Question 1

Following eruption of the primary teeth, the mother can promote chewing by giving the toddler?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Small pieces of dry cereal soften and dissolve easily, encouraging chewing with minimal choking risk. Hot dogs, raw carrot sticks, and raisins are common choking hazards for toddlers.

Question 2

The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn's disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low-residue diets limit foods that increase stool bulk and intestinal irritation; greasy, fried foods are avoided. Mashed potatoes, smooth peanut butter, and white rice are generally permitted.

Question 3

A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has developed abdominal ascites. The nurse should provide the client with snacks that provide additional?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With cirrhosis and ascites, sodium is restricted and fat is not specifically increased. Adequate protein intake is encouraged (unless encephalopathy) to prevent muscle wasting and support albumin production, helping oncotic pressure. Therefore, provide additional protein.

Question 4

The physician has ordered a low-purine diet for a client with gout. Which protein source is high in purine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Legumes such as dried beans contain relatively high purine content compared with dairy products, eggs, and nuts, which are low in purines and safer for gout.

Question 5

The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with hypertension. Which food should be avoided by the client on a sodium-restricted diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Processed/aged cheeses are high in sodium; Colby cheese is notably higher in sodium than the other listed options. Dried beans (prepared without added salt) and natural peanut butter are relatively low-sodium, and Swiss cheese is lower in sodium than Colby.

Question 6

A client with a history of phenylketonuria is seen at the local family planning clinic. After completing the client's intake history, the nurse provides literature for a healthy pregnancy. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspartame (NutraSweet) contains phenylalanine and should be avoided in patients with PKU, especially before and during pregnancy. The other statements support a low-phenylalanine diet.

Question 7

The nurse is preparing a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) for discharge. The nurse should tell the client to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbonated drinks increase gastric pressure and promote reflux; clients with GERD should avoid them. The other options worsen GERD: eating before bed, sleeping on the right side, and increasing citrus intake.

Question 8

A client with cirrhosis has developed signs of hepatorenal syndrome. Which diet is most appropriate for the client at this time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatorenal syndrome indicates renal failure in advanced cirrhosis. Protein restriction limits nitrogenous waste accumulation, and sodium restriction helps control fluid retention/ascites. Thus a low-protein, low-sodium diet is most appropriate.

Question 9

The physician has ordered increased oral hydration for a client with renal calculi. Unless contraindicated, the recommended oral intake for helping with the removal of renal calculi is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For renal calculi, the nurse encourages aggressive oral fluids to promote diuresis and stone passage; approximately 200 mL/hour is recommended unless contraindicated.

Question 10

When caring for a ventilator-dependent client who is receiving tube feedings, the nurse can help prevent aspiration of gastric secretions by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Elevating the head of the bed 30–45° (semi-Fowler’s) reduces reflux and aspiration risk during enteral feeding, especially in ventilated patients. Flat positioning or raising the foot increases aspiration risk; lateral positioning is less effective.

Question 11

Which foods should a client diagnosed with chronic cholecystitis be taught to include in their diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet. Steamed vegetables like broccoli are low in fat and easy to digest, while pizza, steak, and cheese are high-fat and beans can be gas-forming and may exacerbate discomfort.

Question 12

Which of the following foods would the nurse encourage the client in sickle cell crisis to eat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During sickle cell crisis, aggressive hydration is a priority to reduce blood viscosity and prevent further sickling. A popsicle promotes oral fluid intake better than the other options.

Question 13

The nurse is instructing a client with iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following meal plans would the nurse expect the client to select?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Roast beef provides heme iron, the most readily absorbed form, making this meal highest in iron compared with the others that have lower or nonheme sources.

Question 14

The client is instructed regarding foods that are low in fat and cholesterol. Which diet selection is lowest in saturated fats?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Skinless turkey breast is a lean protein and lowest in saturated fat among the choices; macaroni and cheese and meat sauce are high in saturated fats, and shrimp is higher in dietary cholesterol.

Question 15

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with a facial stroke. Which diet selection would be suited to the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After a facial stroke the client is at risk for dysphagia/aspiration; the preferred diet is soft, easy-to-swallow foods with thicker consistencies. Option B provides thick/soft items (split pea soup, mashed potatoes, pudding) and avoids tough, chewy foods and most thin liquids found in other options.

Question 16

A client has cancer of the pancreas. The nurse should be most concerned about which nursing diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancreatic cancer commonly causes anorexia and malabsorption from decreased pancreatic enzymes, leading to significant weight loss and risk for malnutrition. Therefore, alteration in nutrition is the priority nursing diagnosis.

Question 17

Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother with a child with celiac, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Children with celiac disease require a gluten-free diet. Rice is naturally gluten-free, whereas whole-wheat toast, angel hair pasta, and rye bread contain gluten.

Question 18

Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrostomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Proper PEG care includes flushing the tube with water after feedings/medications to maintain patency and clamping it afterward. Routine frequent placement checks are unnecessary for a secured gastrostomy tube, and swallowing ability does not affect PEG feeds. Reporting vague 'indigestion' is not the key teaching point.

Question 19

A client with mania is unable to finish her dinner. To help her maintain sufficient nourishment, the nurse should?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Manic clients are hyperactive and have trouble sitting for meals; providing portable, high-calorie finger foods ensures adequate intake. Other options do not address the hyperactivity or may be unsafe/ineffective.

Question 20

Which of the following diet instructions should be given to the client with recurring urinary tract infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranberry juice acidifies urine and inhibits bacterial adherence to the urinary tract, helping prevent recurrent UTIs. The other options are not recommended or are unrelated to diet-based prevention.

Question 21

The physician has ordered a minimal-bacteria diet for a client with neutropenia. The client should be taught to avoid eating?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with neutropenia follow a minimal-bacteria (neutropenic) diet. Black pepper and similar spices can harbor bacteria because they are not cooked; they should be avoided. Salt and bottled ketchup are safe, and fruits may be eaten if cooked/peeled.

Question 22

The nurse is providing dietary instructions for a client with iron-deficiency anemia. Which food is a poor source of iron?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tomatoes contain very little iron, whereas legumes, dried fruits, and nuts are relatively good plant sources of iron.

Question 23

The nurse is planning dietary changes for a client following an episode of acute pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Following acute pancreatitis, dietary fat should be restricted to minimize pancreatic stimulation; adequate calories are needed for recovery. High calorie, low fat is appropriate; high fat or low protein diets are not.

Question 24

A client with nontropical sprue has an exacerbation of symptoms. Which meal selection is responsible for the recurrence of the client's symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nontropical sprue (celiac disease) requires a gluten-free diet. Crackers and cream soups typically contain wheat flour (gluten), which triggers symptom recurrence.

Question 25

Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with celiac disease must avoid gluten (wheat, barley, rye). A rice-based snack with milk is gluten-free; the other options contain wheat products.

Question 26

What information should the nurse give a new mother regarding the introduction of solid foods for her infant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Introduce new solids singly at 4–7 day intervals to monitor for allergy/intolerance. A is incorrect (extrusion reflex typically fades by about 4–6 months, not 8–10). C is unsafe; solids should be offered by spoon, not in a bottle. D is incorrect because first foods are usually iron-fortified cereal before fruits/vegetables.

Question 27

The nurse is teaching the mother of an infant with galactosemia. Which information should be included in the nurse’s teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In galactosemia, galactose and lactose must be strictly avoided lifelong; parents should read all food and medication labels for lactose. Galactose cannot be added, future children may be affected due to autosomal recessive inheritance, and galactose sources are not required in the diet.

Question 28

A client with human immunodeficiency syndrome has gastrointestinal symptoms, including diarrhea. The nurse should teach the client to avoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Immunocompromised clients with diarrhea should avoid raw produce to reduce pathogen exposure and limit high-fiber foods that can worsen diarrhea. Canned/frozen vegetables are safer; calcium-rich foods and processed meats are not specific concerns.

Question 29

A client with a history of diverticulitis complains of abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which food is responsible for the client's symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During acute diverticulitis, a low‑residue diet is recommended; high‑fiber foods like whole‑grain cereals can aggravate inflammation and precipitate pain, fever, and diarrhea.

Question 30

The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with elevated cholesterol levels. Which cooking oil is not suggested for the client on a low-cholesterol diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Coconut oil is high in saturated fat, which raises LDL cholesterol; unsaturated oils like safflower, sunflower, and canola are preferred for a low-cholesterol diet.

Question 31

The doctor has prescribed a diet high in vitamin B12 for a client with pernicious anemia. Which foods are good sources of B12?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vitamin B12 is found primarily in animal-derived foods. Meat, eggs, and dairy are reliable sources; the other options are plant-based foods or cereals that are not natural B12 sources.

Question 32

The nurse has been teaching the role of diet in regulating blood pressure to a client with hypertension. Which meal selection indicates the client understands his new diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For hypertension, choose low-sodium, low–saturated fat foods per DASH-style eating. Oatmeal and dry toast are low in sodium and fat; apple juice is acceptable. Other choices include high-sodium or high–saturated fat items (bacon, ham, tomato juice, whole milk).

Question 33

A client with AIDS complains of a weight loss of 20 pounds in the past month. Which diet is suggested for the client with AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with AIDS and weight loss need a high-calorie, high-protein diet to counter wasting; low fat helps reduce fat malabsorption and diarrhea common with AIDS enteropathy.

Question 34

The suggested diet for a child with cystic fibrosis is one that contains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CF involves pancreatic insufficiency and malabsorption with increased metabolic needs; recommended diet is high-calorie, high-protein with moderate-to-high fat alongside enzyme therapy. Option A best matches.

Question 35

A client with Parkinson's disease complains of "choking" when he swallows. Which intervention will improve the client's ability to swallow?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s dysphagia is worsened by thin liquids; thickened/semisolid textures are swallowed more safely and reduce choking risk. A fully liquid diet and withholding liquids are inappropriate, and small frequent meals do not specifically improve swallowing mechanics.

Question 36

Which of the following should be considered in the diet of the client with end-stage-renal-disease (ESRD)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In ESRD with little or no urine output, the kidneys cannot excrete water, so fluids must be restricted to prevent volume overload and pulmonary edema. Phosphorus is restricted but vitamin D foods are not routinely limited; calcium restriction is not standard; carbohydrates are needed for adequate calories.

Question 37

A client’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L (hypernatremia). Which of the following food the nurse should instruct the client to avoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With hypernatremia, advise a low-sodium diet. Processed foods, including processed cereals, typically contain high added sodium, whereas peas, nuts (unsalted), and cauliflower are naturally low in sodium.

Question 38

Which of the following would you NOT teach a patient recently diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IBS education includes identifying trigger foods, limiting caffeine and alcohol, managing stress, and usually increasing soluble fiber intake gradually. Advising to decrease fiber intake is contrary to standard recommendations.

Question 39

Pancreatitis is the inflammation of the pancreas that is characterized by recurring or persistent abdominal pain with or without steatorrhea. A nurse is providing dietary information to a client with pancreatitis. All of the following food should be avoided by the client, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with pancreatitis should avoid stimulants and irritants such as caffeine (tea, coffee) and spicy foods because they can increase pancreatic stimulation and pain. Nuts do not contain caffeine or spices and may be included in moderation as tolerated.

Question 40

What is the term for avoidance of certain types of food due to the influence of religion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Religious or cultural prohibitions against specific foods are termed food taboos, not fads or allergies.

Question 41

Which food item should a client with chronic heart failure on a sodium-restricted diet avoid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Canned foods like sardines are typically high in sodium and should be avoided on a sodium-restricted diet for heart failure. Eggs, plain (unsalted) nuts, and whole milk contain much less sodium.

Question 42

A low carbohydrate diet is recommended for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reducing carbohydrate intake helps control postprandial blood glucose in diabetes and lowers total calorie intake to aid weight loss in obesity; it is not a primary intervention for hypertension.

Question 43

What consistency do dalia, khichdi, suji kheer, upma, and custard have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These items span soft and semi-solid consistencies: khichdi and upma are soft, while custard and suji kheer are semi-solid; thus they fit both categories.

Question 44

The client is admitted to the hospital in chronic renal failure. A diet low in protein is ordered. The rationale for a low-protein diet is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In chronic renal failure the kidneys cannot excrete nitrogenous wastes effectively; limiting dietary protein reduces urea (BUN) and other nitrogenous waste production.

Question 45

The nurse is planning care for the patient with celiac disease. In teaching about the diet, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following for breakfast?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet; wheat contains gluten and must be avoided. Banana and rice are gluten-free, and cornflakes are corn-based.

Question 46

The nurse is teaching about irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following would be most important?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IBS management emphasizes overall dietary balance with adequate fiber and fluids; low-fiber or restricting fruits/vegetables is inappropriate. Encouraging a specific volume of fluid with each meal is less central than reinforcing a balanced diet pattern.

Question 47

A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fresh fruit like a peach is naturally low in sodium, whereas peanut butter, cheese, and cottage cheese (and bread in a grilled cheese) are high in sodium and inappropriate for a sodium-restricted diet.

Question 48

Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A high-fiber diet with adequate fluids softens stools and prevents constipation and straining after hemorrhoidectomy, reducing pain and protecting the surgical site. The other diets do not address this goal.

Question 49

The nurse is assigned to care for an infant with physiologic jaundice. Which action by the nurse would facilitate elimination of the bilirubin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adequate hydration and frequent feedings increase urine and stool output, enhancing bilirubin excretion in physiologic jaundice.

Question 50

The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with diverticulitis who has been placed on a low-roughage diet. Which food would have to be eliminated from this client's diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low-roughage (low-residue) diet for diverticulitis avoids high-fiber foods like vegetables with skins/seeds; broccoli is high in fiber even when cooked. Roasted chicken, noodles, and custard are low-residue and acceptable.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Nutrition and Oral Hydration NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning