Musculoskeletal System Practice Test 4
Musculoskeletal System NCLEX Practice Test
Musculoskeletal System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Musculoskeletal System. This section emphasizes mobility, rehabilitation, and nursing interventions for injury prevention. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 4th part of the Musculoskeletal System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Musculoskeletal System Practice Test 4
Carpals and tarsal's are the example of?
- Flat bone
- Short bone
- Long bone
- Sesamoid bone
- Irregular bone
Explanation: Answer reason: Carpals and tarsals are cube-shaped bones with roughly equal dimensions, classified as short bones.
An immovable joint that holds most skull bones together is?
- Ball & socket joint
- Ellipsoid joint
- Saddle joint
- Sutures
- Hinge joint
Explanation: Answer reason: Sutures are immovable fibrous joints (synarthroses) that connect most bones of the skull.
No ribs and costal cartilages are attached to __________?
- Vertebras
- Manubrium
- Clavical
- Xiphoid process
- Sternum
Explanation: Answer reason: Ribs and their costal cartilages articulate with thoracic vertebrae, the manubrium, and the body of the sternum; the xiphoid process has no rib or costal cartilage attachments.
Sutures of skull classified into which joint type?
- Pivot joints
- Saddle joints
- Condyloid joints
- Fibrous joints
Explanation: Answer reason: Cranial sutures are immovable fibrous joints (synarthroses) where bones are joined by dense connective tissue.
Which bone consist of five rudimentary vertebrae fused together to form a single wedge shaped bone with a forward concavity is?
- Coccyx
- Hip bone
- Sacrum
- Vertebral column
Explanation: Answer reason: The sacrum is formed by fusion of five sacral vertebrae into a wedge-shaped bone with an anterior (forward) concavity. Coccyx has typically four fused vertebrae.
The suture of the vault of the skull and the inferior tibiofibular joints are examples of?
- Cartilaginous joint
- Fibrous joint
- Synovial joint
- Ellipsoid joint
- Saddle joint
Explanation: Answer reason: Skull sutures and the inferior tibiofibular joint are fibrous joints (sutures and syndesmosis, respectively).
Type of highly movable joint is?
- Cartilaginous joint
- Fibrous joint
- Synovial joint
- Ball & socket joint
- Ellipsssoid joint
Explanation: Answer reason: Freely movable joints are synovial (diarthroses). Fibrous are immovable and cartilaginous are slightly movable; ball-and-socket and ellipsoid are subtypes of synovial joints.
The sutures of the vault of the skull and the inferior tibiofibular joints are examples of?
- Cartilaginous joint
- Hinge joint
- Fibrous joint
- Synovial joint
- Saddle joint
Explanation: Answer reason: Cranial sutures and the inferior tibiofibular joint are fibrous joints (sutures and syndesmosis, respectively).
Shaft of the long bone is also called?
- Diaphysis
- Epiphysis
- Metaphysis
- Medullary cavity
- Epiphyseal plate
Explanation: Answer reason: The shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis; epiphyses are the ends, the metaphysis is the flared region near the growth plate, the medullary cavity is the internal space, and the epiphyseal plate is the growth cartilage.
Symphysis Pubis is an example of?
- Diarthrosis
- Fibrous joints
- Primary cartilaginous joints
- Secondary cartilaginous joint
Explanation: Answer reason: The pubic symphysis is a symphysis, a secondary cartilaginous joint composed of fibrocartilage with limited movement; it is not synovial (diarthrosis), fibrous, or a primary cartilaginous (synchondrosis) joint.
Occurs when a part of the body is extended beyond the anatomical position so that the joint angle is greater than 180 degrees?
- Abduction
- Flexion
- Adduction
- Hyperextension
Explanation: Answer reason: Extension of a joint beyond the anatomical position, increasing the angle past 180 degrees, is defined as hyperextension.
_____ is a flexible fiber optic endoscope used to view joint structures and tissues?
- Arthrocentesis
- Arthrogram
- Myelography
- Arthroscopy
Explanation: Answer reason: Arthroscopy uses a fiberoptic endoscope to visualize the interior of a joint. Arthrocentesis is joint aspiration, an arthrogram is contrast imaging of a joint, and myelography images the spinal canal.
______ is an abnormal crunching or grating sound when a joint with roughened articular surfaces moves?
- Muscle cramping
- Bruits
- Crepitus
- Murmur
Explanation: Answer reason: Crepitus describes a grating or crunching sound felt or heard when roughened articular surfaces move against each other; bruits and murmurs are vascular/cardiac sounds, and muscle cramping is a painful contraction, not a sound.
Synovial fluid contains?
- Heparin
- Hyaluronic acid
- Chondroitin sulphate
- Keratin sulphate
Explanation: Answer reason: Synovial fluid is rich in hyaluronic acid from type B synoviocytes, giving it its viscosity and lubricating properties. Chondroitin/keratin sulfates are primarily cartilage matrix components, and heparin is not a normal synovial constituent.
A long strap muscle that extends along the whole length of the anterior abdominal wall is?
- External oblique
- Internal oblique
- Rectus abdominis
- Pyramidalis
- Linea alba
Explanation: Answer reason: Rectus abdominis is a paired long strap muscle running vertically along the entire anterior abdominal wall; the obliques are broad flat muscles, pyramidalis is a small triangular muscle, and linea alba is a tendinous raphe, not a muscle.
Serve to retain the long tendon passing in position preventing these tendon from springing out of place during muscle contraction is?
- Aponeurosis
- Deep fascia
- Superficial fascia
- Retinacula
Explanation: Answer reason: Retinacula are localized thickenings of deep fascia that hold long tendons close to joints, preventing bowstringing during muscle contraction.
Which bones consists of five rudimentary vertebrae fused together to form a single wedge-shaped bone with a forward concavity is?
- Coccyx
- Hip bone
- Sacrum
- Vertebral column
Explanation: Answer reason: The sacrum is formed by fusion of five sacral vertebrae into a single wedge-shaped bone that is concave anteriorly. Coccyx has fewer rudimentary vertebrae and lacks this description.
Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?
- Calcaneus
- Femur
- Symphysis pubis
- Tibia
- Ulna
Explanation: Answer reason: The femur is the thigh bone located between the pelvis (ischium contributes to the hip) and the knee; it lies above the patella and below the ischium.
A thick fibrous membrane covering the surface of bone. It contains blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves called?
- Endosteum
- Medullary cavity
- Periosteum
- Perichondrium
- None of above
Explanation: Answer reason: The periosteum is the dense fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of bones and contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves. Endosteum lines the medullary cavity, and perichondrium covers cartilage.
The bony tissues are present in an interlaced pattern of tissues consisting of an irregular meshwork of intercommunicating bony tubercle called?
- Compact bone tissue
- Spongy bone tissue
- Osteons
- None of the above
- Both A & B
Explanation: Answer reason: Spongy (cancellous) bone is composed of a lattice of intercommunicating trabeculae forming an irregular meshwork, unlike compact bone with osteons.
The bony tissue is present in an interlaced pattern of tissues consisting of an irregular meshwork of intercommunicating bony tubercle called?
- Compact bone tissue
- Spongy bone tissue
- Osteons
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Spongy (cancellous) bone consists of a lattice of interconnecting trabeculae forming an irregular meshwork. Osteons are the structural units of compact bone.
The large opening in the lower part of each hip bone which is bounded by the parts of ischium and pubis is called?
- Obturator foramen
- Greater sciatic notch
- Symphysis pubis
- Lesser sciatic notch
Explanation: Answer reason: The obturator foramen is the large opening in the pelvis formed by the pubis and ischium of each hip bone.
The rigid connective tissue which is a part of the skeleton and it supports and protects the body parts, produces blood cell, stores minerals and enables mobility of the body is called?
- Muscles
- Tendons
- Bones
- Ligaments
Explanation: Answer reason: Bones are the rigid connective tissues that form the skeleton; they support and protect organs, store minerals like calcium and phosphorus, enable movement as levers with muscles, and produce blood cells in marrow.
Which of these statements is true about intramembranous bones_____?
- Skull bones are formed in this way
- They begin with cartilage model
- They formed by mesenchymal condsnsation
- Osteoblast deposit new bones along blood vessels with in layers
Explanation: Answer reason: Intramembranous ossification forms flat bones of the skull directly from mesenchymal tissue and does not start with a cartilage model, making the statement about skull bones correct.
Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?
- Abduction
- Eversion
- Flexion
- Pronation
- Supination
Explanation: Answer reason: Bending the forearm toward the body decreases the angle at the elbow joint, which is flexion.
The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structures?
- Heel
- Lower leg
- Toes
- Thigh
- Pelvis
Explanation: Answer reason: The fibula is the lateral bone of the lower leg; therefore an X-ray of the fibula examines the lower leg.
A patient has an injury to the surgical neck of the humerus; which nerve is most likely damaged?
- Axillary
- Radial
- Median
- Musculocutaneous
Explanation: Answer reason: The axillary nerve runs with the posterior circumflex humeral artery around the surgical neck of the humerus and is commonly injured with fractures at this site.
Which test is used to identify developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?
- Barlow test
- Ortolani test
- Galeazzi sign
- Rovsing’s test
Explanation: Answer reason: The Barlow maneuver screens for developmental dysplasia of the hip by attempting to dislocate an unstable hip in infants. Ortolani reduces a dislocated hip, Galeazzi indicates leg-length discrepancy, and Rovsing’s test pertains to appendicitis.
Which bone is called the beauty bone?
- Clavicle
- Patella
- Fibula
Explanation: Answer reason: The clavicle is popularly referred to as the beauty bone because its visible contour contributes to shoulder and neck aesthetics.
Which muscle injury causes torticollis during delivery?
- Sternocleidomastoid Muscle
- Cardiac Muscle
- Skeletal Muscle
- Smooth Muscle
Explanation: Answer reason: Congenital muscular torticollis commonly results from birth trauma causing hematoma and fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Which bones form the ankle joint?
- Tibia, fibula, talus
- Tibia, fibula, calcaneus
- Talus, calcaneus, navicular
- Tibia, fibula, navicular
Explanation: Answer reason: The talocrural (ankle) joint is formed by the distal tibia and fibula articulating with the talus.
Osteoporosis is a disease of which body system?
- Skin
- Bones
- Brain
- Muscles
Explanation: Answer reason: Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue, making it a disorder of the skeletal (bone) system.
Which test is used to identify developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?
- Barlow test
- Ortolani test
- Galeazzi sign
- Trendelenburg test
Explanation: Answer reason: The Ortolani maneuver screens infants for DDH by abducting and lifting the femoral head to reduce a dislocated hip, producing a palpable clunk when positive. Barlow provokes dislocation, Galeazzi indicates leg-length discrepancy, and Trendelenburg is for hip abductor weakness in older patients.
What is the functional unit of muscle called?
- Myofibril
- Sarcomere
- Sarcolemma
- Actin
Explanation: Answer reason: The sarcomere, defined from Z line to Z line, is the basic contractile unit of striated muscle. Myofibrils are chains of sarcomeres; the sarcolemma is the muscle cell membrane; actin is a thin filament protein.
How many bones make up the pelvis bone?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Explanation: Answer reason: The hip (pelvic) bone is formed by the fusion of three bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
What is the backbone made of?
- Femur
- Ribs
- Vertebrae
- Clavicle
Explanation: Answer reason: The backbone (spine) consists of a series of bones called vertebrae, not the femur, ribs, or clavicle.
What is the strongest and longest bone in the human body?
- Fibula
- Humerus
- Tibia
- Femur
Explanation: Answer reason: The femur is the thigh bone; it is both the longest and the strongest bone in the human body, bearing significant body weight.
Where is the tibia bone found?
- Skull
- Face
- Arm
- Legs
Explanation: Answer reason: The tibia is the shinbone, a major long bone of the lower leg; therefore it is found in the legs.
Which bone is also known as the knee cap?
- Fibula
- Tibia
- Femur
- Patella
Explanation: Answer reason: The kneecap is the patella, a sesamoid bone located anterior to the knee joint.
Which bone in the human skeletal system is known as the 'Beauty Bone'?
- Clavicle
- Sternum
- Zygoma
- Mandible
Explanation: Answer reason: The clavicle is commonly referred to as the 'beauty bone' due to its visible prominence at the base of the neck.
What is a sprain?
- A muscle sprain
- A ligament injury
- A bone fracture
- A tendon injury
Explanation: Answer reason: A sprain is damage to ligaments that support a joint; strains involve muscles or tendons and fractures involve bone.
What does osteophyte formation in osteoarthritis (OA) refer to?
- Joint erosion
- New bone growth at joint margin
- Muscle wasting
- Ligament rupture
Explanation: Answer reason: Osteophytes are bony outgrowths (bone spurs) that develop at the margins of joints in osteoarthritis.
A pubic symphysis connects which two bones?
- Hip bones
- Femurs
- Sacrum and ilium
- Ischium and pubis
Explanation: Answer reason: The pubic symphysis is a fibrocartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones, which are the anterior parts of the hip bones.
What is osteoporosis?
- Bone disease
- Heart disease
- Brain disease
- Lung disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Osteoporosis is a disorder of the bones characterized by decreased bone mass and increased fragility, making it a bone disease.
What is the name of the bone that protects the lungs?
- Patella
- Rib cage
- Skull
- Femur
Explanation: Answer reason: The lungs are protected by the thoracic cage (rib cage); patella is the kneecap, skull protects the brain, and femur is the thigh bone.
Which part connects bones and muscles?
- Ligaments
- Tendons
- Cartilage
Explanation: Answer reason: Tendons connect muscle to bone; ligaments connect bone to bone and cartilage cushions joints.
How many metacarpal bones are in one hand?
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
Explanation: Answer reason: Each hand has five metacarpal bones—one for each digit—connecting the carpal bones to the proximal phalanges.
Which is the longest bone in the human body?
- Humerus
- Tibia
- Femur
- Fibula
Explanation: Answer reason: The femur (thigh bone) is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, longer than the tibia, fibula, or humerus.
A deltoid ridge is present in which bone?
- Femur
- Ulna
- Radius
- Humerus
Explanation: Answer reason: The deltoid ridge (deltoid tuberosity) is a roughened area on the lateral shaft of the humerus where the deltoid muscle inserts; it is not found on the femur, ulna, or radius.
Which structure, made of connective tissue, connects muscles to other muscles?
- Fascia
- Tendons
- Cartilage
- Ligaments
Explanation: Answer reason: Fascia is a fibrous connective tissue that surrounds and connects muscles to other muscles. Tendons connect muscle to bone, and ligaments connect bone to bone; cartilage does not connect muscles.
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