Musculoskeletal System Practice Test 5
Musculoskeletal System NCLEX Practice Test
Musculoskeletal System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Musculoskeletal System. This section emphasizes mobility, rehabilitation, and nursing interventions for injury prevention. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 5th part of the Musculoskeletal System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Musculoskeletal System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Musculoskeletal System Practice Test 5
Which term is defined as an immovable joint?
- Diarthrosis
- Articulations
- Synarthrosis
- Amphiarthrosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Synarthrosis refers to joints that are immovable, such as cranial sutures. Diarthrosis are freely movable and amphiarthrosis are slightly movable; articulations is a general term for joints.
Which mineral makes bones too strong?
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Zinc
- Calcium
Explanation: Answer reason: Calcium is the principal mineral of bone (as hydroxyapatite), providing hardness and strength.
Which of the following is the known bone-forming cell?
- Fibrinoblasts
- Osteocytes
- Osteoclasts
- Osteoblasts
Explanation: Answer reason: Osteoblasts are the bone-forming cells that synthesize osteoid and mineralize bone. Osteoclasts resorb bone, osteocytes are mature maintenance cells, and fibroblasts form connective tissue rather than bone.
Which part of the skull is the sphenoid bone?
- Temporal bone
- Occipital bone
- Parietal bone
- Sphenoid bone
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the listed cranial bones, the correct identification of the sphenoid is simply the option labeled Sphenoid bone.
Why are older adults more prone to developing hip fractures?
- Decreased bone density
- Sedentary lifestyle
- Weakness in them
- Age
Explanation: Answer reason: Elderly individuals commonly develop osteoporosis with reduced bone mineral density, making hip fractures more likely even with minor trauma. Other options are nonspecific.
What is the largest bone of the body?
- Humerus
- Fumer
- Ulna
- Radius
Explanation: Answer reason: The femur is the largest and strongest bone in the human body; the humerus, ulna, and radius are smaller bones of the upper limb.
What is the total number of bones in an adult human body?
- 80
- 206
- 202
- 106
Explanation: Answer reason: An adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones: 80 axial and 126 appendicular.
Which type of joint is found in the shoulder?
- Hinge joint
- Ball and socket joint
- Pivot joint
- Saddle joint
Explanation: Answer reason: The shoulder (glenohumeral) joint is a synovial ball-and-socket joint, allowing multiaxial movement including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation.
Inflammation of joints due to the accumulation of uric acid crystals occurs in which condition?
- Osteoporosis
- Gout
- Tetany
- Rickets
Explanation: Answer reason: Deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints leads to inflammatory arthritis characteristic of gout.
How many bones does the human skeleton consist of?
- 300 bones
- 306 bones
- 206 bones
- 203 bones
Explanation: Answer reason: An adult human skeleton contains 206 bones; higher counts apply to infants before fusion.
Which is the only long bone in the human body that is situated horizontally?
- Scapula Bone
- Tibia Bone
- Clavicle Bone
- None of above
Explanation: Answer reason: The clavicle is the only long bone that lies horizontally, forming the anterior part of the shoulder girdle.
How is the knee joint classified?
- Ball and socket joint
- Pivot joint
- Hinge joint
- Condyloid joint
Explanation: Answer reason: The knee is a modified hinge synovial joint permitting flexion and extension with slight rotation, not a ball-and-socket, pivot, or condyloid joint.
The tibia is a bone found in which part of the body?
- Skull
- Face
- Arm
- Leg
Explanation: Answer reason: The tibia is the shin bone located in the lower leg.
Cells which synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components needed to build the extracellular matrix of bone tissue is called?
- Osteoclast
- Osteoblast
- Osteocytes
- Monocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: Osteoblasts synthesize and secrete osteoid (collagen type I and other organic matrix) to build bone. Osteoclasts resorb bone and osteocytes are mature maintenance cells.
What is the most serious complication of a bone fracture?
- Fat embolism
- Haemorrhage
- Septicaemia
- Hypertension
Explanation: Answer reason: Fat embolism syndrome after fractures—especially long-bone fractures—can rapidly cause respiratory failure and death, making it the most serious complication compared with hemorrhage, sepsis, or hypertension.
What is the total number of vertebrae in a human?
- 24
- 26
- 33
- 30
Explanation: Answer reason: Humans have 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused), and 4 coccygeal (fused).
What is the muscle of injection in the shoulder called?
- Bicep Muscle
- Deltoid Muscle
- Tricep Brachial Muscle
Explanation: Answer reason: The standard intramuscular injection site in the shoulder is the deltoid muscle.
A client is admitted with a Ewing’s sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor’s location?
- Hemiplegia
- Aphasia
- Nausea
- Bone pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Ewing’s sarcoma is a primary malignant bone tumor; its location in bone typically causes localized bone pain. Neurologic deficits like hemiplegia or aphasia indicate brain involvement, and nausea is nonspecific.
Which of the following is an example of a synarthrosis joint?
- Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
- Wrist joints
- Hip joints
- Elbow joint
Explanation: Answer reason: Synarthroses are immovable fibrous joints; skull sutures are classic examples. Wrist, hip, and elbow are synovial diarthroses with significant movement.
What is the place where two or more bones meet called?
- Joint
- Marrow
- Calcium
- Nail
Explanation: Answer reason: A joint is the location where two or more bones meet; marrow is tissue inside bones, calcium is a mineral, and a nail is a keratin structure.
What is the most common nerve injured in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus?
- Median
- Radial
- Ulnar
- Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation: Answer reason: In supracondylar humerus fractures (typically extension type), the most frequently injured nerve is the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve.
Which type of joint is seen in the growth plate?
- Primary cartilaginous
- Secondary cartilaginous
- Fibrous joint
- Plane Joint
Explanation: Answer reason: The epiphyseal (growth) plate is a synchondrosis composed of hyaline cartilage, which is classified as a primary cartilaginous joint.
Which disease presents Gowers sign?
- Hip dislocation
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation: Answer reason: Gowers' sign—using hands to push on thighs to stand—reflects proximal muscle weakness, classically seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Which type of joint is present in the elbow?
- Pivot
- Saddle
- Hinge
- Condyle
Explanation: Answer reason: The primary elbow joint (humeroulnar) is a synovial hinge joint that permits flexion and extension.
Which is the strongest skeletal muscle?
- Gluteus muscle
- Stapedius muscle
- Sartorius muscle
- Masseter
Explanation: Answer reason: The masseter jaw muscle can generate the greatest force (bite force) among skeletal muscles; gluteus maximus is largest, stapedius is smallest, and sartorius is longest.
What is the process of bone formation called?
- Calcification
- Chondrification
- Decalcification
- Ossification
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone formation is termed ossification (osteogenesis). Calcification is deposition of calcium salts, chondrification is cartilage formation, and decalcification is removal of calcium.
A 70 year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency room for a wrist fracture with no known precipitating cause. In assessing the client, the nurse identifies which of the following as related to risk factors for osteoporosis?
- Reports late menarche and menopause
- Takes steroids for arthritis
- Maintains an active lifestyle
- Continues on estrogen replacement
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic glucocorticoid use accelerates bone resorption and decreases bone formation, increasing osteoporosis risk. The other options are generally protective or not clear risks.
What type of bone is the sternum classified as?
- Flat bone
- Long bone
- Irregular bone
- Sesamoid bone
Explanation: Answer reason: The sternum is a flat bone, providing protection for thoracic organs and broad surfaces for muscle attachment.
How many pairs of intercostal muscles are in the human body?
- 7 pair
- 12 pair
- 11 pair
- 10 pair
Explanation: Answer reason: There are 12 ribs forming 11 intercostal spaces; the intercostal muscles occupy these spaces, giving 11 pairs.
How many bones does the adult human body consist of?
- 620 bones
- 206 bones
- 602 bones
- 026 bones
Explanation: Answer reason: The adult human skeleton is composed of 206 bones. The other options are incorrect numerical values.
How are bones classified according to size and shape?
- Spongy
- Compact
- Only short and long
- Flat, short, long, irregular bones
Explanation: Answer reason: Bone classification by shape includes long, short, flat, and irregular bones; spongy and compact describe tissue types, and only short and long is incomplete.
What type of joint is the shoulder joint?
- Ball and socket
- Hinge
- Pivot
- Fibrous
Explanation: Answer reason: The shoulder (glenohumeral) joint is a synovial ball-and-socket joint, allowing multiaxial movement.
Which bone is located at the base of the vertebral column?
- Coccyx
- Cranium
- Manubrium
- Sacrum
Explanation: Answer reason: The coccyx (tailbone) is the terminal bone at the inferior end of the vertebral column; cranium and manubrium are cranial/sternal bones, and the sacrum lies just above the coccyx.
A joint is also known as an?
- Cartilage
- Articulation
- Cartilaginous
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: The anatomical term for a joint is an articulation; cartilage is connective tissue and cartilaginous describes a type of joint, not the general term.
Which pelvis bone is oval shaped?
- Platypelloid pelvis
- Gynacoid pelvis
- Android pelvis
- Anthropoid pelvis
Explanation: Answer reason: The gynecoid (female) pelvis has a rounded to slightly oval pelvic inlet; android is heart-shaped, anthropoid is AP-oval, and platypelloid is transversely oval/flat.
What is the medical term for the kneecap?
- Humerus
- Patella
- Clavicle
- Radius
Explanation: Answer reason: The kneecap is anatomically called the patella; humerus is the upper arm bone, clavicle the collarbone, and radius a forearm bone.
What type of joint is found in the shoulder?
- Gliding
- Fixed
- Ball and Socket
- Round
Explanation: Answer reason: The shoulder (glenohumeral) joint is a synovial ball-and-socket joint allowing multi-axial movement.
Which muscle is called the kissing muscle?
- Frontalis
- Orbicularis oculi
- Orbicularis oris
- Temporalis
Explanation: Answer reason: Orbicularis oris encircles the mouth and puckers the lips, the action used in kissing. Frontalis raises eyebrows, orbicularis oculi closes eyelids, and temporalis is a muscle of mastication.
This muscle originates from medial epicondyle of humerus and coronoid process of ulna. It is inserted in middle phalanx of medial four fingers. Its function is to flex the middle phalanx of fingers and it assists in flexing the proximal phalanx and hand?
- Flexor carpi ulnaris
- Flexor carpi radialis
- Flexor digitorum superficialis
- Flexor pollicislongus
Explanation: Answer reason: The described origin (medial epicondyle and coronoid process), insertion on the middle phalanges of the medial four fingers, and action of flexing the PIP joints with assistance in MCP and wrist flexion match flexor digitorum superficialis. FCU and FCR insert on carpal/metacarpal sites and act on the wrist; FPL acts on the thumb.
A patient presented to physiotherapy OPD with unable to perform extension, adduction and medial rotation. After assessment you came to know the muscle involved is the largest muscle of back. The nerve supplying this muscle arises from posterior cord of brachial plexus. Name the nerve?
- Thoracodorsal nerve
- Subscapular nerves
- Radial nerve
- Axillary nerve
Explanation: Answer reason: The actions listed (shoulder extension, adduction, medial rotation) indicate latissimus dorsi, the largest back muscle. Its innervation is the thoracodorsal (middle subscapular) nerve from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.
A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?
- Closed, greenstick
- Complex, comminuted
- Compound, transverse
- Open, spiral
- Simple, pathologic
Explanation: Answer reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone bends with partial break, and intact skin indicates a closed fracture.
The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room following a leg injury. X-rays show that there is a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The nurse should be aware that at this age, the injury MOST likely will?
- Heal quickly because of thin periosteum
- Result in retarded bone growth
- Stimulate bone growth in the affected leg
- Show more rapid union than that of a younger child
Explanation: Answer reason: Epiphyseal (growth plate) fractures in children can damage the growth plate, leading to growth disturbance and limb-length discrepancy; thus retarded bone growth is most likely.
What is the name of the atlas used for calculating skeletal age?
- Marshall and Hughs
- Bayley-Pinneau
- Greulich-Pyle
- Ferry-Gallway
Explanation: Answer reason: Greulich and Pyle created the standard radiographic atlas of the hand and wrist used to estimate skeletal (bone) age; the other options are not atlases for this purpose.
Which muscle is referred to as the second heart of the body?
- Sertoli muscle
- Deltoid muscle
- Kalf muscle
- Gluteal muscle
Explanation: Answer reason: The calf muscles, particularly the soleus, act as a peripheral venous pump that helps return blood to the heart, earning the name 'second heart.
The patella, known as the knee cap, is an example of which type of bone?
- Humor bone
- Synovial bone
- Sesamoid bone
- Leg bone
Explanation: Answer reason: The patella is the largest sesamoid bone, formed within the quadriceps tendon to improve leverage and protect the joint.
How many bones are in the upper limb of the human body?
- 206 bones
- 103 bones
- 60 bones
- 64 bones
Explanation: Answer reason: Each upper limb including the pectoral girdle has 32 bones; both upper limbs together total 64 bones.
Which muscle is a deep muscle in the pelvic cavity?
- Vaginal orifice
- Urethral orifice
- Ischio cavernous
- Pubo coccygeal
Explanation: Answer reason: The pubococcygeus (part of the levator ani) forms the pelvic diaphragm, a deep pelvic floor muscle. The vaginal and urethral orifices are openings, and ischiocavernosus is a superficial perineal muscle.
The femur is located in the?
- Arm
- Chest
- Leg
- Head
Explanation: Answer reason: The femur is the thigh bone, the longest and strongest bone in the human body. It extends from the hip to the knee, forming the proximal hip joint and distal knee joint. Therefore, it is located in the leg (specifically the thigh).
Rickets is a disease of the?
- Bones
- Tissue
- Muscles
- Blood
Explanation: Answer reason: Rickets results from defective mineralization of growing bone, most often due to vitamin D deficiency. This leads to soft, weak bones with deformities such as bowing of the legs and delayed growth. The pathology primarily involves the skeletal system rather than muscles, blood, or generic tissues.
The shoulder and hip joints are of ______ type?
- Saddle
- Pivot
- Gliding
- Ball and socket
Explanation: Answer reason: Both the shoulder (glenohumeral) and hip (acetabulofemoral) are synovial ball-and-socket joints, where a spherical head fits into a cup-like socket. This structure allows multiaxial motion including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction. Saddle joints are exemplified by the thumb carpometacarpal joint, pivot joints by the atlantoaxial joint, and gliding joints occur between carpal bones.
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