Question 1

Which statement is incorrect regarding post-streptococcal GN?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antibiotic therapy for the initial streptococcal infection prevents rheumatic fever but does not prevent post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis; thus statement (d) is incorrect.

Question 2

Which symptom in a baby or young child might indicate CF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cystic fibrosis causes thick secretions leading to fat malabsorption (pale, foul, floating stools), recurrent respiratory infections/wheezing, and high salt in sweat resulting in salty-tasting skin. Therefore all listed symptoms are consistent with CF.

Question 3

Omphalitis is the infection of _____ in newborn children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omphalitis refers to infection of the umbilical stump/umbilical cord in newborns (omphal- = umbilicus, -itis = inflammation).

Question 4

A characteristic manifestation of rabies is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rabies characteristically causes hydrophobia due to painful pharyngeal/laryngeal muscle spasms with swallowing; thus pharyngeal spasm is typical. The other options are nonspecific.

Question 5

The sudden fall in temperature from high to normal within a few hours is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A rapid defervescence to normal within hours is termed crisis; when the temperature remains normal, it is a true crisis. Lysis is a gradual decline and false crisis is a transient drop.

Question 6

Which of following is early sign of Rickets?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Craniotabes—softening of the skull bones—is a classic early sign of vitamin D deficiency rickets. Rachitic rosary and Harrison's groove appear later, and pectus excavatum is not typical of rickets.

Question 7

Typhoid fever is an example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid lesions are typically non-suppurative with predominant mononuclear (reticuloendothelial) response rather than granulomatous or purulent changes, fitting chronic non-specific inflammation.

Question 8

Fatty liver in kwashiorkor is due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In kwashiorkor, protein deficiency decreases apolipoprotein (lipoprotein carrier) synthesis, impairing hepatic export of triglycerides and causing fatty liver.

Question 9

Fever with relative bradycardia is seen in-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Relative bradycardia with fever (Faget sign) is characteristic of typhoid fever; malaria, filariasis, and diphtheria do not typically show this finding.

Question 10

A child is brought to the pediatric OPD with fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection and passage of foul smelling stools. The most probable diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recurrent chest infections plus foul-smelling stools suggest steatorrhea from pancreatic insufficiency with chronic pulmonary disease, classic for cystic fibrosis. The other options relate to metabolic or bilirubin disorders and do not explain these features.

Question 11

Hard chancre appears in which stage of syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A hard, painless chancre is the characteristic lesion of primary syphilis.

Question 12

The physical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classic FAS features are growth restriction, CNS abnormalities such as microcephaly, and characteristic facies including a short/smooth philtrum and thin upper lip. Other options list findings not typical of FAS.

Question 13

In following which is not a characteristic features of neonatal asphyxia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neonatal asphyxia causes hypoxia, CO2 retention (hypercapnia), and metabolic acidosis with reduced perfusion to nonessential organs. Therefore hypocapnia is not a feature.

Question 14

What is early onset neonatal sepsis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early-onset neonatal sepsis is classically defined as infection presenting within the first 72 hours of life, typically due to vertical transmission.

Question 15

Glomerulonephritis which affects the entire glomerulus is....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Global indicates involvement of the entire glomerular tuft; focal involves only some glomeruli and segmental only part of a glomerulus. Proliferative and rapidly progressive describe patterns, not extent within a glomerulus.

Question 16

What happens to the mucus glands in a child with CF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cystic fibrosis causes defective CFTR chloride transport leading to dehydrated, thick, viscous secretions from mucus glands; this thick mucus then tends to obstruct and accumulate. The most direct, best choice is that the mucus is too thick.

Question 17

Which is earliest gastrointestinal manifestation of cystic fibrosis in new born?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In cystic fibrosis, thick meconium causes obstruction of the terminal ileum in the neonatal period—meconium ileus—making it the earliest GI manifestation. Pancreatic fibrosis and fat‑soluble vitamin deficiencies develop later; ‘intestinal obstruction’ is nonspecific compared with meconium ileus.

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of neonatal tetanus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neonatal tetanus presents with hypertonia, trismus, irritability, facial grimacing, and difficulty feeding; hypotonia is not characteristic.

Question 19

Final stage of pneumonia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lobar pneumonia progresses through congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, and finally resolution where the exudate is enzymatically digested and cleared by macrophages.

Question 20

Wilms Tumour commonly presents as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wilms tumor in children most commonly presents as a painless palpable abdominal mass; pain, fever, or hematuria occur less frequently.

Question 21

Wavy fibers in the absence of other myocardial pathology suggest what to the autopsy pathologist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wavy myocardial fibers are an early histologic sign of acute ischemia; when present without other pathology at autopsy, they indicate sudden coronary death due to acute ischemic event.

Question 22

Acid base disorder common in shock is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Shock causes tissue hypoperfusion leading to anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid accumulation, producing metabolic acidosis.

Question 23

The most accurate diagnosis of cancer is by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Biopsy provides histopathological confirmation, which is the gold standard for diagnosing cancer; imaging like X-ray or scanning cannot definitively confirm malignancy.

Question 24

In neoplastic cell the tumour suppressant genes __________ their activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neoplastic transformation commonly involves loss-of-function mutations or silencing of tumor suppressor genes, resulting in decreased activity and loss of growth inhibition.

Question 25

What is 'cardiac polyp'?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Historically, a ‘cardiac polyp’ refers to a pedunculated antemortem thrombus—i.e., a fibrinous clot within a heart chamber.

Question 26

Which of the following is often the first symptom of pancreatic cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Obstructive, often painless jaundice from a tumor in the pancreatic head is a common early presentation; severe pain and weight loss are typically later findings, and vomiting is not an early hallmark.

Question 27

Stages of Malaria fever includes all except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classical malarial paroxysm has three stages: cold stage (rigor), hot stage, and sweating stage. There is no distinct stage called 'fever stage.

Question 28

Most common organ injured in blunt trauma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In blunt abdominal trauma, the spleen is most frequently injured due to its friable, highly vascular tissue and position beneath the left lower ribs, making it prone to rupture.

Question 29

Which symptom is commonly seen in jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice is due to elevated bilirubin causing yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera; other listed symptoms are not typical.

Question 30

The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cirrhosis is a chronic liver disease characterized by inflammation, degeneration, and fibrosis of liver parenchyma. The other options do not describe parenchymal inflammation/degeneration of the liver.

Question 31

Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy patch on the back of children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A lumbosacral tuft of hair is a classic cutaneous marker of spina bifida occulta; the other conditions do not cause a localized hairy patch on the back.

Question 32

Leading cause of death in burn victims is-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe burns predispose to wound infection and systemic inflammatory response; sepsis is the primary cause of mortality in burn patients. Electrolyte disturbances or urinary incontinence are not the leading causes.

Question 33

Which of the following problems is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Appendicitis most commonly results from obstruction of the appendiceal lumen by a fecalith, leading to inflammation and infection.

Question 34

The nurse includes in the teaching plan that malignant tumors are similar to benign tumors because both?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Both benign and malignant tumors can cause symptoms from mass effect, including compression of nerves and blood vessels leading to pain. The other options describe features that distinguish malignant from benign tumors.

Question 35

While reading the progress notes on a client with cancer, the nurse notes a TNM classification of T1, N1, M0. What does this classification indicate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: T1 indicates a small/limited primary tumor, N1 indicates regional lymph node involvement, and M0 indicates no distant metastasis. This corresponds to tumor present with regional nodes involved but no metastasis.

Question 36

What happens to a person suffering from COVID-19?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: COVID-19 typically causes mild illness in most patients who recover without treatment; a smaller proportion requires hospital admission, and a very small subset—often with comorbidities—needs ICU care. Therefore all statements are correct.

Question 37

Invasive ductal carcinoma, Stage IV of the breast has?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stage IV breast cancer is defined by distant metastasis (M1). Prognosis is poor and alkaline phosphatase may be elevated with bone metastases; ER status does not define stage.

Question 38

A patient diagnosed with renal cancer that has spread to other organs in the body such as lungs, his cancer is in which stage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metastasis to distant organs (e.g., lungs) defines Stage IV cancer.

Question 39

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 4-year-old boy presenting with purpura on the buttocks, thighs, and legs following an upper respiratory tract infection, along with arthralgia and abdominal pain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Post-URI onset of palpable purpura on buttocks/legs with arthralgia and abdominal pain is classic for IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura).

Question 40

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Negative symptoms reflect diminished function such as avolition, alogia, anhedonia, and social withdrawal. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech are positive symptoms.

Question 41

Fat embolism is commonly seen in ............?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fat embolism syndrome classically follows fractures of long bones (e.g., femur) where marrow fat enters circulation; not typical of head injury, basal skull fracture, or DVT.

Question 42

What is the most common site for brain tumor metastasis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS, but when they do the lungs are the most common site via hematogenous spread.

Question 43

Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the hallmarks of which disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Extracellular beta-amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau are classic neuropathologic lesions of Alzheimer's disease.

Question 44

The 'Triad Sign of Death' in trauma refers to which combination of conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In trauma, the lethal triad consists of hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy, which reinforce each other and worsen hemorrhagic shock.

Question 45

Which neurotic disorder involves a person adopting a new identity with complete amnesia for their earlier life?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dissociative fugue is characterized by sudden travel or wandering with complete amnesia for one’s past and the assumption of a new identity. The other options do not combine both features.

Question 46

What are the two most important risk factors for the development of hydatidiform moles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The strongest established risk factors for hydatidiform mole are extremes of maternal age (35–40) and a prior history of gestational trophoblastic disease.

Question 47

What is a hematocele?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A hematocele is a collection of blood within the tunica vaginalis. Option A describes hydrocele; option C describes varicocele; thus B is correct and D is incorrect.

Question 48

What characterizes bronze baby syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bronze baby syndrome, a complication of neonatal phototherapy in cholestasis, presents with gray-brown discoloration of the skin, serum, and urine.

Question 49

John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intermittent fever has spikes of elevated temperature that return to normal between episodes within a day. Remittent does not return to normal, relapsing has afebrile days between episodes, and constant remains elevated.

Question 50

What is the correct sequence of stages in liver damage progression?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver disease typically progresses from a normal liver to fatty change (steatosis), then fibrosis, advancing to cirrhosis, and may culminate in hepatocellular carcinoma.

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