Abnormal Laboratory Values Practice Test 1
Abnormal Laboratory Values NCLEX Practice Test
Abnormal Laboratory Values, within the NCLEX test plan under Physiological Integrity → Reduction of Risk Potential, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Abnormal Laboratory Values section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Abnormal Laboratory Values Practice Test 1
What is the normal hemoglobin level range in the human body?
- 15.6-20.3 g/dl
- 10.4-14.6 g/dl
- 13.5-17.5 g/dl
- 11.4-15.6 g/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: The normal hemoglobin range for adults is approximately 13.5–17.5 g/dL for males and 12–15.5 g/dL for females. The value 13.5–17.5 g/dL fits within the established reference range, making this the correct normal range among the provided options.
A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed metoprolol. What education should the nurse provide regarding blood glucose monitoring?
- Monitor blood glucose only in the morning
- Monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime
- Monitor blood glucose after meals only
- Monitor blood glucose once a week
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoprolol can mask the typical signs of hypoglycemia, especially tachycardia. Because symptoms may be less noticeable, the client must monitor blood glucose more frequently. Checking levels before meals and at bedtime helps detect both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia early, ensuring safe diabetes management.
In a patient undergoing surgery, it was vital to aspirate the contents of the upper gastrointestinal tract. After the operation, the following values were acquired from an arterial blood sample: pH 7.55, PCO2 52 mm Hg and HCO3- 40 mmol/l. What is the underlying disorder?
- Respiratory Acidosis
- Respiratory Alkalosis
- Metabolic Acidosis
- Metabolic Alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: The arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.55 (alkalemia) and an elevated HCO₃⁻ of 40 mmol/L, indicating a primary metabolic process. The PCO₂ is also elevated at 52 mm Hg, which represents respiratory compensation (CO₂ retention) for the metabolic alkalosis. In the context of aspiration of upper GI contents and loss of gastric acid, the correct interpretation is metabolic alkalosis.
Which of the following ABG abnormalities should the nurse anticipate in a client with advanced COPD?
- Increased PaCO2
- Increased PaO2.
- Increased pH
- Increased oxygen saturation.
Explanation: Answer reason: Advanced COPD causes chronic CO2 retention, leading to respiratory acidosis; thus PaCO2 is elevated, while PaO2 and oxygen saturation tend to be low, and the pH is not increased.
The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving cyclophosphamide for Hodgkin's lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000, platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL. The nurse recognizes that the greatest risk for the client at this time is?
- Overwhelming infection.
- Bleeding
- Anemia
- Renal failure
Explanation: Answer reason: A platelet count of 25,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia from myelosuppression, placing the client at the highest immediate risk for bleeding. A WBC of 4,200 is only mildly low, an RBC of 3.8 million suggests anemia but is less acute, and creatinine is normal.
A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
- Elevated blood glucose
- Elevated platelet count.
- Elevated creatinine clearance.
- Elevated hepatic enzymes
Explanation: Answer reason: HELLP stands for hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets; thus, elevated hepatic enzymes are expected, not high platelets or glucose.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which laboratory finding should be reported to the physician?
- Potassium 2.5 mEq/L
- Hemoglobin 14.5 g/dL
- Blood glucose 75 mg/dL
- White cell count: 8,000/mm³
Explanation: Answer reason: A potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L indicates significant hypokalemia, which increases the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias during anesthesia and must be corrected preoperatively. The other values are within normal limits.
What condition may a high white blood cell (WBC) count indicate?
- Anemia
- Infection
- Dehydration
- Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Answer reason: Leukocytosis (elevated WBC count) commonly reflects infection or inflammation. Anemia involves a low RBC count, dehydration is nonspecific, and thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count.
An arterial blood gas report indicates that the client's pH is 7.25, PCO2 is elevated, and HCO3 is 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base disturbance should the nurse identify?
- Metabolic acidosis.
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: A pH of 7.25 indicates acidemia. The elevated PaCO₂ identifies a respiratory cause of the acid–base disturbance. A normal bicarbonate level (HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L) indicates that renal metabolic compensation has not yet occurred. Together, these findings are consistent with acute respiratory acidosis.
A client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. What is the therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin?
- 1.5 to 2.5
- 2.0 to 3.0
- 3.5 to 4.5
- 4.0 to 5.0
Explanation: Answer reason: For most indications, therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin targets an INR of 2.0–3.0; higher targets are reserved for patients with certain mechanical valves.
A four-year-old child is admitted with burns on his legs and lower abdomen. When assessing the child's hydration status, which of the following indicates a less-than-adequate fluid replacement?
- Decreasing hematocrit and increasing urine volume
- Rising hematocrit and decreasing urine volume
- Falling hematocrit and falling urine volume
- Stable hematocrit and increasing urine volume.
Explanation: Answer reason: Inadequate fluid replacement after burns leads to hypovolemia, causing hemoconcentration (rising hematocrit) and decreased renal perfusion and low urine output.
The physician has ordered a serum aminophylline level for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse knows that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is?
- 1–3 micrograms/mL
- 4–6 micrograms/mL
- 7–9 micrograms/mL
- 10–20 micrograms/mL
Explanation: Answer reason: Therapeutic serum levels for aminophylline/theophylline are 10–20 mcg/mL; lower ranges are subtherapeutic.
The nurse notes the following laboratory test results for a client 24 hours post-burn. Which abnormality should be reported to the physician immediately?
- Potassium 7.5 mEq/L
- Sodium 131 mEq/L
- Arterial pH: 7.34
- Hematocrit: 52%
Explanation: Answer reason: A potassium of 7.5 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, common early after burns due to cell lysis, and carries an immediate risk of lethal arrhythmias. The mild hyponatremia, slight acidemia, and elevated hematocrit are expected and less urgent.
Which fasting blood glucose reading corresponds to the symptoms of polyphagia, polydipsia, dry mouth, and polyuria in an adult patient?
- 180 mg/dL
- 88 mg/dL
- 60 mg/dL
- 98 mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and dry mouth indicate hyperglycemia. A fasting glucose of 180 mg/dL is abnormally high (≥126 mg/dL is diagnostic), whereas 88 and 98 mg/dL are normal, and 60 mg/dL is hypoglycemic.
Increased urine specific gravity in?
- Diabetes insipidus
- Alkalosis
- Glomerulonephritis
- Dehydration
Explanation: Answer reason: Dehydration causes the kidneys to conserve water, producing concentrated urine with an elevated specific gravity. Diabetes insipidus produces dilute urine with a low specific gravity; alkalosis and glomerulonephritis do not typically raise it.
The physician has ordered a homocysteine blood level for a client. The nurse recognizes that the results will be increased in a client with a deficiency in?
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin E
Explanation: Answer reason: Homocysteine levels rise with deficiencies of folate, vitamin B12, or vitamin B6. Among these options, only vitamin B12 deficiency causes elevated homocysteine.
A client with deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin infusion and Coumadin PO. The INR lab result is 8.0. Which intervention would be most important to include in the nursing care plan?
- Assess for signs of abnormal bleeding.
- Anticipate an increase in the heparin drip rate.
- Instruct the client about the drug therapy.
- Increase the frequency of vascular assessments.
Explanation: Answer reason: An INR of 8.0 is critically elevated, placing the client at high risk for hemorrhage; the priority is to assess for abnormal bleeding and to notify the provider, not to increase anticoagulation.
An EKG is performed on a patient. Tall, peaked T waves are seen. Which lab value below most likely caused this EKG abnormality?
- Potassium: 6.4
- Sodium 124
- Hgb 8.2
- WBC 27
Explanation: Answer reason: Tall, peaked T waves are a classic ECG sign of hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L is elevated and explains this finding. The other values do not cause peaked T waves.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. Laboratory studies are performed, and the serum calcium level is 12.0 mg/dL. Based on this laboratory value, which action should the nurse take?
- Document the value in the client's record.
- Inform the doctor of the laboratory value.
- Place the laboratory results form in the client's record.
- Reassure the client that the laboratory result is normal.
Explanation: Answer reason: A serum calcium of 12.0 mg/dL is elevated (hypercalcemia) and can cause serious complications. The priority is to notify the provider for evaluation and treatment.
The client diagnosed with metastatic cancer of the bone is exhibiting mental confusion and a BP of 150/100. Which laboratory value would correlate with the client's symptoms, reflecting a common complication of this diagnosis?
- Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- Calcium 13 mg/dL
- Inorganic phosphorus 1.7 mEq/L
- Sodium: 138 mEq/L
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone metastases commonly cause hypercalcemia from bone resorption. An elevated calcium of 13 mg/dL explains mental confusion and hypertension; the other values are normal or less relevant.
A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
- Elevated blood glucose
- Elevated platelet count.
- Elevated creatinine clearance
- Elevated hepatic enzymes.
Explanation: Answer reason: HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. Thus elevated hepatic enzymes are characteristic; platelets are decreased, and glucose/creatinine clearance changes are not defining features.
The presence of bilirubin in the urine indicates?
- Raised blood glucose level
- Biliary disease
- Renal stones
- Malignancy
Explanation: Answer reason: Urinary bilirubin reflects conjugated bilirubin, which appears with hepatobiliary obstruction or liver/biliary disease; it is not caused by hyperglycemia, renal stones, or malignancy.
A client has a glycosylated hemoglobin measurement of 6%. What should the nurse conclude about this client when planning a teaching plan based on the results of this laboratory test?
- Is experiencing rebound hyperglycemia.
- Needs the insulin changed to a different type.
- Has followed the treatment plan as prescribed.
- Requires further teaching regarding nutritional guidelines.
Explanation: Answer reason: An HbA1c of 6% reflects good glycemic control over the past 2–3 months, indicating adherence to the diabetes regimen. It does not suggest rebound hyperglycemia, a need to change insulin, or deficient nutritional teaching.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
- Increased calcium level
- Increased white blood cells
- Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
- Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
Explanation: Answer reason: Multiple myeloma causes osteolytic bone destruction leading to hypercalcemia. WBCs are not typically increased, BUN tends to be elevated (renal impairment), and plasma cells are increased, not decreased.
A client who is diagnosed with congestive heart failure is scheduled to receive an intravenous push (IVP) dose of furosemide, 40 mg. As the nurse reviews the client’s morning labs, the following results are noted: Na+ 135 mEq/L; K+ 3.1 mEq/L; Ca+ 8.5 mg/dL; and Mg+ 2.1 mg/dL. Which lab result should be reported to the provider immediately?
- Na+
- K+
- Ca+
- Mg+
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium 3.1 mEq/L is hypokalemia. Furosemide can further decrease K+, increasing risk of life-threatening dysrhythmias; this requires immediate provider notification before administration.
A patient is admitted in the CICU with the PH: 7.25, PaCO2: 40, HCO3: 18. Which acid base condition a patient is suffering?
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Respiratory acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: Answer reason: PH is low (7.25, acidemia) with low HCO3 (18) and normal PaCO2 (40), indicating a primary metabolic acidosis.
The nurse is assessing a client for hypovolemia. Which laboratory result would help the nurse in confirming a volume deficit?
- Hematocrit 55%
- Potassium 5.0mEq/L
- Urine specific gravity 1.016
- BUN 18mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypovolemia causes hemoconcentration, elevating hematocrit. The other values are normal or nonspecific for volume deficit (USG 1.016 and BUN 18 mg/dL are within normal range; potassium 5.0 mEq/L is not a volume indicator).
A client with COPD is in respiratory failure. Which of the following results would be the most sensitive indicator that the client requires a mechanical ventilator?
- PCO2 58
- SaO2 90
- PH 7.23
- HCO3 30
Explanation: Answer reason: A markedly low pH (7.23) indicates acute respiratory acidosis and ventilatory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. COPD clients may have chronically elevated PCO2 and HCO3 and SaO2 of 90% can be acceptable.
The nurse is assessing the arterial blood gases (ABG) of a chest trauma client with the results of pH 7.35, PO2 85, PCO2 55, and HCO3 27. These ABG values indicate that the client is in?
- Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
- Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
- Compensated respiratory acidosis
- Compensated metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Answer reason: PaCO2 is high (55) indicating respiratory acidosis. pH is within normal but on the acidic side (7.35) and HCO3 is slightly elevated (27), showing metabolic compensation; thus compensated respiratory acidosis.
A client admitted with gastroenteritis and a potassium level of 2.9mEq/dL has been placed on telemetry. Which ECG finding would the nurse expect to find due to the client's potassium results?
- A depressed ST segment
- An elevated T wave
- An absent P wave
- A flattened QRS
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium 2.9 indicates hypokalemia, which typically causes ECG changes such as ST depression, T-wave flattening/inversion, and U waves. Elevated T waves, absent P waves, and widened/flattened QRS are associated with hyperkalemia.
A client who had major abdominal surgery is having delayed healing of the wound. Which laboratory test result would most closely correlate with this problem?
- Decreased albumin
- Decreased creatinine
- Increased calcium
- Increased sodium
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypoalbuminemia reflects poor protein nutrition, which impairs collagen synthesis and tissue repair, leading to delayed wound healing. Creatinine, calcium, and sodium levels do not directly account for impaired wound healing.
Which lab abnormality causes fluid to leak into tissues, leading to edema?
- Hyperkalemia
- Low albumin
- High calcium
- Elevated BUN
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypoalbuminemia lowers plasma oncotic pressure, causing fluid to shift from the intravascular space into interstitial tissues and produce edema.
A patient is in respiratory distress with ABG results showing pH 7.28, PaCO2 68 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L; what does this indicate?
- Acute respiratory acidosis
- Chronic respiratory acidosis
- Acute metabolic acidosis
- Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Low pH (7.28) indicates acidemia; elevated PaCO2 (68) with normal HCO3 (24) points to an acute primary respiratory cause without renal compensation.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who has a magnesium level of 0.75 mEq/L (0.375 mmol/L); which action should the nurse take?
- Monitor the client for irregular heart rhythms
- Encourage the intake of antacids with phosphate
- Teach the client to avoid foods high in magnesium
- Provide a diet of ground beef, eggs, and chicken breast
Explanation: Answer reason: The magnesium level is markedly low (hypomagnesemia), which increases the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias, especially in heart failure. Priority is to monitor for irregular heart rhythms. Other options either decrease magnesium intake or do not address the risk.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result should the nurse anticipate in a client with a nasogastric tube attached to continuous suction?
- PH 7.25, PaCO2 55, HCO3 24
- PH 7.30, PaCO2 38, HCO3 20
- PH 7.48, PaCO2 30, HCO3 23
- PH 7.49, PaCO2 38, HCO3 30
Explanation: Answer reason: Continuous NG suction removes gastric hydrochloric acid, causing metabolic alkalosis. The expected ABG shows elevated pH with elevated HCO3 (option D).
What does a rheumatoid factor test result of 130 IU/mL indicate for a 65-year-old patient?
- The result is within normal limits and requires no action.
- The result indicates a potential autoimmune disorder and should be further investigated.
- A high rheumatoid factor level is conclusive for rheumatoid arthritis; medical treatment is required.
- The result indicates a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics.
Explanation: Answer reason: Typical RF reference is <14 IU/mL; a level of 130 IU/mL is markedly elevated and suggests autoimmune disease (e.g., RA, Sjögren’s) but is not diagnostic alone, warranting further evaluation.
Which patient is experiencing partially compensated respiratory acidosis?
- PaCO2 30, pH 7.35, HCO3 26
- PaCO2 53, pH 7.23, HCO3 28
- PaCO2 45, pH 7.49, HCO3 21
- PaCO2 50, pH 7.30, HCO3 23
Explanation: Answer reason: PaCO2 >45 indicates respiratory acidosis; pH <7.35 confirms acidemia. Elevated HCO3 shows renal compensation; since pH remains abnormal, this is partial compensation.
A client being treated with Coumadin has an INR of 8.0; which intervention is appropriate based on the INR level?
- Assessing for signs of bleeding
- Administering intranasal DDAVP
- Administering an injection of protamine sulfate
- Limiting the intake of foods rich in vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: An INR of 8.0 indicates dangerously high anticoagulation on warfarin; the priority is to assess for bleeding and notify the provider. DDAVP and protamine do not reverse warfarin, and limiting vitamin K would worsen over-anticoagulation.
To determine a client's response to treatment for autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- Platelet count
- White blood cell count
- Potassium levels
- Partial prothrombin time (PTT)
Explanation: Answer reason: ITP involves autoimmune platelet destruction; improvement is reflected by a rising platelet count. WBC and potassium are unrelated, and PTT assesses coagulation factors, which are typically normal in ITP.
A nurse notes the client's albumin level is 2.4 grams/dL; which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- Fluid retention
- Inelastic skin turgor
- Hypoactive bowel sounds
- Dry mucous membranes
Explanation: Answer reason: Albumin of 2.4 g/dL is low, reducing plasma oncotic pressure and leading to edema/third spacing. The priority assessment is for fluid retention.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would a nurse anticipate in a client experiencing a prolonged, severe asthma attack?
- Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH.
- Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH.
- Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH.
- Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.
Explanation: Answer reason: Prolonged severe asthma causes hypoventilation with air trapping, leading to CO2 retention and hypoxemia; ABGs show increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and a low pH consistent with respiratory acidosis.
Which ECG pattern should the nurse monitor in a client with Crohn's disease who has a calcium level of 7 mg/dL (1.75 mmol/L)?
- Peaked T wave
- Prolonged QT interval
- Prominent U wave
- Widened T wave
Explanation: Answer reason: A calcium level of 7 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia, which prolongs ventricular repolarization (prolonged ST segment) leading to a prolonged QT interval on ECG.
Normal rectal temperature is typically?
- Lesser than oral temperature
- Equal to oral temperature
- Greater than oral temperature
- No relation to oral temperature
Explanation: Answer reason: Rectal temperature is normally about 0.3–0.6°C (0.5–1°F) higher than oral temperature because it reflects core temperature and is less affected by ambient cooling. Therefore, rectal readings are typically greater than oral readings. The other options are incorrect because rectal temperature is predictably higher than oral, not equal, lower, or unrelated.
The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement 2 hours postoperatively. Which information requires notification of the doctor?
- Scant bleeding on the dressing.
- Low-grade temperature.
- Hemoglobin of 7 g/dL.
- The urinary output has been 120 mL during the last hour.
Explanation: Answer reason: A hemoglobin of 7 g/dL is critically low and may indicate significant blood loss and impaired oxygen-carrying capacity; it often requires urgent evaluation and possible transfusion depending on symptoms and clinical status. Scant dressing drainage and a low-grade temperature can be expected early postoperative findings. Urine output of 120 mL/hr is adequate and suggests acceptable perfusion.
What is the normal range of potassium in the blood?
- 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
- 3-4 mEq/L
- 5.6–7 mEq/L
- 1-2 mEq/L
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal serum potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Values below this range reflect hypokalemia and values above reflect hyperkalemia, both of which can cause dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. The other options are incorrect because they are either too narrow or outside normal reference limits.
The nurse analyzes the laboratory results of a child with hemophilia. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to be abnormal?
- Platelet count
- Hematocrit level
- Hemoglobin level
- Partial thromboplastin time
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemophilia is due to a deficiency of clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway (e.g., factor VIII or IX), which prolongs the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet count is typically normal because platelet number/function is not the primary problem. Hemoglobin/hematocrit may be normal unless there has been significant bleeding.
Which lab confirms fluid overload after aggressive IV hydration?
- Troponin
- Sodium
- Creatinine
- Hematocrit
Explanation: Answer reason: Aggressive IV hydration can cause hemodilution, leading to a decreased hematocrit, which supports fluid overload/overhydration. Troponin indicates myocardial injury rather than volume status. Creatinine primarily reflects renal function, and sodium may change variably and is less specific for dilutional overload.
A client is scheduled to undergo a renal biopsy; which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure to minimize postprocedure complications?
- Potassium: 3.8 mEq/L
- Prothrombin time: 15 seconds
- Serum creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
- Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 18 mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: A renal biopsy is invasive and carries a significant bleeding risk; abnormal coagulation results should be reported before proceeding. A PT of 15 seconds is prolonged compared with typical reference ranges and may indicate increased bleeding risk. The other listed values are within expected limits and do not directly increase procedure-related bleeding risk.
A nurse is reviewing a client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) lab result of 58 seconds; which action should the nurse take?
- Administer vitamin K.
- Notify the healthcare provider.
- Document the results and continue monitoring.
- Prepare the client for surgery.
Explanation: Answer reason: An aPTT of 58 seconds is prolonged relative to normal and can indicate increased bleeding risk or excessive heparin effect if the client is receiving heparin. The safest action is to notify the provider for evaluation and possible treatment/medication adjustment. Vitamin K reverses warfarin (PT/INR), not an isolated prolonged aPTT, and preparing for surgery would be unsafe without correcting coagulation.
Cholesterol normal range?
- 300 mg/dL
- 150 mg/dL
- 239 mg/dL
- 250 mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: Desirable total cholesterol is <200 mg/dL; 150 mg/dL is within the desirable range. Levels around 239 mg/dL are borderline high, and 250–300 mg/dL are high and associated with increased cardiovascular risk. Therefore, 150 mg/dL is the only clearly normal option.
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