Question 1

Which is the term for reduced blood flow to a body part?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ischemia is the medical term for reduced blood flow (and therefore reduced oxygen delivery) to a tissue or organ, commonly due to arterial narrowing or obstruction. This decreased perfusion can cause tissue hypoxia and pain (e.g., angina) and, if prolonged, can lead to infarction/necrosis. Fibrillation refers to an abnormal, rapid, irregular rhythm (often cardiac), not a perfusion state. Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, typically from trauma, not reduced blood flow.
Category reason: This is a terminology/pathophysiology knowledge question asking for the definition of a clinical term (ischemia), which fits best under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 2

Study of tumors is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oncology is the medical specialty and scientific field focused on the study, diagnosis, and treatment of tumors (neoplasms) and cancer. Cytology studies cells, histology studies tissues, and mycology studies fungi, so they are not specific to tumors. Therefore, the correct term for the study of tumors is oncology.
Category reason: This is a medical terminology/biomedical knowledge question about neoplasms and the discipline that studies tumors, which fits foundational disease science under Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 3

The most common symptom of bladder cancer is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most common presenting symptom of bladder cancer is painless hematuria, which may be gross (visible) or microscopic. Irritative voiding symptoms such as dysuria can occur but are less common and are more typical of infection or inflammation. Pain is usually a late finding when there is advanced or invasive disease. Fever is not a typical primary presentation of bladder malignancy and suggests infection or systemic illness instead.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the classic clinical presentation of a malignancy (bladder cancer) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits foundational disease knowledge in Pathology.

Question 4

Which sign is earliest in hypovolemic shock?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In early hypovolemic shock, the body compensates for decreased circulating volume by activating the sympathetic nervous system, producing tachycardia to maintain cardiac output. Blood pressure may remain normal initially due to peripheral vasoconstriction, so hypotension is a later (decompensated) sign. Oliguria and cyanosis can occur as perfusion worsens but are not typically the earliest indicator compared with rising heart rate.
Category reason: The item tests the pathophysiologic compensatory response sequence in hypovolemic shock (early compensatory tachycardia vs later hypotension/organ hypoperfusion), which is foundational disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or priority-setting scenario.

Question 5

A 5-month-old boy is brought to the office due to poor feeding. His mother says that he has difficulty holding his head up while breastfeeding and his suckling seems weaker than usual. Weight is at the 5th percentile. Length and head circumference are tracking along the 25th percentile. Physical examination shows hepatomegaly and hypotonia in all 4 limbs. Cardiac auscultation shows a gallop rhythm, and chest x-ray reveals severe cardiomegaly. Muscle biopsy shows enlarged lysosomes containing periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive material. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The infant has hypotonia, cardiomegaly with gallop rhythm (cardiomyopathy/heart failure signs), and hepatomegaly with PAS-positive material in enlarged lysosomes, which is classic for Pompe disease (glycogen storage disease type II). Pompe is due to lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase (acid maltase) deficiency, causing glycogen accumulation within lysosomes, especially in cardiac and skeletal muscle. This leads to severe cardiomegaly and muscle weakness in early infancy. The other listed glycogen disorders typically involve cytosolic glycogen handling and do not present with lysosomal enlargement and prominent infantile cardiomyopathy.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a glycogen storage disease based on clinical findings and biopsy pathology (lysosomal PAS-positive glycogen accumulation) and asks for the deficient enzyme, which is a foundational disease mechanism topic in Pathology.

Question 6

ALL ARE COMMUNICABLE DISEASE EXCEPT 1?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Communicable diseases are infectious conditions that can be transmitted directly or indirectly between people (or via vectors). Malaria is an infectious protozoal disease transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes, AIDS is caused by HIV, and typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi—each is communicable. Cancer is generally a non-communicable disease because it is not transmitted person-to-person as an infection (rare virus-associated cancers involve infectious agents, but the cancer itself is not communicable). Therefore, the exception is cancer.
Category reason: This item tests classification of diseases as communicable (infectious) versus non-communicable, which is a foundational pathology/infectious-disease concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 7

What is the most common Cancer in males?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prostate cancer is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in males in many standard epidemiologic summaries and nursing review references (incidence-based). Lung cancer is often the leading cause of cancer death in men, but it is not the most common by new diagnoses. Colorectal cancer is also common but typically ranks below prostate cancer for incidence. Therefore, the best answer is prostate cancer.
Category reason: The question tests general knowledge about cancer epidemiology (type-frequency of malignancies), which fits foundational disease concepts rather than nursing interventions, so it is best classified under Pathology.

Question 8

Which lesion would point to gastric carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A Sister Mary Joseph nodule is an umbilical metastasis classically associated with intra-abdominal malignancies, especially gastric carcinoma (also pancreatic and ovarian). It reflects tumor spread to the periumbilical region via lymphatic, hematogenous, or direct peritoneal routes. In contrast, caput medusae and spider angiomas are stigmata of portal hypertension/cirrhosis, and jaundice is more suggestive of hepatobiliary or pancreatic obstruction than specifically gastric cancer.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a classic metastatic physical finding (Sister Mary Joseph nodule) associated with gastric cancer, which is primarily a disease identification/pathologic association rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 9

Which of the following will indicate perforated appendix?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With appendiceal perforation, the initial localized right-lower-quadrant pain may temporarily decrease due to decompression, then progress to generalized abdominal pain as peritonitis develops. This shift reflects spread of inflammation/contamination within the peritoneal cavity rather than isolated appendiceal irritation. Nausea/vomiting and distention can occur in uncomplicated appendicitis or ileus and are less specific for perforation than the change to generalized pain.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of a pathological change in appendicitis progression (perforation leading to peritonitis) and its classic symptom pattern, which is primarily disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 10

Cellular hypoxia results in:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cellular hypoxia decreases oxidative phosphorylation, leading to ATP depletion. The Na+/K+-ATPase is ATP-dependent, so low ATP causes pump failure with sodium and water influx and cellular swelling. Hypoxia also typically leads to lactic acidosis (decreased pH) and calcium influx rather than loss of intracellular calcium. Therefore, failure of the sodium-potassium pump is the best answer.
Category reason: This question tests the pathophysiologic cellular response to hypoxia (ATP depletion and loss of ion pump function), which is a core concept in pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 11

A nurse in a burn treatment center is caring for a client who is admitted with severe burns to both lower extremities and is pending an escharotomy. The client's spouse asks the nurse what the procedure entails. Which of the following nursing statements is appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An escharotomy is performed when circumferential full-thickness burns create a rigid eschar that compromises distal perfusion and tissue expansion. The procedure involves making longitudinal incisions through the eschar to relieve pressure and restore circulation (and sometimes ventilation when performed on the chest). The other options describe different burn procedures: grafting is skin transplantation, and surgical removal of dead tissue is debridement. Offering to call the doctor does not answer the spouse’s question about what the procedure entails.
Category reason: This question tests foundational understanding of a burn-related surgical procedure (escharotomy) and its purpose/mechanism rather than nursing prioritization or safety actions, fitting Pathology under Nursing Science.

Question 12

Increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the greater load of pigment and bilirubin level will rises this is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excessive hemoglobin (Hb) destruction increases production of unconjugated bilirubin, which can overwhelm the liver’s capacity to uptake and conjugate it, causing serum bilirubin to rise. This pattern is characteristic of hemolytic (prehepatic) jaundice, driven by increased red blood cell breakdown rather than biliary obstruction. Obstructive jaundice primarily involves impaired bile flow with predominantly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Category reason: The item tests the disease mechanism and classification of jaundice based on underlying pathophysiology (hemolysis causing elevated bilirubin), which is a core Pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 13

Which symptom would lead the nurse to suspect osteoarthritis rather than rheumatoid arthritis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease in which pain typically worsens with use and improves with rest due to mechanical wear of cartilage. Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory autoimmune condition that more often causes prolonged morning stiffness (commonly >1 hour) and improves with activity as joints “loosen up.” Symmetric joint involvement and significant prolonged morning stiffness are more characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis. Therefore, activity-related pain relieved by rest best distinguishes osteoarthritis.
Category reason: The question tests distinguishing clinical features of two disease processes (degenerative vs inflammatory arthritis), which is primarily pathology-focused rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 14

A patient with Paget's disease asks, "Why do my bones feel soft?" What is the best response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paget disease of bone is characterized by excessive osteoclastic bone resorption followed by disorganized, inadequate osteoblastic bone formation. The resulting bone is structurally abnormal (woven, enlarged, and weaker), which can feel “soft” and be prone to deformity and pain. It is not caused by a simple calcium deficiency and is not best explained by nerve sensitivity or acute inflammation from a virus. Therefore, explaining the imbalance of increased breakdown with poor rebuilding is the most accurate response.
Category reason: The question tests the underlying disease mechanism (abnormal bone remodeling) of Paget disease, which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Pathology rather than a nursing priority/intervention decision.

Question 15

A nurse is caring for a client with Paget's disease. Which lab result is typically elevated?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paget disease of bone involves increased and disorganized bone remodeling with marked osteoblastic activity. This leads to an elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase, a marker of bone formation. Serum calcium is usually normal unless the patient is immobilized or has extensive disease; potassium and albumin are not characteristic markers of Paget disease.
Category reason: This item tests characteristic laboratory findings associated with a bone disorder (Paget disease), which is primarily a disease process and its biomarkers, fitting Pathology.

Question 16

Which sign indicates basilar skull fracture?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Battle's sign (postauricular/mastoid ecchymosis) is a classic clinical indicator of a basilar skull fracture, typically involving the temporal bone. It results from blood tracking into the soft tissues behind the ear after skull base trauma. In contrast, Cullen's (periumbilical) and Grey Turner's (flank) signs suggest retroperitoneal hemorrhage (e.g., pancreatitis), and Murphy's sign indicates acute cholecystitis.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a named clinical sign and its associated underlying injury/condition (basilar skull fracture), which is primarily disease/injury identification rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 17

You would refer to the early phase of scar tissue formation as which of the following kinds of tissue?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In wound healing, the early phase of scar tissue formation is characterized by granulation tissue, which consists of proliferating capillaries, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells that fill the wound bed. This tissue is typically red, moist, and bleeds easily due to neovascularization. Fibrous (collagenous) scar predominates later during remodeling, while keloid and cicatrix refer to abnormal/excessive or established scarring rather than the early healing tissue.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of wound healing stages and the type of tissue present during early repair, which is a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 18

Patients with galactosemia are at increased risk neonatal sepsis due to the following organism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classic galactosemia (GALT deficiency) is associated with a markedly increased risk of neonatal sepsis, classically due to Escherichia coli. Accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate and related metabolites contributes to hepatic dysfunction and impaired host defenses in early life. While group B Streptococcus is a common cause of neonatal sepsis overall, the specific association in galactosemia is strongest with E. coli, making it the best answer.
Category reason: This question tests disease-associated infectious risk in an inborn error of metabolism (galactosemia) and its characteristic pathogen association, which is core content in pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 19

Red-Sternberg cells are found in cases of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reed–Sternberg cells are the characteristic malignant giant cells of classical Hodgkin lymphoma and are used as a key histopathologic diagnostic feature. They are typically large, binucleate or multinucleate cells with prominent nucleoli (“owl-eye” appearance). Non-Hodgkin lymphomas, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, and multiple myeloma do not feature Reed–Sternberg cells as a defining finding.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of a hallmark histopathologic cell type associated with a specific malignancy, which is a core concept in Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 20

A patient presents with swelling in the left leg only. The patient has no history of heart failure, kidney failure, or liver disease. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Unilateral leg swelling without systemic causes (heart, kidney, liver failure) raises a differential that includes DVT, cellulitis, lymphedema, and venous insufficiency. DVT can cause acute unilateral swelling from venous obstruction; cellulitis can cause localized edema with inflammation; lymphedema causes chronic unilateral swelling due to lymphatic obstruction; and venous insufficiency can present with dependent edema that may be worse in one leg. Because the question asks the most likely diagnosis based only on unilateral swelling and exclusion of systemic causes, the best choice is that any of these conditions could be responsible (i.e., all listed).
Category reason: The item tests differential diagnosis of unilateral leg edema (disease mechanisms and likely causes) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits foundational Pathology.

Question 21

Obesity can lead to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Obesity is strongly associated with insulin resistance and increased risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Excess adiposity also contributes to hypertension through mechanisms such as increased sympathetic activity, activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and sodium retention. These metabolic and hemodynamic effects accelerate atherosclerosis and cardiac strain, increasing the risk of heart disease; therefore, all listed conditions can result from obesity.
Category reason: The question tests biomedical knowledge about disease risks and complications associated with obesity rather than a nursing action or prioritization decision, so it fits foundational Pathology.

Question 22

Abnormal Accumulation of fluid is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial (extracellular) spaces is termed edema. It can be localized or generalized and commonly results from increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, decreased plasma oncotic pressure, increased capillary permeability, or lymphatic obstruction. Inflammation is a broader tissue response that may include edema but is not synonymous with fluid accumulation itself. Epistaxis is nosebleed, and necrosis is tissue death.
Category reason: This is a foundational disease-process terminology question asking for the correct term for tissue fluid accumulation, which is a core concept in pathology.

Question 23

Brain fever is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: “Brain fever” is a common lay term historically used to refer to meningitis, an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Meningitis typically presents with fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, and may include altered mental status. Typhoid, malaria, and influenza can cause fever and systemic illness but are not specifically synonymous with “brain fever.”.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a disease term/condition name (meningitis) rather than a nursing intervention or clinical prioritization, which fits foundational disease knowledge in Pathology.

Question 24

Which burn is painless due to nerve damage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Full-thickness (third-degree) burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and extend into subcutaneous tissues, causing destruction of cutaneous nerve endings. Because these sensory nerves are damaged, the burned area itself is typically painless, though surrounding partial-thickness areas can be very painful. In contrast, first-degree and superficial partial-thickness burns are painful because nerve endings remain intact, and deep partial-thickness burns often still have pain sensation to some degree.
Category reason: This question tests the depth-based burn classification and the pathophysiologic relationship between tissue/nerve destruction and pain sensation, which is foundational disease/injury knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 25

The Following is NOT a common symptom of Typhoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever classically presents with sustained high fever, headache, and abdominal pain due to systemic infection with Salmonella Typhi and intestinal involvement. While a faint "rose spot" rash can occur, it is relatively uncommon and not a typical finding in many patients compared with fever, headache, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, among the choices, rash is the least common symptom.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of clinical manifestations of an infectious disease (typhoid fever), which is primarily disease presentation and mechanisms rather than nursing interventions or prioritization; this aligns best with Pathology.

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for aphthous ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is commonly associated with triggers such as stress and local mucosal trauma, and it can be linked with nutritional deficiencies including vitamin B12 (as well as folate/iron). It is not a classic viral infection and is not typically caused or triggered by HPV. HPV is more associated with oral warts/papillomas and certain oropharyngeal cancers rather than aphthous ulcers.
Category reason: The item tests etiologies/triggers of a disease condition (aphthous ulcers) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it best fits Pathology.

Question 27

Nests of polygonal cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, obvious nucleoli, and intercellular bridges describes which type of lung cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intercellular bridges and polygonal cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm are classic histologic features of squamous differentiation (desmosomes/keratinization). Squamous cell carcinoma commonly shows these findings, often with keratin pearls and prominent nucleoli. Small cell carcinoma instead consists of small blue cells with scant cytoplasm and nuclear molding, while adenocarcinoma tends to show gland formation and/or mucin production rather than intercellular bridges.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of tumor histopathology descriptors (cell morphology and architectural features) to identify a cancer subtype, which is a core Pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care judgment.

Question 28

The confirmatory diagnosis of cancer is by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A definitive (confirmatory) diagnosis of cancer requires histopathologic examination of tissue, which is obtained by biopsy. Imaging tests such as X-ray, CT, and MRI can identify masses, assess extent, and guide staging, but they cannot reliably distinguish benign from malignant disease in all cases. Biopsy allows microscopic evaluation of cellular atypia and invasion, which establishes malignancy and tumor type.
Category reason: This question tests foundational understanding of how cancer is definitively diagnosed (histopathology vs imaging), which is a core concept in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 29

The enlargement of an organ due to increased number of cells is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, leading to enlargement. In contrast, hypertrophy is enlargement due to an increase in individual cell size, not cell number. Atrophy is a decrease in cell size and/or number causing shrinkage, and metaplasia is a reversible change from one differentiated cell type to another.
Category reason: This is a foundational concept in pathology describing cellular adaptations (hyperplasia vs hypertrophy vs atrophy vs metaplasia), rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 30

What is the medical term for a localized collection of pus in the skin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An abscess is a localized collection of pus within tissue, commonly occurring in the skin and subcutaneous layers. A boil (furuncle) is a type of skin abscess arising from an infected hair follicle, so it is narrower in scope than the general term. A cyst is typically a closed sac containing fluid or semi-solid material and is not defined by pus. A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion without purulent collection.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of disease/lesion terminology and the definition of pus-containing lesions, which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 31

How are fistulas typically treated?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A fistula is an abnormal epithelialized connection between two organs (e.g., vesicovaginal fistula between bladder and vagina) that usually does not close with medications, lifestyle changes, or physical therapy alone. Definitive management is most often surgical repair after inflammation/infection is controlled and tissues are optimized. Conservative measures may be temporizing (e.g., catheter drainage for small, early fistulas), but typical treatment remains operative closure to restore anatomy and stop leakage.
Category reason: The question tests general medical knowledge about management of a pathological condition (fistula) rather than nursing prioritization or patient-care decision-making, fitting Pathology.

Question 32

The primary cause of gout is__________.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gout is caused by hyperuricemia, which leads to precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joints and surrounding tissues, triggering an intense inflammatory response. The classic presentation is acute inflammatory arthritis (often the first metatarsophalangeal joint). Excess calcium would relate to calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (pseudogout), and infection would indicate septic arthritis, not gout. Lack of synovial fluid is not the primary mechanism of gout.
Category reason: The question tests the underlying disease mechanism/etiology of gout (urate crystal deposition from hyperuricemia), which is core pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 33

Which of the following is a late side effect of radiation therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Late (chronic) radiation effects occur months to years after treatment and are largely due to progressive vascular damage and chronic inflammation leading to scarring. This results in tissue fibrosis, which can cause decreased elasticity, strictures, or impaired organ function depending on the site irradiated. In contrast, skin redness, mucositis, and nausea are typical acute/early effects that occur during or shortly after radiation therapy.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of early versus late adverse effects of radiation—i.e., mechanisms and chronic tissue changes from ionizing injury—which is best categorized under Pathology.

Question 34

All the following are major signs of rheumatic fever EXCEPT…?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The major Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever include carditis, migratory polyarthritis, Sydenham chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules. Arthralgia is considered a minor Jones criterion rather than a major sign. Therefore, among the choices, arthralgia is the exception to the major signs.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of diagnostic criteria and clinical manifestations of a disease (acute rheumatic fever), which is primarily a pathology/foundational medical knowledge concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 35

Which of the following is the most common site of metastasis in colorectal cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver is the most common site of metastasis in colorectal cancer because venous drainage from much of the colon and upper rectum travels through the portal circulation directly to the liver. This portal venous “first pass” makes hepatic seeding more likely than spread to lungs, bone, or brain. Clinically, colorectal cancer commonly presents with or later develops liver metastases and related findings (e.g., hepatomegaly, abnormal liver enzymes).
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of typical metastatic spread patterns in malignancy (colorectal cancer), which is core disease-process content in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 36

Cancer of blood cells is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leukemia is a malignant neoplasm of blood-forming tissues characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal leukocytes and their precursors, typically originating in the bone marrow and spilling into the peripheral blood. Lymphoma is cancer of lymphoid tissue (often presenting as solid lymph node masses), myeloma is malignancy of plasma cells, and carcinoma refers to cancers arising from epithelial tissue. Therefore, the term for cancer of blood cells is leukemia.
Category reason: This is a foundational disease-classification question about types of malignancy affecting blood and related tissues, which is primarily studied under Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 37

The leading cause of maternal Death related to eclampsia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In eclampsia, severe hypertension can precipitate cerebrovascular accidents, and the most common fatal complication is intracranial (cerebral) hemorrhage. This results from acute elevation in blood pressure with loss of cerebral autoregulation and vascular rupture. While acute renal failure and pulmonary edema can occur in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, they are less frequently the leading cause of maternal death compared with cerebral hemorrhage. Uterine bleeding is not a typical primary fatal mechanism directly attributable to eclampsia.
Category reason: The question tests the major fatal complication of eclampsia, focusing on disease complications and mechanisms of maternal death, which is primarily Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 38

Which type of cancer is Wilm's tumor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) is a malignant embryonal tumor of the kidney that occurs predominantly in young children. It typically presents as an abdominal mass and may be associated with hematuria or hypertension. The other options describe cancers of different organs and are not synonymous with Wilms tumor.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a specific pediatric malignancy and its organ of origin, which is a disease-classification concept within Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 39

A neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum. Which statement is true?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Caput succedaneum is edema of the fetal scalp in the subcutaneous tissue at the presenting part, typically from pressure during labor. Because it is superficial edema, it can cross cranial suture lines and usually resolves within a few days. A collection of blood between the skull and periosteum that does not cross suture lines and resolves over weeks is characteristic of cephalohematoma, not caput succedaneum.
Category reason: The item tests distinguishing features of neonatal birth-related scalp conditions (caput succedaneum vs cephalohematoma), which is primarily disease-process/lesion recognition rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision; this aligns best with Pathology.

Question 40

Transmission of cancer is by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cancer is not contagious and is generally not transmitted person-to-person via direct contact, inhalation, or routine blood transfusion. The way cancer spreads within an individual’s body is through metastasis, where malignant cells invade and disseminate via lymphatic channels, blood vessels, or body cavities to form secondary tumors. Thus, among the listed choices, metastasis is the correct concept describing “spread” of cancer.
Category reason: The item tests a foundational concept about how malignant tumors spread within the body and distinguishes this from infectious transmission, which is a core topic in pathology.

Question 41

The cancer arising from epithelial tissue is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carcinoma is the term for malignant tumors that arise from epithelial cells (e.g., skin, glandular tissue, mucosal linings). In contrast, sarcomas originate from mesenchymal/connective tissues, lymphomas from lymphoid tissue, and melanomas from melanocytes. Therefore, the correct classification for cancer arising from epithelial tissue is carcinoma.
Category reason: This is a foundational classification question about the tissue origin of malignancies, which is a core concept in Pathology rather than a nursing care or clinical judgment scenario.

Question 42

Phlebitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phlebitis is defined as inflammation of a vein, commonly related to irritation, infection, or thrombosis, and often seen around IV sites or in superficial veins. Clinically it presents with localized pain, erythema, warmth, and tenderness along the course of the vein. The other options describe unrelated conditions of the urinary system, heart, or abdomen and do not match the definition of phlebitis.
Category reason: This question tests the medical definition of a disease process (inflammation of a vein), which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 43

The cancer arising from connective tissue is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal (connective) tissues such as bone, muscle, fat, cartilage, and blood vessels. In contrast, carcinomas arise from epithelial tissues, and adenomas are typically benign glandular epithelial tumors. Lymphomas originate from lymphoid tissue rather than connective tissue broadly.
Category reason: This question tests classification of tumors by tissue of origin (e.g., sarcoma vs carcinoma), which is a foundational concept in disease mechanisms and neoplasia under Pathology.

Question 44

Which cancer is linked with alcohol consumption?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic alcohol use is a well-established risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma, largely by causing alcoholic liver disease that can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis, a major premalignant condition. Alcohol also increases carcinogenic exposure via acetaldehyde and promotes oxidative stress and inflammation in hepatic tissue. Among the options, liver cancer has the strongest and most direct epidemiologic association with alcohol consumption; the others are not classically linked as primary alcohol-related cancers.
Category reason: The item tests disease-risk association (alcohol as an etiologic risk factor for malignancy), which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 45

All of this is seen in anorexia nervosa except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anorexia nervosa commonly causes amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea due to hypothalamic suppression with low GnRH, leading to low estrogen states. Low estrogen and malnutrition contribute to osteoporosis, and starvation can cause cardiac structural changes and rhythm abnormalities rather than hypertrophy as a typical feature. Electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia) are common, especially with purging behaviors, and can be life-threatening. Menorrhagia is not a typical finding in anorexia nervosa, making it the exception.
Category reason: This question tests complications and clinical manifestations of a disease state (anorexia nervosa), which is primarily studied under Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 46

Hookworm infection causes:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus) attach to the intestinal mucosa and feed on blood, causing chronic gastrointestinal blood loss. Over time this leads to iron deficiency and microcytic anemia, often the hallmark clinical consequence of hookworm disease. Jaundice is not a typical feature, fever is not a defining presentation, and edema may occur only secondarily in severe malnutrition/anemia rather than being the primary expected finding.
Category reason: The item tests the pathologic effect/clinical consequence of a parasitic infection (hookworm causing chronic blood loss and iron-deficiency anemia), which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 47

The hallmark of malignant tumor is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The defining hallmark of malignancy is the ability to invade surrounding tissues and spread to distant sites (metastasis). Benign tumors are typically localized, well-circumscribed, and do not metastasize. Malignant tumors often show rapid growth and atypical mitoses, but these features are not as definitive as metastatic potential. Therefore, metastasis best distinguishes malignant from benign tumors.
Category reason: This question tests foundational disease concepts about how malignant tumors behave (invasion and spread), which is core Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 48

The commonest childhood cancer is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leukemia, particularly acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), is the most common malignancy in children. It accounts for the largest proportion of pediatric cancers compared with solid tumors such as retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, or lymphomas. Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma are important pediatric cancers but are substantially less frequent overall. Therefore, leukemia is the single best answer.
Category reason: The question tests epidemiologic/foundational knowledge about which malignancy is most common in childhood, which is primarily a disease classification concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario; this fits Pathology.

Question 49

Septic shock is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Septic shock results from a dysregulated host response to infection leading to life-threatening circulatory and cellular/metabolic abnormalities. It is typically triggered by severe bacterial infection (though fungi/viruses can also cause sepsis) causing systemic inflammation, vasodilation, capillary leak, and hypotension with tissue hypoperfusion. Allergy would cause anaphylactic shock, spinal injury causes neurogenic shock, and blood loss causes hypovolemic shock.
Category reason: The item tests the underlying cause and classification of a shock state (etiology/pathophysiology), which is foundational disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 50

For examination of diatoms sample should be collected from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diatom testing is used in suspected drowning because diatoms (siliceous algae) can be aspirated into the lungs and enter the bloodstream during antemortem drowning. They may then disseminate to distant organs, and bone marrow (commonly from the femur or sternum) is a preferred specimen because it is relatively protected from external contamination. Finding diatoms in bone marrow supports antemortem aspiration of water rather than postmortem immersion.
Category reason: This item tests forensic/pathology knowledge about appropriate specimen collection for diatom examination in suspected drowning, which is a diagnostic/pathology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pathology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning