Nutrition and Oral Hydration Practice Test 2
Nutrition and Oral Hydration NCLEX Practice Test
Nutrition and Oral Hydration is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Physiological Integrity → Basic Care and Comfort → Nutrition and Oral Hydration. This section supports dietary planning, fluid balance, and aspiration prevention with patient teaching. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 2nd part of the Nutrition and Oral Hydration series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Nutrition and Oral Hydration Practice Test 2
The nurse is caring for a client who is of the Islam religious group. Which food selection might this client want to avoid?
- Jello
- Chicken
- Milk
- Broccoli
Explanation: Answer reason: Many Muslims avoid pork and pork-derived products; gelatin in jello is commonly pork-based unless certified halal.
The nurse is performing discharge diet teaching to a client with a stage 1 decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. Which diet selection by this client would indicate that the client has a clear understanding of the proper diet for healing of a decubitus ulcer?
- Tossed salad, milk, and a slice of caramel cake
- Vegetable soup and crackers, and a glass of tea
- Baked chicken breast, broccoli, wheat roll, and an orange
- Hamburger, French fries, and corn on the cob
Explanation: Answer reason: Optimal healing of pressure ulcers requires high protein and vitamin C. The meal with baked chicken (protein) and broccoli/orange (vitamin C) best supports tissue repair.
The nurse has performed nutritional teaching on a client with gout who is placed on a low-purine diet. Which selection by the client would indicate that teaching has been ineffective?
- Cabbage
- Apple
- Peach cobbler
- Spinach
Explanation: Answer reason: Spinach is relatively high in purines and should be limited in a low-purine diet for gout; cabbage, apples, and peach cobbler are low-purine choices.
The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a fractured femur. Which diet selection would be best for this client?
- Loaded baked potato, fried chicken, and tea
- Dressed cheeseburger, French fries, and Coke
- Tuna fish salad on sourdough bread, potato chips, and skim milk
- Mandarin orange salad, broiled chicken, and milk
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone healing requires protein, calcium, and vitamin C. Option D provides lean protein (chicken), calcium (milk), and vitamin C (mandarin oranges), making it the most appropriate choice.
A client with AIDS has impaired nutrition because of diarrhea. Which diet selection by the client would indicate a need for further teaching of foods that can worsen the diarrhea?
- Tossed salad
- Baked chicken
- Broiled fish
- Steamed rice
Explanation: Answer reason: Raw vegetables are high in fiber and can aggravate diarrhea; baked chicken, broiled fish, and steamed rice are low-residue choices.
The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with ulcerative colitis who has been placed on a low-residue diet. Which food would need to be eliminated from this client's diet?
- Roasted chicken
- Noodles
- Cooked broccoli
- Roast beef
Explanation: Answer reason: A low-residue diet limits fiber; cruciferous vegetables like broccoli are high in residue and should be avoided. Refined noodles and tender meats are generally allowed.
The nurse is assisting a client with diverticulitis to select appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided?
- Bran
- Fresh peach
- Tomato and cucumber salad
- Dinner roll
Explanation: Answer reason: In acute diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is used and foods with small seeds are avoided because they can irritate or lodge in diverticula. Tomato and cucumber salad contains many seeds and roughage, so it should be avoided.
What is the appropriate treatment plan for a child with no dehydration, normal eyes, moist mouth, tears present, drinks normally, not thirsty, and skin pinch goes back quickly?
- Mothers educated to use home fluids
- Breastfeeding continued
- ORS packets used at home
Explanation: Answer reason: Findings indicate no dehydration; WHO Plan A recommends home management with extra fluids and continued feeding. The best single choice capturing the plan is educating the mother to use home fluids. Options B and C are components but not the overarching plan.
Which statement by the patient recovering from diverticulitis indicates a need for further education?
- I should avoid seeds and nuts to prevent fiber intake.
- I can gradually increase my fiber intake.
- It's okay to have spicy foods now.
- I need to drink plenty of fluids.
Explanation: Answer reason: Post-diverticulitis recovery includes gradually increasing dietary fiber with adequate fluids; current evidence does not require avoidance of seeds or nuts. Spicy foods may be resumed as tolerated.
Which statement by a client with dumping syndrome indicates the need for further teaching?
- I should lie down after I eat my meals.
- I experience weakness and may dizziness.
- I should eat a low-fat, high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
- I should eat small meals and avoid drinking fluids with meals.
Explanation: Answer reason: Management of dumping syndrome includes small frequent meals, fluids between meals, lying down after eating, and a diet high in protein with moderate-to-high fat and low carbohydrates. The statement advocating a low-fat diet is incorrect and indicates need for further teaching.
Which method should the nurse use to most accurately assess the effectiveness of a weight loss program for an obese client?
- Monitor the client's weight.
- Monitor the client's intake and output.
- Calculate the client's daily caloric intake.
- Frequently check the client's serum protein levels.
Explanation: Answer reason: Weight change over time is the direct, objective measure of weight-loss effectiveness. Intake/output reflects fluid balance; calorie calculation and serum proteins estimate intake/nutritional status but do not confirm actual weight loss.
Which nursing intervention is best for preventing aspiration in a client with stroke and dysphagia?
- Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
- Offering liquids and solids together.
- Keeping liquids thinned.
- Placing food on the affected side of the mouth.
Explanation: Answer reason: Upright high Fowler's positioning reduces risk of aspiration during feeding. The other options increase risk: mixing liquids and solids, using thin liquids instead of thickened, and placing food on the affected side after stroke.
What food choices would be best to help meet the dietary needs of a 50-year-old perimenopausal woman with a history of hypertension?
- Cheese and macaroni, fresh fruit, and milk shake
- Cottage cheese, glass of skim milk, and fresh spinach salad
- Roast beef with whole wheat bread, potato, and lettuce salad
- Cheeseburger, french fries, and milk shake
Explanation: Answer reason: Perimenopausal clients benefit from calcium-rich, low-fat foods to protect bone health, and those with hypertension should avoid high-fat, high-sodium choices. Option B provides low-fat dairy and leafy greens, offering calcium and nutrients without fried or high-salt items.
During a health education session, which statement made by a parent of a child with galactosemia indicates the need for further teaching?
- I will ensure my child does not consume milk products.
- I can give my child soy-based formula.
- Fruit juices are safe for my child to drink.
- I need to read labels to avoid hidden sources of lactose.
Explanation: Answer reason: Children with galactosemia must avoid galactose/lactose; milk products are eliminated, soy-based formula is appropriate, and label reading is essential. Assuming all fruit juices are safe reflects misunderstanding because some fruit products may contain galactose or added lactose and are not automatically safe.
Which of the following is NOT included in the nursing care of a patient with dengue fever?
- Provide cold compression
- Provide hydration and electrolyte balance
- Symptomatic treatment is given irrespective of the grade of the disease
- Food rich in vitamin-D should be avoided
Explanation: Answer reason: Nursing care for dengue focuses on symptomatic relief and hydration (e.g., cold sponging, maintaining fluids/electrolytes). There is no recommendation to avoid vitamin D–rich foods; thus option D is not part of standard care.
What is the key dietary advice given for patients with esophageal reflux disease?
- High fiber diet with lots of fluids.
- To take high carbohydrate diet.
- To avoid protein and calcium.
- To avoid caffeine, tobacco, beer, milk and carbonated beverages.
Explanation: Answer reason: GERD management includes avoiding substances that relax the lower esophageal sphincter or increase acid/bloating, such as caffeine, alcohol/beer, tobacco, milk for some patients, and carbonated beverages.
Which nursing action provides the best data for monitoring a patient's therapeutic response to sodium restriction?
- Assessing skin turgor
- Monitor sodium intake
- Measuring pedal edema
- Weighing the patient
Explanation: Answer reason: Daily weight is the most sensitive indicator of fluid balance and thus the best measure of response to sodium restriction, which reduces water retention.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a gastrostomy tube. What is the best method for checking the placement of the tube?
- Auscultating for bowel sounds
- Measuring the length of the tube
- Checking the pH of gastric aspirate
- Observing the client's tolerance to feeding
Explanation: Answer reason: PH testing of gastric aspirate (<~5) is the most reliable bedside method to verify gastric placement; auscultation, tube length, and tolerance to feeding are not dependable indicators.
A 75-year-old patient who is 5 feet 7 inches tall and weighs 170 pounds is admitted with dehydration. A nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity is identified for this patient. Which factor places the client at Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity?
- Pressure ulcer
- Frication
- Dehydration
- Age
Explanation: Answer reason: Dehydration leads to dry, fragile skin with poor turgor, increasing susceptibility to breakdown. A pressure ulcer reflects an existing problem, while friction is not described in the scenario; age is a risk but dehydration is the most direct factor noted for this patient.
Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per serving?
- Cantaloupe
- Avocado
- Raisin
- Banana
Explanation: Answer reason: Avocado provides the most potassium per typical serving (about 975 mg per whole avocado), exceeding amounts in banana, cantaloupe, and raisins.
In a 3 year child, which of the following is the best complimentary feed that can be given to this child?
- Mashed Bananas
- Dal Rice
- Fruit Juice
- Boiled soft carrot
Explanation: Answer reason: A 3-year-old can eat family foods; the best complementary feed is energy- and protein-rich balanced food like dal with rice. The other options provide limited nutrients or energy alone.
A child is on CPAP and is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the best method of feeding the child?
- Breastfeeding
- Nasogastric
- Cup fedding
- IV Fluids
Explanation: Answer reason: On CPAP, oral feeding increases aspiration risk and infants often cannot coordinate suck–swallow–breathe. Since the child is hemodynamically stable, enteral nutrition via a tube is preferred; thus nasogastric feeding is the best option among those listed.
A client is receiving continuous tube feeding. What is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent aspiration during tube feeding?
- Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees
- Administer medications with the feeding tube
- Infuse the feeding at a rapid rate
- Bolus feedings during the day
Explanation: Answer reason: Elevating the head of bed 30–45 degrees during enteral feeding reduces reflux and aspiration risk. Rapid infusion and bolus feedings increase aspiration risk, and administering medications with the feeding is not an aspiration-prevention measure.
A client is diagnosed with acute renal failure. What dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?
- Low protein
- Low sodium
- Low fat
- Low carbohydrates
Explanation: Answer reason: In acute renal failure the kidneys cannot excrete nitrogenous wastes; limiting protein intake reduces urea production and azotemia. Sodium, fat, and carbohydrate restrictions are less central.
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. What dietary intervention is appropriate for managing acute pancreatitis?
- Low-fat diet
- High-fiber diet
- High-protein diet
- Low-carbohydrate diet
Explanation: Answer reason: In acute pancreatitis the goal is to minimize pancreatic stimulation; after NPO the diet is advanced to small, frequent low-fat meals. High fiber, high protein, or low carbohydrate are not primary recommendations.
A client is admitted with chronic kidney disease. What dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize for this client?
- Low-protein diet
- High-sodium diet
- High-potassium diet
- High-phosphorus diet
Explanation: Answer reason: CKD patients require protein restriction to reduce nitrogenous waste and uremic toxins. The other options suggest high sodium, potassium, or phosphorus intake, which would be contraindicated.
Which statement by a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) indicates adequate understanding?
- I should eat right before bedtime.
- I should eat large meals.
- I should sit up after eating.
- I should lie flat after eating.
Explanation: Answer reason: Sitting upright after meals reduces reflux by using gravity; the other statements promote GERD symptoms (late meals, large meals, lying flat).
What dietary recommendation should a nurse provide to a patient experiencing GERD symptoms?
- Increase caffeine consumption
- Include chocolate in the diet
- Limit tomato-based products
- Eat spicy foods
Explanation: Answer reason: Acidic foods like tomato products aggravate GERD, while caffeine, chocolate, and spicy foods can also worsen reflux. Advising limitation of tomato-based products is appropriate.
Which nursing action prevents complications while giving NG feeding?
- Advance tube 2 cm
- Flush with 20 mL of air
- Provide high Fowler’s position
- Plug the air vent during feeding
Explanation: Answer reason: High Fowler’s positioning during NG feeding reduces aspiration risk. Do not arbitrarily advance the tube; flushing with air is not recommended; the air vent on a Salem sump should remain open, not plugged.
Which gift is best for a nurse to recommend for an adult grandparent with Parkinson disease?
- Perfume and makeup.
- Hearing aid with batteries.
- Warming tray for food.
- Quilt and soft pillow.
Explanation: Answer reason: Parkinson disease causes bradykinesia and tremors, making meals take longer and food cool quickly. A warming tray keeps food warm to promote adequate intake and comfort. The other options do not specifically address Parkinson-related needs.
Which food selection should the nurse serve to a client with glomerulonephritis and azotemia?
- Bread and rice
- Dried peaches and apricots
- Bran muffin and eggs
- Apples and cucumbers
Explanation: Answer reason: In azotemia from glomerulonephritis the diet should be low in protein and potassium. Apples and cucumbers are low‑potassium, low‑protein foods. Dried peaches/apricots are high in potassium; bran muffin and eggs add potassium/phosphorus and protein; bread and rice provide more protein/phosphorus than fruit/vegetables.
Which assessment finding raises concern for a child with sickle cell anemia?
- He enjoys playing baseball with the school team.
- He drinks several carbonated drinks per day.
- He requires eight to ten hours of sleep a night.
- He occasionally uses ibuprofen to control minor pain.
Explanation: Answer reason: Frequent soda intake (often caffeinated) increases dehydration risk, which can precipitate vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell disease. The other findings are generally acceptable: moderate sports participation, normal sleep, and occasional ibuprofen use.
What is the best gift to recommend for a grandparent with Parkinson disease?
- Perfume and makeup.
- Hearing aid with batteries.
- Warming tray for food.
- Quilt and soft pillow.
Explanation: Answer reason: Parkinson disease causes bradykinesia and slow eating; a warming tray keeps food warm and palatable, supporting nutrition. The other options don’t address PD-related needs.
Which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for a client with gastrointestinal reflux disease?
- Impaired tissue integrity
- Pain
- Increased infections
- Imbalanced nutrition
Explanation: Answer reason: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) leads to regurgitation of acidic gastric contents into the esophagus, causing irritation, discomfort, and avoidance of certain foods. As a result, clients may experience inadequate nutrient intake or weight loss, making “Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements” the highest priority. While pain and tissue integrity are relevant, maintaining proper nutrition is essential for healing and preventing further complications.
What type of fluid should be offered to a child with leukemia experiencing nausea?
- Cold clear fluid
- Warm clear fluid
- Low protein diet
- Low calorie diet
Explanation: Answer reason: Cold clear liquids are typically better tolerated during nausea because they minimize strong odors and are easier to keep down, helping maintain hydration. Warm liquids and dietary restrictions listed are not appropriate choices for relieving nausea.
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client who has stomatitis?
- Drinking hot tea at frequent intervals
- Gargling with antiseptic mouthwash
- Using electric toothbrush
- Eating soft, bland diet
Explanation: Answer reason: Stomatitis involves inflamed, painful oral mucosa. The priority is to minimize irritation and pain while maintaining nutrition; soft, bland foods are least irritating. Hot beverages, alcohol-containing mouthwash, and potentially abrasive/electric toothbrushes can worsen irritation.
A 72 year-old client is admitted for possible dehydration. The nurse knows that older adults are particularly at risk for dehydration because they have?
- An increased need for extravascular fluid
- A decreased sensation of thirst
- An increased diaphoresis
- A higher metabolic demands
Explanation: Answer reason: Older adults often have a diminished thirst mechanism, leading to reduced fluid intake and higher dehydration risk. The other options do not explain the typical age-related risk.
The nurse is caring for a client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be MOST effective in promoting healing?
- Apply dressing using sterile technique
- Improve the client's nutrition status
- Initiate limb compression therapy
- Begin proteolytic debridement
Explanation: Answer reason: Adequate nutrition, especially sufficient calories and protein, is essential for tissue repair and wound healing; without it, other interventions are less effective.
A 14 month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which of the following lunches is the BEST example of an appropriate meal?
- Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
- Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
- Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
- Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk
Explanation: Answer reason: Post–cleft palate repair diet should be soft/blenderized to avoid trauma to the surgical site; avoid hard, crunchy, or particulate foods. Option B provides only soft foods.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?
- Whole-wheat bread
- Spaghetti
- Hamburger on wheat bun with ketchup
- Cheese omelet
Explanation: Answer reason: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet; wheat products must be avoided. A cheese omelet is gluten-free, whereas the other options contain wheat/gluten.
The nurse is assisting an older adult client with dysphagia during meals. Which intervention is the highest priority to promote safe oral intake?
- Encourage large bites and rapid swallowing
- Place the client in high-Fowler’s position during feeding
- Offer thin liquids to reduce aspiration risk
- Allow the client to self-feed without supervision
Explanation: Answer reason: High-Fowler’s positioning reduces the risk of aspiration by improving airway protection during swallowing. Thin liquids increase aspiration risk, and unsupervised feeding is unsafe for dysphagia.
A client with dehydration secondary to persistent vomiting is prescribed oral rehydration therapy (ORT). Which finding indicates that ORT has been effective?
- Urine output increases to 30 mL/hr
- Serum potassium rises above 5.5 mEq/L
- Capillary refill is greater than 3 seconds
- Mucous membranes remain dry
Explanation: Answer reason: Adequate urine output is a direct indicator of improved hydration status and perfusion. Persistent dry mucosa or prolonged capillary refill indicates ongoing dehydration.
A client with heart failure is on a sodium-restricted diet. What food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- Fresh fruits
- Whole-grain bread
- Canned soup
- Lean meat
Explanation: Answer reason: Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which should be avoided on a sodium-restricted diet. Fresh fruits, whole-grain bread, and lean meat are generally lower in sodium.
A client is admitted with a suspected peptic ulcer. What dietary intervention is appropriate for managing peptic ulcers?
- Spicy foods
- Caffeine-containing beverages
- Regular meals with protein
- High-fiber diet
Explanation: Answer reason: For peptic ulcer disease, advise balanced regular meals with adequate protein for healing while avoiding irritants such as caffeine and spicy foods; high fiber is not specifically indicated.
A client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. What dietary supplement is essential for managing this condition?
- Iron
- Folic acid
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin C
Explanation: Answer reason: Pernicious anemia results from impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor; management requires lifelong vitamin B12 replacement, not iron, folate, or vitamin C.
What is another name for tube feeding through the mouth?
- Gastrofeeding
- Orogastric feeding
- Oral injection
- Nasal drip
Explanation: Answer reason: Tube feeding inserted via the mouth into the stomach is termed orogastric feeding. Other options are incorrect or nonstandard terms.
What is the appropriate position for a patient receiving continuous feeding?
- Supine
- Fowler
- Reverse trendelenburg
- Side lying
Explanation: Answer reason: For continuous enteral feeding the head of bed should be elevated to reduce aspiration risk; Reverse Trendelenburg provides elevation when the patient cannot be flexed at the hips and is the safest single choice listed.
Oral Rehydration Therapy is recommended for which condition?
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- Tetanus
- Cholera
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral rehydration therapy is specifically indicated for acute watery diarrhea to replace fluid and electrolyte losses, as in cholera; the other conditions do not typically require ORT.
A patient with bowlegs and a calcium level of 7.5 mg/100 ml should be instructed to add which of the following foods to their diet?
- Chicken meat
- Egg yolks
- Organ meats
- Whole grains
Explanation: Answer reason: Bowlegs with hypocalcemia suggests vitamin D deficiency (rickets). Egg yolks are a dietary source of vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption and helps correct low calcium.
What should nursing staff encourage a client with osteoporosis to increase in their diet?
- Red meat
- Soft drinks
- Turnip greens
- Enriched grains
Explanation: Answer reason: Clients with osteoporosis need increased calcium and vitamin D. Turnip greens are calcium-rich leafy greens; the other options do not support bone health (soft drinks may worsen calcium loss).
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