Question 1

What percentage of lung cancer is caused by smoking?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epidemiologic estimates commonly cite that roughly 80–90% of lung cancer deaths are linked to active smoking, with additional contribution from secondhand smoke. Among the choices, 87% best matches this widely taught attributable fraction range. Options like 50% and 63% substantially underestimate smoking’s causal contribution, while 94% is higher than most standard population-level estimates.

Question 2

A patient's biopsy results indicate the presence of squamous cell carcinoma. The nurse develops a care plan for this patient knowing that squamous cell carcinoma:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Compared with many other carcinomas, it tends to spread by direct extension and may metastasize later depending on site and depth, so calling it “frequently” metastatic overstates typical behavior. “Never metastasize” is incorrect because metastatic spread can occur, especially with advanced lesions. “Grows slowly” is not a defining, consistently reliable hallmark across clinical contexts, whereas local invasiveness is the most generalizable feature for care planning and monitoring.

Question 3

Cuerin sign is most commonly seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cuerin (Guerin) sign refers to ecchymosis in the region of the mastoid/periorbital area associated with skull base injury and is used as a clinical clue to an underlying basilar fracture. This finding is particularly important because it suggests potential complications such as CSF leak and cranial nerve injury. In contrast, isolated clavicle or cervical fractures typically produce localized swelling and bruising at the fracture site rather than these classic craniofacial bruising signs.

Question 4

Which of the following element found in water is responsible for cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic ingestion of arsenic-contaminated water is strongly associated with increased risk of skin, lung, and bladder cancers due to genotoxicity and oxidative stress mechanisms. The other listed elements are not established primary carcinogens in drinking water at typical exposure levels: chlorine is mainly associated with disinfection byproducts rather than being the carcinogenic element itself, and fluoride is linked more to dental/skeletal effects. Iron is an essential nutrient and is not a typical waterborne carcinogenic contaminant in this context.

Question 5

When caring for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, the nurse recognizes the importance of minimizing the client's risk for developing which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key nursing goal is early support, safety, and symptom management to reduce progression to a longer-duration disorder. PTSD is diagnosed when characteristic intrusion, avoidance, negative mood/cognition changes, and hyperarousal persist beyond about 1 month after the trauma. The other options may be symptoms or separate conditions, but they are not the primary longitudinal complication classically associated with acute stress disorder in exam frameworks.

Question 6

A 30-yr old client has come to the clinic for her yearly exam. The client asked the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state regarding risk factors for ovarian cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A family history (especially BRCA1/BRCA2 or Lynch syndrome) increases risk but accounts for a minority of cases rather than most. Combined oral contraceptives are generally protective and are associated with reduced ovarian cancer risk, making that option incorrect. Tobacco use is not a primary driver of most ovarian cancers (it has a more limited association with certain subtypes), so attributing most cases to smoking is inaccurate.

Question 7

The nurse is assessing a group of older adults. What factor in a male clients history puts him at greatest risk for developing colon cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A personal history of intestinal polyps indicates mucosal lesions that can undergo dysplastic change and progress to malignancy if not removed or surveilled. Compared with lifestyle risks like a high-fat diet or smoking, polyps represent an established premalignant condition with a closer causal link to colon cancer development. Excess sun exposure is primarily associated with skin cancers and does not meaningfully increase colon cancer risk. Therefore, this history finding confers the greatest risk among the options.

Question 8

The nurse has been given orders to collect labs on patients with symptoms of osteoarthritis. Which of the following would be an expected lab finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Osteoarthritis is a noninflammatory degenerative joint disease, so synovial fluid typically shows a low leukocyte count consistent with noninflammatory effusion. A WBC count below about 2,000/µL supports a noninflammatory process rather than inflammatory arthritis. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthritides more often have elevated synovial WBC counts and systemic inflammatory markers. Rheumatoid factor positivity is not expected in isolated osteoarthritis, and marked elevations in ESR/CRP would more strongly suggest an inflammatory or infectious etiology.

Question 9

The patient performs a breast exam. Through inspection and palpation, she receives abnormalities. Which of the following indicates breast cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  A fixed, hard/irregular breast mass that is not freely mobile suggests invasive malignancy because tumor infiltration tethers the lesion to surrounding tissue. Skin dimpling reflects traction on Cooper’s ligaments and is a classic suspicious sign on inspection. In contrast, simple redness/discoloration is nonspecific and more commonly aligns with inflammation or infection unless accompanied by other concerning features. Symmetry of the breasts is typically a normal finding and does not indicate cancer.

Question 10

The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsillopharyngitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This clinical syndrome is best captured by infectious mononucleosis rather than typical AIDS-defining opportunistic pneumonias. Pneumocystis jirovecii (carinii) pneumonia usually presents with progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and hypoxemia, not a primary tonsillar infection. Cytomegalovirus disease more commonly causes retinitis, esophagitis, or colitis in advanced immunosuppression, and respiratory candidiasis is not a typical cause of isolated tonsillopharyngitis.

Question 11

A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  “Rice-water” stool is a classic description of profuse, watery diarrhea caused by Vibrio cholerae toxin–mediated chloride and water secretion from intestinal crypts. This produces rapid fluid loss, leading to severe dehydration and shock risk, especially in children. Giardiasis more often causes foul-smelling, greasy stools with malabsorption rather than massive watery output. Dysentery and amebiasis typically present with blood and mucus in stool and abdominal cramping/tenesmus, not the pale watery “rice-water” appearance.

Question 12

The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik's spot. You may see Koplik's spot by inspecting the ____.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They classically appear on the inner cheek opposite the molars and often precede the generalized maculopapular rash, making oral inspection a key diagnostic step. Skin locations like the abdomen or antecubital surface relate to exanthems and are not the characteristic site for these lesions. Recognizing the correct mucosal site supports timely isolation and supportive management given measles’ high transmissibility.

Question 13

Name the process of transition from normal cells to cancerous cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term for this conversion of a normal cell into one with neoplastic properties is cellular transformation. Metastasis is a later step describing spread of malignant cells to distant sites, not the initial change to a cancerous phenotype. Ubiquitylation and polymerization are general biochemical processes and do not specifically describe the normal-to-cancer cell transition.

Question 14

When counseling a 6 year old who is experiencing enuresis, what must the nurse understand about the pathophysiological basis of this disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes a “no clear etiology” framework the most accurate counseling baseline and supports nonpunitive, supportive management. While familial clustering can occur, it is not universal enough to call the mechanism a definite genetic link as the primary basis. Interpreting enuresis as willful behavior is incorrect and can worsen shame and adherence to behavioral strategies.

Question 15

The nurse is taking a health history from parents of a child admitted with possible Reye's Syndrome. Which recent illness would the nurse recognize as increasing the risk to develop Reye's Syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Varicella is one of the two hallmark antecedent infections (along with influenza) linked to this syndrome, so a history of chickenpox increases suspicion and risk. Meningitis is a CNS infection but is not the typical antecedent trigger tied to the salicylate-related mechanism. Hepatitis involves liver inflammation but does not represent the characteristic viral context most strongly associated with Reye syndrome.

Question 16

The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that is associated with this problem include which of these?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local tumor growth can cause abdominal distension/palpable mass and constitutional symptoms such as weakness due to malignancy-related systemic effects. Headaches and vomiting are more typical of increased intracranial pressure from primary CNS tumors. Hearing loss and ataxia are not characteristic presenting findings for neuroblastoma, whereas abdominal involvement is classic.

Question 17

A nurse prepares to care for a 4 year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The clinical focus is on assessing local muscle involvement such as mass effect, pain, weakness, and functional limitation depending on tumor site. This aligns directly with the disease’s tissue of origin rather than brain coordination centers or bone. While other organs can be affected by metastasis or treatment, the key area tied to this diagnosis is muscular function.

Question 18

Delirium tremens could best be described as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Key features include acute confusion/disorientation, agitation, vivid hallucinations, and sympathetic overdrive such as tachycardia (often with hypertension, fever, diaphoresis, tremor). This option captures both the mental-status changes and the physiologic hyperarousal that define the condition. By contrast, describing only shaking or isolated muscle jerks aligns more with seizures or myoclonus rather than the delirium-with-autonomic-instability picture of DTs.

Question 19

Which of these parents' comment for a newborn would most likely reveal an initial finding of a suspected pyloric stenosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pyloric stenosis is a gastric outlet obstruction that classically causes progressively worsening, non-bilious vomiting as hypertrophy of the pylorus increases. The hallmark described by parents is progression from mild emesis to projectile vomiting after feeds due to forceful expulsion against an obstructed pyloric channel. Persistent hunger can occur (“hungry vomiter”), but it is less specific and not as diagnostic as the progression to projectile vomiting. Immediate post-feed spitting up is more typical of uncomplicated gastroesophageal reflux rather than an evolving obstructive process.

Question 20

Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6 year-old child, the parents remark: “We just don’t know how he caught the disease!” The nurse’s response is based on an understanding that?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The kidney injury results from immune complex deposition and complement activation in the glomeruli, not from direct infection of the renal tubules. Therefore, the child did not “catch” AGN from another person; the precipitating event is a prior strep infection. A common distractor is thinking it is directly contagious or a current active kidney infection, which is not the mechanism in APSGN.

Question 21

A child is sent to the school nurse by a teacher who has a written note that Fifth's disease is suspected. Which characteristic would the nurse expect to find?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hallmark “slapped-cheek” facial rash is the most distinguishing clinical feature that supports the suspected diagnosis in a school-aged child. In contrast, a macule progressing to papule then vesicles describes varicella, and Koplik spots with a cephalocaudal spreading rash describes measles. Recognizing the characteristic rash pattern is central to differentiating common childhood exanthems.

Question 22

A 6 year-old child is seen for the first time in the clinic. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has deformities of the joints, limbs, and fingers, thinned upper lip, and small teeth with faulty enamel. The mother states: "My child seems to have problems in learning to count and recognizing basic colors." Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the child is most likely showing the effects of which problem?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The combination of a thin upper lip with learning difficulties strongly points to this syndrome, and dental enamel defects plus limb/joint abnormalities can also occur with fetal alcohol exposure. Lead toxicity can cause cognitive and behavioral problems but does not typically produce the classic facial phenotype described. Congenital infections such as toxoplasmosis more often present with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, or intracranial calcifications rather than the specific facial features and enamel findings here.

Question 23

Which of these statements by the nurse is incorrect to use to reinforce information about cancers to a group of young adults?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cancer prevention teaching should be accurate and evidence-based; stomach (gastric) cancer risk reduction focuses on limiting smoked/salted/preserved foods and processed meats/nitrites while increasing fruits/vegetables, but it does not require eliminating or “limiting all meat” broadly. Overly absolute dietary claims can misinform clients and are not consistent with standard prevention guidance. The other statements reflect commonly taught epidemiologic facts (e.g., lung cancer leading cause of cancer death; colorectal cancer among the top causes of cancer mortality; prostate cancer being common in men and potentially affecting sexual function and survival). Therefore, the inaccurate/overstated counseling statement is the one that implies an across-the-board restriction of all meat for gastric cancer prevention.

Question 24

A 70 year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a wrist fracture of unknown causes. During the process of taking client history, which of these items should the nurse identify as related to the client's greatest risk factors for osteoporosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Long-term high-dose steroid therapy is therefore a stronger, more direct predictor of osteoporosis than common age-related factors alone. Menopause at 50 is typical and contributes to risk, but it is not as potent a single risk factor as prolonged glucocorticoid use. Physical inactivity increases risk, yet its impact is generally less pronounced than sustained steroid-induced bone loss in an older adult presenting with a low-trauma wrist fracture.

Question 25

Bladder cancer How does bladder cancer rate on the most commonly occurring GU cancer in adults list?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This places bladder cancer as the second most commonly occurring GU cancer overall. The question tests knowledge of relative incidence rankings rather than clinical management or nursing interventions. Options like 1st or 4th underestimate or overestimate its population frequency compared with other GU sites.

Question 26

When a reproductive age female diagnosed with rubella infection in 9th week of gestation. Nurse distinguished which type defect occur in foetus at time birth of the neoate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic triad includes congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (especially patent ductus arteriosus), and sensorineural hearing loss. At 9 weeks’ gestation, the fetus is in a high-risk window for these structural and sensory defects. Therefore, the option that includes all listed findings is the single best choice, whereas choosing only one would be incomplete.

Question 27

Bow shaped Legs is found in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vitamin D deficiency rickets leads to defective mineralization and weight-bearing deformities including genu varum. Blount's disease (tibia vara) is a growth disorder of the proximal tibial physis that characteristically produces progressive bowing. Chronic fluoride toxicity can cause skeletal fluorosis with osteosclerosis and bone/joint deformities, which may manifest as limb bowing, so the inclusive choice is best.

Question 28

Which of the following lifestyle factors is most closely related to bladder cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heavy, long-term exposure markedly increases risk in a dose-dependent manner, making this option the most tightly linked to disease. Industrial chemical exposure can also increase bladder cancer risk, but the option given is less specific and not strictly a lifestyle behavior. Sedentary behavior and cola intake are not established primary causes compared with tobacco exposure.

Question 29

Skin color is yellow due to excess.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Deposition of bilirubin in tissues and sclera produces the characteristic yellow hue. Hemoglobin excess would more typically relate to redness/plethora rather than yellowing. Melanin primarily determines baseline brown/black pigmentation and tanning, not jaundice.

Question 30

The nurse is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse anticipates which findings on physical examination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fever supports an infectious etiology, and significant pain/inflammation can be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Painful scrotal edema is a direct expected local finding due to inflammation and reactive swelling. Ecchymosis is not a typical feature of epididymitis and suggests trauma or hemorrhage rather than infection. Listing testicular torsion as a finding is inappropriate because torsion is an alternative diagnosis requiring urgent differentiation, not an expected exam finding for epididymitis.

Question 31

Which of these is not considered to be an important risk factor for delayed and/or impaired wound healing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alcohol use disorder is associated with malnutrition, immune suppression, and liver dysfunction, all of which can delay repair. Obesity increases wound tension and decreases effective tissue oxygenation and is linked to higher rates of infection and dehiscence. Cigarette smoking causes vasoconstriction and reduces oxygen delivery, a classic cause of impaired healing; routine sun exposure is not considered a major systemic risk factor for delayed healing in typical wound-care risk assessment.

Question 32

A patient comes to the ER complaining of joint pain that began in his great toe. Which of the following risk factors, if seen in the patient's history, does the nurse suspect triggered the patient's condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute pain starting in the great toe is classic for gout due to monosodium urate crystal deposition from hyperuricemia. Alcohol intake can raise serum uric acid by increasing purine load and promoting decreased renal urate excretion, which can precipitate an acute flare. In contrast, vegetarian and lactovegetarian patterns are generally lower in high-purine meats/seafood and are not typical triggers for gout attacks. Smoking is not a primary, well-established precipitant of acute gout compared with diet/alcohol-related urate effects.

Question 33

The cancer arising from mesodermal cells constituting the various connecting tissues is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Connective tissues include bone, cartilage, muscle, fat, and fibrous tissue, which are classic sources of sarcomas. Lymphomas and leukemias arise from hematopoietic/lymphoid lineages rather than general connective tissue stroma. Therefore, a malignancy arising from mesodermal connective tissue is best termed a sarcoma.

Question 34

Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarily in men over age 30 ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It classically presents with acute, severe joint pain and inflammation, commonly affecting lower-extremity joints (especially the first metatarsophalangeal joint) and is more prevalent in men, often after age 30. The stem’s emphasis on urate deposits and typical distribution in the feet and legs directly matches this mechanism and presentation. Septic arthritis is driven by infection of the joint space and would not be described by urate crystal deposition. Traumatic arthritis relates to mechanical injury, and “intermittent arthritis” is nonspecific and does not identify the urate-crystal etiology.

Question 35

Tumour is an abnormal mass of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This core pathology concept emphasizes dysregulated cell growth rather than overgrowth of a specific tissue component like muscle or cartilage. Inorganic salts are not living units capable of proliferation, so they cannot form a neoplasm. While tumors can arise from muscle or cartilage, the unifying definition is that they are masses composed of proliferating cells.

Question 36

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected connective tissue disease. Assessment findings include chronic back pain, weight loss, joint pain, and itching and visual disturbances. The nurse anticipates a diagnosis of which disorder for this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The combination of chronic back pain and joint pain with visual disturbances points toward a seronegative spondyloarthropathy rather than an isolated connective-tissue structural disorder. Systemic necrotizing vasculitis more typically features systemic organ ischemia (e.g., renal, neurologic, GI) rather than this characteristic musculoskeletal–ocular pattern. Marfan syndrome is primarily a fibrillin/connective-tissue structural disorder with tall habitus, lens subluxation, and aortic disease, not an inflammatory arthritis/back pain syndrome.

Question 37

Reye's syndrome is the complication of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Varicella (and influenza) are the prototypical antecedent infections associated with this complication. This makes the varicella option the best match among the listed diseases. The other options are not classically linked to aspirin-associated acute hepatic failure with cerebral edema in the same way.

Question 38

Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Potassium is abundant inside muscle cells, so cell lysis commonly produces hyperkalemia, which is clinically important due to risk of dysrhythmias. Calcium typically decreases early (deposition in injured muscle) rather than increasing, making that choice a classic distractor. Creatinine is more likely to rise if acute kidney injury develops from myoglobin-induced renal injury, so a decreased creatinine level is inconsistent with the expected pathology.

Question 39

Which usually rare cancer is associated with HIV?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV/AIDS is classically associated with Kaposi sarcoma due to human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), making it a defining AIDS-related cancer and historically a common presentation of advanced disease. The other options are not characteristically linked to HIV: mesothelioma is strongly associated with asbestos exposure, while astrocytoma and penile cancer do not have the same hallmark association with HIV as an AIDS-defining malignancy. This makes the AIDS-associated vascular tumor the best match for a usually rare cancer linked to HIV.

Question 40

Severe generalized edema is called as..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term is specifically used when edema is diffuse and massive, often seen with advanced heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, liver failure, or severe malnutrition. The other options describe patterns or etiologies rather than the global severity/distribution: pitting edema is a physical finding, and dependent edema is gravity-related in dependent body parts. Myxedema is classically nonpitting edema related to hypothyroidism and does not denote generalized massive fluid overload.

Question 41

A 33-year old client complains of fatigue, anorexia, and a low grade fever. The client also complains of joint pain. Which condition does the nurse suspect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: RA is a systemic autoimmune inflammatory arthritis, so it commonly presents with constitutional symptoms such as fatigue, anorexia, and low-grade fever along with joint pain. Osteoarthritis is primarily a degenerative process and typically lacks fever or other systemic inflammatory features. SLE can also cause joint pain and systemic symptoms, but the stem provides no multi-organ clues (e.g., rash, photosensitivity, serositis, renal or hematologic findings) to prioritize it over RA. Anemia can cause fatigue but does not explain inflammatory symptoms like low-grade fever with joint pain as the primary syndrome.

Question 42

The nurse performs a physical assessment on a client and observes that the client has reddened gums with bleeding. The nurse is correct in documenting this finding as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Red, swollen gums that bleed easily are classic signs of inflammation of the gingival tissues, most often from plaque-related periodontal irritation. This term specifically refers to gum inflammation/bleeding, which is exactly what the assessment finding describes. By contrast, glossitis refers to inflammation of the tongue, cheilosis involves fissuring at the corners of the mouth, and caries are tooth decay lesions rather than gum changes. Therefore the correct documentation is the diagnosis term for inflamed bleeding gums.

Question 43

Which chronic condition is related to the presence of chronic pancreatitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of insulin-secreting beta cells reduces insulin production, leading to secondary diabetes (often termed type 3c or pancreatogenic diabetes). This association is direct and commonly tested as a complication of long-standing pancreatic inflammation. The other options are not typical chronic sequelae caused by chronic pancreatitis in a causal, mechanistic way.

Question 44

Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancreatic malignancy is often clinically silent until advanced, has aggressive biology, and is frequently unresectable at presentation, which drives very low 5-year survival. In contrast, many breast cancers have effective screening and multiple curative-stage treatments, improving outcomes substantially. Squamous cell carcinomas vary widely by site and are often curable when localized, making them less uniformly poor in prognosis than pancreatic cancer.

Question 45

Which of the following statements explains the main difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder with systemic immune activation, so it can produce extra-articular manifestations (e.g., fatigue, nodules, vasculitis) in addition to symmetric polyarthritis. This option captures the core pathophysiologic distinction between localized degenerative change versus systemic inflammatory disease. The “gender-specific” statement is inaccurate because both conditions have sex predilections but neither is exclusive to one gender. Dislocations/subluxations are more classically associated with advanced inflammatory joint destruction in rheumatoid arthritis rather than osteoarthritis, and the final option is incomplete.

Question 46

Which of the following types of tissues is most likely to be susceptible to cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epithelial tissues constantly renew and are exposed to environmental insults (e.g., UV light, smoke, acids, pathogens), making them the predominant origin of carcinomas. In contrast, muscle and mature neural tissue have relatively low mitotic activity, so primary malignancies from these tissues are less common. Adipose can develop tumors, but it is not the most common source compared with epithelium in standard pathology classifications.

Question 47

Brain fever is termed as…?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the choices, only one describes an inflammatory condition involving the central nervous system coverings rather than another organ system. The other options indicate inflammation of the stomach lining, skin, or joints, which would not be labeled as a brain-related febrile illness. Clinically, meningitis presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and possible photophobia or mental status changes, aligning with the old term.

Question 48

Which condition is the leading risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism directly explains why it is the most important modifiable risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhage and many subarachnoid hemorrhages related to aneurysm rupture. Diabetes and coronary artery disease are more strongly associated with atherosclerosis and ischemic stroke rather than primary hemorrhage. A recent viral infection is not a typical major independent risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke in standard epidemiology.

Question 49

The nurse explains to the mother of a child with lead poisoning that X-rays are necessary, as lead retained in the body is initially stored in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lead distributes into blood and soft tissues early, then is predominantly deposited in mineralizing tissues by substituting for calcium in hydroxyapatite. This makes the skeleton the major long-term reservoir, and retained lead in growing children can be visualized as dense metaphyseal “lead lines” on radiographs. The brain is a key target for toxicity, but it is not the primary storage depot, while the kidney and liver are involved in handling and injury rather than initial long-term sequestration. Therefore, imaging is relevant because the body’s main retained store is skeletal.

Question 50

Which tinea is best described by an annular erythematous patch on the body, hands, or face?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dermatophyte infections are named by their anatomic location, and ring-shaped (annular), erythematous plaques with central clearing are classic for ringworm of glabrous skin. This presentation on the body, and potentially extending to hands or face, best fits infection of the trunk/limbs and other non-hairy skin surfaces. Scalp involvement with hair changes points to tinea capitis, groin involvement to tinea cruris, and interdigital/plantar foot involvement to tinea pedis. Therefore, the description most strongly matches the entity affecting general body skin.

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