Question 1

Which of the following foods should be avoided in celiac disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with celiac disease must avoid all gluten-containing foods. Wheat is a primary source of gluten and triggers autoimmune inflammation in the small intestine, leading to malabsorption and gastrointestinal symptoms.

Question 2

The physician has ordered a low-potassium diet for a client with acute glomerulonephritis. Which snack is suitable for the client with potassium restrictions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the listed foods, oranges contain less potassium compared to raisins, apricots, and bananas, all of which are significantly higher in potassium. Although oranges are not strictly low-potassium, they are the safest relative choice for a patient on potassium restriction given the available options.

Question 3

A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following foods should this patient choose to eat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PKU requires restricting phenylalanine by avoiding high-protein foods, such as meat and dairy. Pasta is lower in phenylalanine compared with chicken, yogurt, or steak, and is an acceptable choice.

Question 4

During enteral feeding in adults, at what angle should the patient be nursed to reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: To minimize reflux and aspiration during enteral feeding, elevate the head of the bed 30–45 degrees; 45 degrees is preferred among the choices.

Question 5

After surgery, a client with a nasogastric tube complains of nausea. What action would the nurse take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postoperative nausea with an NG tube often indicates the tube is obstructed and not decompressing the stomach. The priority is to assess and re-establish patency before calling the provider, giving antiemetics, or repositioning.

Question 6

To ensure client safety, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make before advancing a client from liquids to solids?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Before advancing from liquids to solids, the key safety assessment is the client's ability to chew and swallow safely to prevent aspiration. Bowel sounds reflect GI motility, and appetite or preferences do not address aspiration risk.

Question 7

Which snack and drink are the best selections to provide to a client experiencing trigeminal neuralgia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trigeminal neuralgia pain is triggered by chewing and temperature extremes. Provide soft, bland foods at a lukewarm temperature. Pudding with lukewarm milk minimizes chewing and avoids hot or cold stimuli.

Question 8

A client is admitted for an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. What dietary intervention is appropriate for managing Crohn's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During a Crohn's flare, a low-residue diet reduces stool volume and intestinal irritation, helping control diarrhea and abdominal pain. High-fiber diets worsen symptoms; high-protein diets may support healing but do not address acute bowel stimulation; low-sodium diets are not specific.

Question 9

Marie, a 51-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with cholecystitis. Which diet, when selected by the client, indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fat stimulates gallbladder contraction and worsens pain in cholecystitis; the recommended diet is low-fat. Carbohydrates are well tolerated, so a low-fat, high-carbohydrate diet best reflects correct teaching.

Question 10

A client has cancer of the liver. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse be most concerned about?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver cancer commonly causes anorexia, early satiety, malabsorption, and cancer cachexia, making inadequate nutrition a primary concern rather than urinary elimination, skin integrity, or coping.

Question 11

The nurse is preparing to administer a feeding via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following would the nurse perform before initiating the feeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Verifying tube placement prevents aspiration and ensures the tube terminates in the stomach before feeding.

Question 12

The leukemic client is prescribed a low-bacteria diet. Which food does the nurse expect to be included in this diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neutropenic/low-bacteria diets avoid raw fruits, vegetables, and sprouts; cooked foods are permitted. Cooked spinach and sautéed celery fit the diet, whereas the other options include raw produce.

Question 13

The nurse has performed discharge teaching for a client who needs a high-iron diet. The nurse recognizes that the teaching has been effective when the client selects which meal plan?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Veal provides heme iron, the most bioavailable form, while spinach contributes non-heme iron that is better absorbed when combined with vitamin C–rich foods. A whole-wheat roll adds additional nutrients and fiber. This meal supports correction of iron deficiency anemia and demonstrates appropriate dietary understanding.

Question 14

Which food should a nurse encourage a client with atherosclerosis to eat to lower the risk of heart disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For atherosclerosis, choose foods low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fruits and vegetables. Fresh cantaloupe is low in fat and heart-healthy, while the other options are high in saturated fat or are fried.

Question 15

A two-year-old child is brought to the pediatrician's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Which one of the following statements should the nurse include in nutritional counseling?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For mild pediatric diarrhea, evidence-based guidance is to continue the normal age-appropriate diet and give oral rehydration solution. Clear liquids/BRAT diets are inadequate, and NPO is inappropriate.

Question 16

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with bipolar disorder in the manic phase who is taking lithium. Which of the following snacks would be best for the client with mania?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients in acute mania need quick, portable, high-calorie nutrition and fluids while avoiding stimulants like caffeine. A milkshake provides dense calories and hydration without caffeine; potato chips are very salty and not nutritious; diet cola adds caffeine; and an apple is low-calorie.

Question 17

Which of the following should the nurse include in the nursing care plan for the client diagnosed with renal failure whose BUN is 32 mg/dL, serum creatinine is 4 mg/dL, and hematocrit is 38%? He is complaining of fatigue and edema?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In renal failure, reducing protein intake lowers uremic waste production, and restricting fluids helps manage edema from impaired renal excretion. Thus, a low-protein diet with fluid restriction is most appropriate.

Question 18

What is the recommended amount of protein intake during renal failure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protein is restricted in renal failure to reduce nitrogenous waste; the typical recommendation for non-dialysis adults is about 0.6–0.8 g/kg/day, which is approximately 40–60 g/day.

Question 19

How much water should you drink daily to support weight loss?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A general guideline for supporting weight loss is adequate hydration of about 8–10 glasses (around 2 liters) per day, which helps with appetite control and metabolism. Two glasses are insufficient, and drinking only when thirsty can lead to underhydration.

Question 20

Which statement by the patient with type 2 diabetes is accurate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with diabetes should consume alcohol with food to reduce the risk of hypoglycemia. They do not need to completely avoid sweets but should include them in a balanced meal plan, and they must monitor their overall diet, including fat, for cardiovascular health. Saying that only carbohydrates affect blood sugar is inaccurate.

Question 21

Which breakfast selection for a client with osteoporosis indicates that the client understands the dietary management of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Osteoporosis management emphasizes calcium (and vitamin D). Skim milk is high in calcium; the other choices provide little calcium or contain items that can reduce calcium availability (caffeine, bran).

Question 22

The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is the most objectively favorable outcome for the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Weight gain is the most objective and reliable indicator of improved nutritional status in anorexia nervosa. The other options reflect behaviors or preferences and may not correlate with nutritional recovery.

Question 23

A client with alcoholism has been instructed to increase his thiamine intake. The nurse knows the client understands the instructions when he selects which food?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thiamine (vitamin B1) is more abundant in pork than in other common meats; choosing pork best increases thiamine intake.

Question 24

A mother is concerned about the diet of her child with uncomplicated acute glomerulonephritis. What is the appropriate dietary regimen to teach?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In uncomplicated acute glomerulonephritis, protein and potassium are not restricted unless there is severe azotemia or oliguria. The primary restriction is sodium to control edema and hypertension; therefore, a regular diet with no added salt is appropriate.

Question 25

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding diet therapy for a patient with renal failure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Renal failure impairs potassium excretion and places the patient at risk for hyperkalemia, so potassium intake is typically restricted. Limiting protein and sodium, and providing adequate carbohydrates, are standard dietary strategies.

Question 26

The nurse is teaching a client with noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus about the prescribed diet. The nurse should teach the client to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients with type 2 diabetes should maintain consistent meal timing to stabilize blood glucose and prevent hypoglycemia.

Question 27

In which condition is a high-protein diet given?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High protein intake is indicated to correct protein-energy malnutrition and promote anabolism. In uraemia protein is restricted to reduce nitrogenous wastes, and in jaundice/liver disease protein is not routinely high and may be limited in severe cases.

Question 28

Which of the following nursing actions is required before giving clear-liquid fluids after anaesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Before offering oral fluids after anesthesia, confirm return of protective airway reflexes. Presence of a gag reflex indicates safe swallowing and reduces aspiration risk.

Question 29

A prepared ORS solution is stable for a period of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prepared oral rehydration solution should be used within 24 hours and then discarded to prevent bacterial contamination.

Question 30

The client is to receive 200 mL of tube feeding every 4 hours. The nurse checks the client's gastric residual before administering the next scheduled feeding and obtains 40 mL. The nurse should?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A residual of 40 mL is small relative to a 200 mL intermittent feeding. Return the residual to prevent fluid and electrolyte loss and proceed with the feeding. Withholding or delaying is indicated only for large residuals (e.g., >100–250 mL or >50% of prior feed) or intolerance.

Question 31

Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct a nutritional assessment. Which population is particularly susceptible to protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PEM most commonly affects toddlers and young children after weaning, typically 1–4 years old, when rapid growth and inadequate protein-calorie intake increase risk.

Question 32

Benefits of breastfeeding include all except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breast milk supplies nutrients, strong immune protection via colostrum, and lowers risk of GI infections. However, it does not provide adequate iron for premature infants, who require iron supplementation.

Question 33

How much ORS should be given for each loose stool?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard ORS guidance recommends giving 100–200 mL after each loose stool (commonly for children >2 years), to replace ongoing losses and prevent dehydration.

Question 34

A patient with glomerulonephritis complains of thirst?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In glomerulonephritis, fluids are commonly restricted to prevent volume overload. Offering hard candy helps relieve thirst without increasing fluid intake, unlike juice, water, or tea.

Question 35

An infant had corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What should the nurse guide a parent to do instantly after a feeding to limit vomiting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Keeping the infant upright after feeds (e.g., in an infant seat) helps prevent reflux and vomiting post‑pyloromyotomy. Lying flat, rocking, or stimulating the infant increases risk of emesis.

Question 36

While providing care to a pediatric patient with acute glomerulonephritis, you note the urine output to be 10 mL/hr. The patient weighs 30 lbs. As the nurse, you will want to limit what type of foods from the patient's diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A 30‑lb (≈13.6‑kg) child should have ≥1 mL/kg/hr urine output (~13.6 mL/hr). Output of 10 mL/hr indicates oliguria in acute glomerulonephritis, increasing risk for hyperkalemia; therefore potassium-rich foods should be restricted.

Question 37

Which of the following advise should be given for an infant suffering from mild diarrhoea?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In mild diarrhea, infants should continue breastfeeding to maintain hydration and nutrition; antibiotics are not routinely indicated, IV fluids are for severe dehydration, and breastfeeding should not be stopped.

Question 38

A child has cystic fibrosis. The nurse evaluates that the parents understand the dietary regimen for their child when they say they will?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Children with cystic fibrosis require a high‑calorie diet and pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals/snacks. The other options are incorrect for CF care: fluids should not be restricted, milk is not routinely eliminated, and salt intake is typically increased rather than discontinued.

Question 39

The nurse is taking care of a patient at high risk of aspiration pneumonia. Which of following nursing intervention will help to prevent aspiration pneumonia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Keeping the head of bed elevated at least 45 degrees during feeding reduces aspiration risk, and airway clearance/pulmonary toilet after feeding helps remove secretions that could be aspirated. Performing mouth care in the supine position increases aspiration risk.

Question 40

The diet regiment for a child with acute glomerulonephritis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In acute glomerulonephritis, decreased GFR and possible oliguria can cause potassium retention and azotemia; dietary management limits potassium and restricts protein to reduce nitrogenous waste.

Question 41

Which of the following is true about measurement of nasogastric tube in infants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For infants, the recommended NEMU method measures from the nose to the ear lobe and then to a point midway between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus to ensure gastric placement. Other measurements are inaccurate.

Question 42

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During Crohn's exacerbations, a low-residue/low-fiber diet is recommended to reduce bowel stimulation. Avoiding caffeine, using stress-reduction, and recognizing the relapsing-remitting course are appropriate.

Question 43

The full form of DASH diet is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DASH stands for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, a diet pattern used to lower blood pressure.

Question 44

Nurse should instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B12?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vitamin B12 is found primarily in animal-derived foods; dairy products are good sources, whereas vegetables, grains, and broccoli provide little to none.

Question 45

A biscuit packet with 13 grams of carbohydrates, 4 grams of fat, and 1 gram of protein contains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Calories: carbs 4 kcal/g (13g=52), protein 4 kcal/g (1g=4), fat 9 kcal/g (4g=36). Total = 52+36+4 = 92 kcal.

Question 46

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client about a low-fat diet. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Teaching for a low-fat diet should emphasize reading nutrition labels to track and limit fat intake. The other statements are overly restrictive or incorrect.

Question 47

You were assigned to a patient with a nasogastric tube attached for almost three days. It is time to irrigate it. What is the correct protocol to follow?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For NG tube irrigation, use gentle technique with about 20 mL sterile/normal saline and allow gravity return into a basin or reconnect to suction. Do not force instillation, do not use sterile water, and do not withdraw the solution.

Question 48

The patient with a hiatal hernia should have a teaching plan to help with the reduction of the complaints of heartburn, regurgitation, and eructation. This would include instruction about?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Late meals increase nocturnal reflux in hiatal hernia/GERD. Patients should avoid eating several hours before bedtime. The other options worsen reflux: large meals, lying down after eating, and sleeping flat.

Question 49

To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Caffeine and alcohol lower LES tone and aggravate reflux; avoiding them prevents GERD symptoms. Lying down after meals worsens reflux, antacids are PRN and not primary prevention, and limiting fluids with meals is not a standard recommendation.

Question 50

A client seen in the doctor's office for complaints of nausea and vomiting is sent home with directions to follow a clear-liquid diet for the next 24–48 hours. Which of the following is not permitted on a clear-liquid diet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clear-liquid diets allow transparent liquids such as tea, broth, and gelatin. Ice cream contains dairy and is not a clear liquid, so it is not permitted.

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