprung disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Sodium valproate is teratogenic, especially in the first trimester, increasing risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida due to folate antagonism.
Which B-vitamin may be useful in lowering cholesterol?
- B-1 (thiamine)
- B-6 (pyridoxine)
- B-3 (niacin)
- B-12 (cyanocobalamin)
Explanation: Answer reason: Niacin (vitamin B3) decreases hepatic VLDL synthesis, lowering LDL and triglycerides and increasing HDL; used to lower cholesterol.
Paracetamol is an ...?
- Antipyretic
- Antibiotic
- Antiemetic
- Antitussives
Explanation: Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic and antipyretic used to reduce fever; it is not an antibiotic, antiemetic, or antitussive.
Which drug dilates the blood vessels and used to lower blood pressure?
- Vasodilators
- Vsoconstrictor
- Mydriatics
- Myotics
Explanation: Answer reason: Vasodilators relax vascular smooth muscle, reducing systemic vascular resistance and lowering blood pressure. Vasoconstrictors increase BP; mydriatics and miotics affect pupil size, not systemic BP.
Treatment of insulin overdose is-?
- 50% dextrose I.V
- Normal saline
- Oral hypoglycaemic drugs
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Insulin overdose causes acute hypoglycemia; immediate treatment is rapid IV glucose, typically 50% dextrose. Normal saline and oral hypoglycemics are inappropriate.
Which of the constipation- following drug induce?
- Anticholinergics
- NSAIDS
- Opioids
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Both anticholinergics and opioids reduce GI motility, causing constipation; NSAIDs can also cause constipation as a possible adverse effect. Therefore all listed drug classes may induce constipation.
The most commonly used agent for the treatment of undescended testes is-?
- Testosterone
- Progesterone
- Human chorionic gonadotropin
- Thyroxin
Explanation: Answer reason: HCG is used to stimulate Leydig cells to increase testosterone and promote testicular descent in cryptorchidism; progesterone and thyroxin are not indicated, and testosterone is less commonly used.
Codeine syrup is used for?
- Cholera
- Cough
- Pneumonia
- Headache
Explanation: Answer reason: Codeine is an opioid with antitussive properties; codeine-containing syrups suppress the cough reflex.
Proton Pump Inhibitors: Identify the odd one out?
- Pantoprazole
- Lansoprazole
- Fluconazole
- Rabeprazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Pantoprazole, lansoprazole, and rabeprazole are proton pump inhibitors; fluconazole is an azole antifungal, not a PPI.
Odd One Out: Azoles - Broad spectrum antifungal agents?
- Fluconazole
- Itraconazole
- Ketoconazole
- Omeprazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Fluconazole, itraconazole, and ketoconazole are azole antifungal agents; omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor for acid-related disorders, not an antifungal.
Odd One Out — Inhaled Corticosteroids (asthma)?
- Budesonide
- Montelukast
- Fluticasone
- Beclomethasone
Explanation: Answer reason: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist taken orally, not an inhaled corticosteroid. Budesonide, fluticasone, and beclomethasone are inhaled corticosteroids used for asthma control.
Odd One Out: Bisphosphonates - Inhibit bone resorption and reduce the risk of fractures?
- Zoledronic acid
- Alendronate
- Risedronate
- Tamoxifen
Explanation: Answer reason: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, not a bisphosphonate. Zoledronic acid, alendronate, and risedronate are bisphosphonates that inhibit bone resorption.
Odd One Out: Intravenous anesthetics - administered intravenously for general anesthesia?
- Propofol
- Ketamine
- Midazolam
- Sevoflurane
Explanation: Answer reason: Sevoflurane is a volatile inhalational anesthetic, whereas propofol, ketamine, and midazolam are administered intravenously.
Odd One Out — Benzodiazepines: Provide sedation, amnesia, and anxiolysis?
- Midazolam
- Lorazepam
- Diazepam
- Nitrous Oxide
Explanation: Answer reason: Midazolam, lorazepam, and diazepam are benzodiazepines; nitrous oxide is an inhalational anesthetic, not a benzodiazepine.
Odd One Out: Antithyroid Medications - Used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting thyroid hormone production?
- Methimazole
- Propylthiouracil
- Levothyroxine
- Carbimazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement used for hypothyroidism, not an antithyroid drug. Methimazole, propylthiouracil, and carbimazole inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis to treat hyperthyroidism.
Odd One Out: Non-sedating Antihistamines -?
- Cetirizine
- Promethazine
- Desloratadine
- Fexofenadine
Explanation: Answer reason: Promethazine is a first-generation antihistamine that is sedating; the others (cetirizine, desloratadine, fexofenadine) are second-generation, minimally sedating/non-sedating agents.
Odd One Out: Long-acting Insulins - Provide basal insulin coverage with an extended duration of action?
- Detemir
- Glargine
- Lispro
- Degludec
Explanation: Answer reason: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin; detemir, glargine, and degludec are long-acting basal insulins.
Odd One Out: Barbiturates - Induce anesthesia and provide sedation?
- Thiopental
- Phenobarbital
- Midazolam
- Desflurane
Explanation: Answer reason: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine, not a barbiturate. Thiopental and phenobarbital are barbiturates.
Odd One Out: Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)?
- Raloxifene
- Tamoxifen
- Clomiphene
- Anastrozole
Explanation: Answer reason: Raloxifene, tamoxifen, and clomiphene are SERMs; anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor, not a SERM.
Ethanol is commonly used as an antidote for which type of poisoning?
- Opioid poisoning
- Carbon monoxide poisoning
- Methanol poisoning
- Lead poisoning
Explanation: Answer reason: Ethanol competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing metabolism of methanol to toxic formic acid; thus it is an antidote for methanol (and ethylene glycol) poisoning.
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