Question 1

Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol is a selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist (sympathomimetic) and the prototypical bronchodilator in this class. Atropine is antimuscarinic, while isoprenaline and ephedrine are less selective and not preferred for bronchodilation.

Question 2

Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zafirlucast (like montelukast) blocks leukotriene D4/E4 receptors. Zileutin is a 5‑lipoxygenase inhibitor, sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer, and triamcinolone is a corticosteroid.

Question 3

Indicate the drug belonging to M1-cholinoblockers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pirenzepin (pirenzepine) is a selective M1 muscarinic receptor antagonist. Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 blockers, and omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.

Question 4

Tick the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sucralfate forms a viscous protective coating over ulcers, creating a physical barrier against gastric acid (HCl) and pepsin. Ranitidine, omeprazole, and pirenzepine decrease acid secretion but do not form a barrier.

Question 5

Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Misoprostol is a synthetic analog of prostaglandin E1; the other options are not prostaglandin analogs.

Question 6

Choose an emetic drug of central action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Apomorphine is a centrally acting emetic that stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Ipecac acts mainly peripherally as a gastric irritant, while promethazine and tropisetron are antiemetics.

Question 7

Tick the stimulant of bile production of vegetable origin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cholosas is a plant-derived (rose-hip) preparation with choleretic action. Oxaphenamide is synthetic, Papaverine is an antispasmodic, and Cholenzyme is of animal origin.

Question 8

Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Dicumarol and phenprocoumon are vitamin K antagonists, and unfractionated heparin is high molecular weight.

Question 9

Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote that neutralizes heparin. Aspirin is an antiplatelet, dicumarol is a vitamin K antagonist (warfarin-like), and dalteparin is a low–molecular-weight heparin.

Question 10

Which of the following drugs is fibrinolytic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic that activates plasminogen to plasmin to lyse fibrin; the others are antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs.

Question 11

Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinolytic inhibitors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic that inhibits plasminogen activation. Ticlopidine is an antiplatelet, streptokinase is a fibrinolytic, and vitamin K promotes clotting factor synthesis but is not a fibrinolytic inhibitor.

Question 12

Choose the derivative of the plant Foxglove (Digitalis)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside derived from Digitalis (foxglove). The others are not derived from foxglove.

Question 13

Compare the half-life of digoxin and the half-life of digitoxin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digitoxin has a much longer half-life (several days, hepatically cleared and highly protein bound) compared with digoxin (about 1–2 days, primarily renally cleared).

Question 14

This drug acts by inhibiting type III cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Milrinone is a selective phosphodiesterase-III inhibitor that increases cAMP; amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, propranolol is a beta-blocker, and enalapril is an ACE inhibitor.

Question 15

This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin slows AV nodal conduction and controls ventricular rate, making it useful for supraventricular tachycardias. Dobutamine, amrinone, and dopamine are positive inotropes that can increase heart rate and are not used to treat SVTs.

Question 16

This is a drug of choice for acute treatment of ventricular tachycardias?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IV lidocaine is a first-line agent for acute management of ventricular arrhythmias, especially post–myocardial infarction. Flecainide and sotalol are not preferred for acute VT and verapamil targets supraventricular tachycardias.

Question 17

This drug is an effective bronchodilator?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine and verapamil do not provide clinically effective bronchodilation in asthma/COPD; thus neither is an effective bronchodilator.

Question 18

Duration of nitroglycerin action (sublingual) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sublingual nitroglycerin has a rapid onset (1–3 minutes) and a short duration of action of about 20–30 minutes. The hour-long options fit transdermal/long-acting forms; 3–5 minutes reflects onset, not duration.

Question 19

Which of the following antianginal agents refers to reflex coronary dilators?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Validol (menthyl isovalerate/menthol preparation) produces coronary dilation via reflex action from oral mucosa; dipyridamole is a direct vasodilator, atenolol is a beta-blocker, and alinidine is a negative chronotrope.

Question 20

This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that decreases sympathetic outflow from vasomotor centers in the CNS, lowering blood pressure. Labetalol blocks peripheral alpha/beta receptors, enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker.

Question 21

A ganglioblocking drug for hypertension treatment is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trimethaphan is a short-acting ganglionic nicotinic receptor blocker used for hypertensive emergencies. Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator, tubocurarine is a neuromuscular blocker, and metoprolol is a beta-1 blocker.

Question 22

Pick out the drug – an alpha and beta adrenoreceptors blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Labetalol blocks both alpha-1 and beta-adrenergic receptors. Verapamil and Nifedipine are calcium channel blockers, and Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 blocker.

Question 23

Pick out the diuretic agent for hypertension treatment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dichlothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension; losartan is an ARB, captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker.

Question 24

This drug is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nonselective beta-blockers like propranolol block beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle and can precipitate bronchospasm, so they are contraindicated in asthma. The other options are not beta-2–blocking agents.

Question 25

This drug is converted to an active metabolite after absorption?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enalapril is a prodrug that is hepatically converted to the active metabolite enalaprilat. Labetalol, clonidine, and nifedipine are active as administered.

Question 26

Choose the vasodilator which releases NO?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sodium nitroprusside is a direct nitric oxide donor that causes potent vasodilation; nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, hydralazine is a direct arteriolar vasodilator without being a direct NO donor, and minoxidil opens K+ channels.

Question 27

Tick the diuretic agent – aldosterone antagonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that antagonizes aldosterone receptors; furosemide is a loop diuretic, dichlothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, and captopril is an ACE inhibitor.

Question 28

Tick the diuretic agent having a potent and rapid effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic with a very rapid onset and high potency, unlike spironolactone and thiazide/thiazide‑like agents which act more slowly and are less potent.

Question 29

A patient is having deep surgical wounds in his leg so what should be the choice of drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Deep/complicated soft-tissue wounds require broad coverage including anaerobes. Among the options, moxifloxacin provides gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic coverage with good tissue penetration, making it the best single-agent choice. Ciprofloxacin/ofloxacin lack reliable anaerobic and streptococcal coverage; penicillin is too narrow.

Question 30

Which of the following agent is used in drug combination regimen to treat testicular carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard testicular cancer regimens (e.g., BEP) include bleomycin and cisplatin; therefore both A and B are correct.

Question 31

Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phase II biotransformation consists of conjugation reactions such as acetylation, glucuronidation, sulfation, and methylation. Reduction, oxidation, and hydrolysis are Phase I reactions.

Question 32

The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively reabsorbed?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Renal elimination is maximized when a drug is freely filtered, actively secreted into the tubule, and not passively reabsorbed; thus such drugs are eliminated most rapidly.

Question 33

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drugs can bind to several classes of target proteins, including receptors, ion channels, and transporters (carriers); hence all listed options are valid.

Question 34

Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Irreversible antagonists form covalent bonds with receptors, producing long-lasting binding; ionic and hydrogen bonds are reversible.

Question 35

What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When drugs are used together, their interaction can produce synergism, where the combined effect exceeds the sum of individual effects. Tolerance, tachyphylaxis, and accumulation are typically related to repeated exposure to a single drug, not specifically drug combinations.

Question 36

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bupivacaine has higher lipid solubility and protein binding than the others, which correlates with greater local anesthetic potency.

Question 37

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cocaine is a benzoate ester (benzoyl-ecgonine). Procaine is an ester of p-aminobenzoic acid, and lidocaine and ropivacaine are amide-type local anesthetics.

Question 38

Which of the following local anesthetics is a thiophene derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ultracaine (articaine) is the only commonly used local anesthetic with a thiophene ring; procaine is an ester and lidocaine/mepivacaine are xylidide (anilide) derivatives.

Question 39

Which of the following fibers is the first to be blocked?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local anesthetics block small myelinated B fibers first, followed by small unmyelinated C fibers; large myelinated A fibers (beta, gamma) are blocked later.

Question 40

Indicate the function, which the last to be blocked?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local anesthetics exhibit differential blockade: small myelinated pain/temperature fibers are blocked first, then touch/pressure and proprioception; large A-alpha motor fibers are most resistant and are blocked last.

Question 41

Which of the following local anesthetics is only used for surface or topical anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cocaine is used only as a topical anesthetic due to potent vasoconstriction and systemic toxicity; the others are commonly used for infiltrative or regional anesthesia.

Question 42

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is mainly used for regional nerve block anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bupivacaine is a long-acting amide local anesthetic commonly used for peripheral regional nerve blocks and epidurals; others listed are primarily topical (cocaine, dibucaine) or more used for spinal/topical anesthesia (tetracaine).

Question 43

Which of the following local anesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine, lidocaine, and mepivacaine are all local anesthetics commonly used for infiltration and regional nerve block anesthesia.

Question 44

Which of the following local anesthetics is called a universal anesthetic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lidocaine is considered the universal local anesthetic due to its rapid onset, intermediate duration, and safe, versatile use for topical application, infiltration, nerve blocks, epidural and spinal anesthesia.

Question 45

Which of the following local anesthetics is more cardiotoxic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic local anesthetic due to strong, prolonged binding to myocardial sodium channels, increasing risk of refractory arrhythmias and cardiac depression.

Question 46

Which one of the following local anesthetics causes methemoglobinemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prilocaine is metabolized to o-toluidine, which oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin, leading to methemoglobinemia. The others are not classically associated.

Question 47

Which of the following local anesthetics is more likely to cause allergic reactions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ester local anesthetics (e.g., procaine) are more likely to cause allergic reactions due to PABA metabolites; amides like lidocaine, bupivacaine, and ropivacaine have a much lower allergy risk.

Question 48

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the choices, lobeline and nicotine are nicotinic agonists and pilocarpine is muscarinic-selective; the choline ester listed is bethanechol, which is classically linked with broader cholinergic receptor activity.

Question 49

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Isoflurophate is an organophosphate that irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, whereas physostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium are reversible inhibitors.

Question 50

Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that also has a modest direct nicotinic agonist effect at the neuromuscular junction. Edrophonium lacks direct agonism; Carbochol/Carbachol and Lobeline are direct agonists but not cholinesterase inhibitors.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning