Immunology Practice Test 4
Immunology NCLEX Practice Test
Immunology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Immunology. This section covers immune defense, hypersensitivity, and immunotherapy monitoring within nursing scope. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 4th part of the Immunology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Immunology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Immunology Practice Test 4
In Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive fetus, hemolytic disease of newborn occurs due to:
- IgA antibodies
- IgG antibodies
- IgM antibodies
- Complement activation
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemolytic disease of the newborn in Rh incompatibility is caused when an Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized and produces anti-D IgG antibodies. IgG is the immunoglobulin class that can cross the placenta and bind fetal Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. IgM does not cross the placenta, and IgA is primarily mucosal and not responsible for this condition. Complement activation may occur secondary to antibody binding, but the key pathogenic factor is transplacental IgG. Category reason: The question tests antibody class and placental transfer in Rh isoimmunization, which is a core concept of immune mechanisms rather than nursing interventions.
Antibodies are present in?
- Plasma
- Platelets
- RBC
- WBC
Explanation: Answer reason: Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are soluble proteins that circulate primarily in the plasma fraction of blood. They are produced by plasma cells (differentiated B lymphocytes) and then secreted into plasma and other body fluids to bind antigens. RBCs and platelets do not contain antibodies, and while WBCs can produce them, the antibodies themselves are found circulating in plasma. Category reason: The item tests where immunoglobulins are found in blood, which is a basic concept of immune components and their distribution, fitting Immunology rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
The most common infectious disease associated with lymphocytopenia is?
- AIDS
- Influenza
- Tuberculosis
- Viral hepatitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Lymphocytopenia is classically associated with HIV infection because the virus targets and destroys CD4+ T-lymphocytes, leading to a reduced lymphocyte count and progressive cellular immunodeficiency. Among the listed infections, AIDS (advanced HIV disease) is most strongly and commonly linked to persistent lymphocyte depletion. Influenza and viral hepatitis more often cause transient changes in leukocyte subsets rather than characteristic, sustained lymphocytopenia. Tuberculosis can be associated with immune dysregulation, but it is not the most common infectious cause of lymphocytopenia compared with HIV/AIDS. Category reason: This question tests the relationship between an infectious disease and a specific immune cell abnormality (lymphocytopenia), which is a core concept of immune system function and immune deficiency.
A 14-year-old, male patient has some general concerns about eczema, as his twin brother was recently diagnosed with this condition. The patient reports urticaria and a rash on his posterior knees bilaterally. The three factors that put the patient at risk for eczema are a family history of eczema, a personal history of allergic rhinitis, and a history of?
- Asthma
- Bee allergy
- Otitis media
- Psoriasis
Explanation: Answer reason: Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is strongly associated with the atopic triad: eczema, allergic rhinitis, and asthma, reflecting a shared IgE-mediated/allergic predisposition. A family history of eczema plus the patient’s allergic rhinitis increases the likelihood of underlying atopy. Among the options, asthma is the classic comorbid atopic condition that completes this triad and is therefore the most relevant additional risk factor. Bee allergy, otitis media, and psoriasis are not core components of the atopic triad for eczema risk. Category reason: This question tests recognition of the atopic triad and allergic predisposition underlying eczema risk factors, which is primarily an immunologic concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Allergy is test by a?
- MRI
- CBC
- ECG
- Skin prick test
Explanation: Answer reason: The skin prick test is a standard diagnostic test for IgE-mediated (type I) hypersensitivity and helps identify specific allergen triggers by producing a localized wheal-and-flare reaction. MRI and ECG do not assess allergic sensitization. A CBC may show nonspecific findings like eosinophilia but does not confirm allergy or identify the causative allergen, making the skin prick test the best answer. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of immunologic diagnostic methods for hypersensitivity/allergy rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it best fits Immunology.
The antibody which can pass the placenta?
- Ig M
- Ig G
- Ig D
- Ig E
Explanation: Answer reason: IgG is the only major immunoglobulin class that is actively transported across the placenta via Fc receptors (FcRn) on placental cells, especially during the third trimester. This maternal IgG provides passive immunity to the fetus/newborn against pathogens the mother has immunity to. IgM is too large (pentamer) to cross the placenta, and IgE/IgD do not significantly cross the placenta in clinically relevant amounts. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of immunoglobulin classes and placental transfer mechanisms, which is a core topic in Immunology rather than nursing intervention or clinical prioritization.
Type 1 hypersensitivity occurs due to ________.
- Ig A
- Ig D
- Ig M
- Ig E
Explanation: Answer reason: Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies bound to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to an allergen, cross-linking of surface IgE triggers degranulation and release of histamine and other mediators. This leads to rapid allergic manifestations such as urticaria, allergic rhinitis, asthma, or anaphylaxis. Therefore, IgE is the key immunoglobulin responsible. Category reason: The question tests the immunologic mechanism underlying a hypersensitivity reaction (antibody class involved), which is foundational Immunology rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.
Arthritis is a disease of...?
- Immune system
- Liver
- Skin
- Lungs
Explanation: Answer reason: Many common forms of inflammatory arthritis (especially rheumatoid arthritis) are autoimmune disorders in which the immune system inappropriately targets synovial tissues, producing chronic inflammation, pain, and joint damage. This immune-mediated mechanism distinguishes it from primary diseases of organs like the liver, lungs, or skin. While osteoarthritis is largely degenerative, the MCQ’s best general match among the provided options is the immune system. Category reason: The item tests foundational understanding of disease mechanisms (autoimmunity/inflammation) rather than nursing interventions, prioritization, or safety decisions, so it belongs to Immunology within NursingScience.
A young girl has history of SOB & wheezing. Investigations reveal C1 deficiency & she lacks an esterase required by the body. Most likely diagnosis is?
- Myeloperoxidase deficiency
- Angioedema
- SLE
Explanation: Answer reason: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes hereditary angioedema due to unregulated activation of the complement and kallikrein-kinin pathways, leading to increased bradykinin. This results in recurrent episodes of nonpruritic swelling that can involve the airway and present with shortness of breath and wheezing/stridor. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a neutrophil killing defect and does not explain C1 inhibitor loss. SLE can affect complement levels but is not characterized by congenital C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency. Category reason: The question tests knowledge of complement regulation and the clinical syndrome caused by C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, which is a core topic in Immunology rather than nursing management.
Which antibody is most abundant in blood?
- IgG
- IgA
- IgM
- IgE
Explanation: Answer reason: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in serum, comprising the largest proportion of circulating antibodies. It is the primary antibody of the secondary (memory) immune response and provides long-term systemic protection. IgG can cross the placenta, contributing to passive immunity in the newborn. In contrast, IgA predominates in mucosal secretions, IgM is the first produced in acute primary responses, and IgE is present in very low concentrations and is associated with allergy and parasitic defense. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of immunoglobulin classes and their relative abundance in blood, which is a core topic in Immunology rather than nursing interventions or clinical decision-making.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the observed clinical manifestations of facial swelling, itching, and hypotension after a bee sting, as seen in a patient who presented to the emergency department?
- IgA-immunoglobulin A
- IgE – Immunoglobulin E
- IgM – Immunoglobulin M
- IgG – immunoglobulin G
Explanation: Answer reason: Facial swelling, itching, and hypotension after a bee sting are classic features of an immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction, including anaphylaxis. Type I reactions are mediated by allergen-specific IgE bound to mast cells and basophils. Re-exposure triggers IgE cross-linking and rapid degranulation with histamine and other mediators, causing pruritus/urticaria, angioedema, vasodilation, and capillary leak leading to hypotension. IgA, IgM, and IgG are not the primary immunoglobulins driving mast-cell–mediated anaphylaxis. Category reason: This question tests the immunologic mechanism (immunoglobulin class) underlying an immediate allergic reaction/anaphylaxis, which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Immunology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.
An anaphylactic reaction depends on the antibody:
- IgG
- IgA
- IgM
- IgE
Explanation: Answer reason: Anaphylaxis is a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies. IgE binds to high-affinity receptors on mast cells and basophils; re-exposure to the allergen cross-links IgE and triggers rapid degranulation. This releases histamine and other mediators, causing bronchospasm, vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and potentially shock. IgG, IgA, and IgM are involved in other immune functions but are not the primary mediators of classic anaphylaxis. Category reason: The question tests foundational immune mechanisms and the specific immunoglobulin class responsible for type I hypersensitivity, which is a core topic in Immunology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.
In the epidemiological triad, an increase in herd immunity primarily affects which component?
- Agent
- Host
- Environment
- Vector
Explanation: Answer reason: The epidemiological triad consists of agent, host, and environment (with vectors sometimes considered part of transmission/environmental factors). Herd immunity reflects an increased level of immunity in the population, which decreases the number of susceptible individuals. This primarily modifies the host component by increasing host resistance and reducing transmission opportunities for the agent. It does not directly change the agent’s properties or the physical environment. Category reason: The question tests understanding of herd immunity and how population immunity alters susceptibility within the agent-host-environment framework, which is a core concept in Immunology.
Thymus gland is related to?
- Immunity
- Growth
- Digestion
- Vision
Explanation: Answer reason: The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ essential for immune system development, especially T-lymphocyte maturation and selection. It secretes thymic hormones (e.g., thymosin) that support T-cell differentiation. Its activity is greatest in childhood and it involutes after puberty, but its key role remains immune function rather than growth, digestion, or vision. Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of the thymus as an immune organ involved in T-cell maturation, which is a core concept in Immunology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination?
- IgG
- IgA
- IgM
- IgE
Explanation: Answer reason: IgM is the most efficient immunoglobulin at agglutination because it is secreted primarily as a pentamer, providing high valency (multiple antigen-binding sites) for cross-linking particles. This multimeric structure allows rapid and strong clumping of antigens (e.g., red cells or bacteria). In contrast, IgG is monomeric and less effective at direct agglutination, while IgA is mainly mucosal/secretory and IgE is associated with allergic and parasitic responses rather than agglutination. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of antibody classes and their functional properties (e.g., pentameric IgM and agglutination), which is an Immunology concept rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.
Colostrum is rich in which of the following?
- Water
- Fat
- Immunoglobins
- Carbohydrates
Explanation: Answer reason: Colostrum (the first milk produced postpartum) is especially rich in immunologic components, particularly secretory IgA, along with other antibodies and immune factors that provide passive mucosal protection to the newborn. Compared with mature milk, colostrum is lower in fat and lactose and is produced in small volumes but with high immune concentration. Therefore, among the options, immunoglobulins are the best answer. Category reason: This question tests the composition and immune function of colostrum (antibody content and passive immunity), which is a core concept of Immunology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Which blood component helps in immunity?
- Plasma
- RBC
- WBC
- Platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: White blood cells (WBCs) are the primary cellular components of the immune system, providing defense through phagocytosis, antibody production, and cell-mediated immunity. Different WBC types (neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils) have specialized roles in fighting infections and coordinating immune responses. RBCs mainly carry oxygen, platelets are for clotting, and plasma is the fluid medium that carries proteins (including antibodies) but is not the main cellular immune component. Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of which blood component is responsible for immune function, which is a core concept of the immune system and blood cellular components rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.
Vaccination is?
- Natural active immunity
- Natural passive immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccination introduces an antigen (e.g., weakened/inactivated organism or antigenic component) to stimulate the person’s own immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells. Because the immunity is induced by a medical intervention, it is artificial. Because the body generates its own immune response rather than receiving preformed antibodies, it is active immunity. Passive immunity would involve giving antibodies directly (e.g., immunoglobulin), not a vaccine. Category reason: This question tests classification of types of immunity and how vaccines generate immune protection, which is a foundational concept in Immunology rather than a nursing action/prioritization scenario.
Which therapy uses patient's own immune system against cancer?
- Radiotherapy
- Chemotherapy
- Immunotherapy
- Surgery
Explanation: Answer reason: Immunotherapy works by activating or modifying the patient’s immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells (e.g., checkpoint inhibitors, CAR-T therapy, cytokines). In contrast, chemotherapy uses cytotoxic drugs to kill rapidly dividing cells, and radiotherapy uses ionizing radiation to damage tumor DNA. Surgery removes the tumor physically rather than leveraging immune mechanisms. Therefore, immunotherapy is the only option that directly uses the patient’s immune system against cancer. Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of how different cancer treatment modalities work, specifically therapies that harness immune mechanisms, which belongs to Immunology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.
Antibodies are basically?
- Proteins
- Sugars
- Fats
- Vitamins
Explanation: Answer reason: Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are glycoproteins produced by plasma cells (differentiated B lymphocytes). Their core structure is protein (two heavy and two light chains) that enables specific antigen binding and immune effector functions. Although they can be glycosylated, they are classified fundamentally as proteins rather than sugars, fats, or vitamins. Category reason: This question tests basic composition and classification of antibodies (immunoglobulins), which is foundational immune system knowledge and fits best under Immunology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Clumping of cells is known as _____?
- Clotting
- Mutation
- Agglutination
- Glutathione
Explanation: Answer reason: Clumping of cells (classically red blood cells or bacteria) due to antibody-mediated cross-linking is termed agglutination. This is a key principle in immunohematology and serologic testing (e.g., blood typing), where antigen–antibody interactions cause visible cell clumps. “Clotting” refers to the coagulation cascade forming fibrin to stop bleeding, not cell clumping from antigen-antibody binding. Mutation and glutathione are unrelated to this phenomenon. Category reason: The item tests the scientific term for antibody/antigen-mediated cell clumping, a core concept in immune reactions and serology, which fits Immunology rather than nursing clinical decision-making.
The immunity that is transferred from the material antibodies to fetus transplacentally and to infant through breast milk to protect them till their own immune system matures to function is a kind of?
- Innate immunity
- Acquired immunity
- Active immunity
- Passive immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Maternal IgG crosses the placenta to provide the fetus with ready-made antibodies, and breast milk (especially colostrum) provides IgA for mucosal protection. Because the infant receives preformed antibodies rather than producing them through their own immune response, this is passive immunity. Passive immunity provides immediate but temporary protection and does not generate immunologic memory, unlike active immunity. Category reason: This question tests the type and mechanism of antibody-mediated immunity transfer (placenta and breast milk), which is a core concept in Immunology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Maturation of T-cell lymphocytes takes place at...
- Thyroid
- Thymus
- Trachea
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: T lymphocytes originate from bone marrow progenitors but undergo maturation and selection (positive and negative selection) in the thymus. This thymic education ensures functional T-cell receptors while promoting self-tolerance to reduce autoimmunity. The thyroid, trachea, and liver are not primary lymphoid organs responsible for T-cell maturation. Category reason: The item tests where immune cells (T lymphocytes) mature, which is a core concept in Immunology involving primary lymphoid organs and adaptive immune development.
Anaphylactic shock is due to?
- Trauma
- Severe infection
- Allergic reaction
- Heart failure
Explanation: Answer reason: Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening systemic hypersensitivity reaction, most often IgE-mediated, triggered by exposure to an allergen (e.g., foods, medications, insect stings). Massive mast-cell/basophil mediator release (histamine, leukotrienes) causes vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and bronchoconstriction, leading to hypotension and airway compromise. Trauma more typically causes hypovolemic shock, severe infection causes septic shock, and heart failure leads to cardiogenic shock. Category reason: The question tests the underlying mechanism/etiology of a shock type (anaphylaxis as a hypersensitivity reaction), which is a foundational immune-pathophysiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
WBC helps in...
- Tongue
- Clotting
- Immune system
- Eye disease
Explanation: Answer reason: White blood cells (leukocytes) are key components of the immune system and defend the body against pathogens. They participate in innate and adaptive immune responses through functions such as phagocytosis, antibody production, and coordination of inflammation. Clotting is primarily mediated by platelets and coagulation factors, not WBCs. The other options do not describe a primary function of WBCs. Category reason: The question tests the biological function of white blood cells and their role in host defense, which is core content of Immunology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Antibodies are?
- Proteins
- Fats
- Sugars
- Hormones
Explanation: Answer reason: Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are glycoprotein proteins produced by B lymphocytes/plasma cells as part of the adaptive immune response. Their structure includes heavy and light polypeptide chains that form antigen-binding sites. They function by neutralizing pathogens/toxins, opsonizing microbes, and activating complement. They are not primarily fats, sugars, or hormones, even though they can be glycosylated. Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of what antibodies are made of and their basic nature, which is a core concept in Immunology rather than a nursing care decision.
Q. Antigens are..?
- Substances that stimulate production of antibody
- Substances that destroy antibody
- Substances that provide immunity
- Substances which are used for sterilisation
Explanation: Answer reason: An antigen is any substance recognized as foreign by the immune system that can trigger an immune response, including activation of B cells and subsequent antibody production. This is the defining functional property of antigens in adaptive immunity. The other options describe outcomes or unrelated processes (immunity itself or sterilization) rather than what an antigen is. Category reason: The question tests the definition of an antigen and its role in initiating antibody-mediated immune responses, which is a core concept in Immunology rather than a nursing care intervention.
HUMORAL IMMUNITY IS MEDIATED BY...............?
- ANTIBODY
- ANTIGEN
- ANTIBIOTICS
- NONE
- ALL
Explanation: Answer reason: Humoral immunity is the antibody-mediated arm of adaptive immunity, driven primarily by B lymphocytes differentiating into plasma cells that secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins). These antibodies circulate in body fluids (“humors”) to neutralize pathogens, opsonize them, and activate complement. Antigens trigger the response, but the mediators/effectors of humoral immunity are antibodies, not antibiotics. Category reason: The question tests foundational immune system concepts about adaptive immunity mechanisms (humoral vs cell-mediated), which falls under Immunology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Which antibody is transferred from mother to child?
- IgA
- IgG
- IgM
- IgE
Explanation: Answer reason: IgG IgG is the only immunoglobulin class that readily crosses the placenta via Fc receptors, providing passive immunity to the fetus/newborn. This transplacental transfer is especially important in the third trimester and protects against many systemic infections early in life. IgA is primarily transferred via breast milk (secretory IgA) and provides mucosal protection, while IgM is too large to cross the placenta and IgE is not transferred for passive systemic immunity. Category reason: This question tests foundational immune system knowledge about maternal passive antibody transfer across the placenta, which is a core Immunology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
DPT contains all the following expect...
- Tetanus
- Polio
- Pertussis
- Diphtheria
Explanation: Answer reason: Polio DPT vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid, pertussis components, and tetanus toxoid. Polio vaccination is provided separately as IPV/OPV and is not part of the DPT formulation. Therefore, among the options listed, polio is the exception. Category reason: This item tests vaccine composition and what antigens are included in specific immunizations, which is a core topic in Immunology.
Immunity means:
- Ability to breathe
- Ability to reproduce
- Ability to fight diseases
- Ability to sleep
Explanation: Answer reason: Ability to fight diseases Immunity refers to the body’s capacity to recognize and defend against pathogens and other foreign substances through innate and adaptive immune responses. This includes physical barriers, cellular defenses (e.g., phagocytes, lymphocytes), and humoral factors such as antibodies. The other options describe unrelated physiologic functions and do not define immunity. Category reason: This question tests the definition of immunity and the body’s defense mechanisms, which is a foundational concept within Immunology rather than a nursing care decision.
The decrease in T-cell numbers in HIV-infected individuals is due to?
- Lysis of host T cells by replicating virus.
- Fusion of the T cells to form syncytia.
- Killing of the T cells by HIV-specific cytotoxic T cells.
- All of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: all of the above. HIV reduces CD4+ T-cell counts through multiple mechanisms. Direct cytopathic effects from viral replication can lyse infected T cells, and gp120-mediated cell fusion can create multinucleated syncytia that are nonviable. In addition, immune-mediated killing occurs when HIV-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognize and destroy infected T cells, together producing the overall decline. Category reason: This question tests mechanisms of immune cell depletion in HIV infection, which is a core concept of Immunology rather than a nursing care/action decision.
HPV vaccine prevents:
- Typhoid
- Tuberculosis
- Rabies
- Cervical cancer
Explanation: Answer reason: Cervical cancer HPV vaccines prevent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus types (notably HPV 16 and 18) that cause most cases of cervical cancer. By preventing persistent HPV infection, the vaccine reduces the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and progression to cancer. It does not protect against bacterial diseases like typhoid or tuberculosis, nor against rabies virus. Category reason: This question tests what disease outcome is prevented by a specific vaccine, which is primarily immunology (vaccine-preventable conditions and immune-based prevention), not nursing care prioritization or interventions.
Which blood cells defend the body against infections?
- Red blood cells
- White blood cells
- Platelets
- Plasma
Explanation: Answer reason: White blood cells White blood cells (leukocytes) are the primary cells of the immune system and protect the body by identifying, attacking, and removing pathogens. Different types (e.g., neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes) provide innate and adaptive immune defense mechanisms. In contrast, red blood cells transport oxygen, platelets support clotting, and plasma is the fluid component carrying proteins and solutes. Category reason: This question tests the immune defense role of blood cell types, which is a foundational concept in Immunology rather than a nursing care intervention or prioritization task.
The nurse is explaining immunizations to the parent of a pediatric patient. What type of acquired specific immunity would the Varicella vaccine fall under?
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Passive natural immunity
- Passive artificial immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Artificial active immunity Varicella vaccine is an immunization that introduces antigen to stimulate the person’s own immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells (active immunity). Because it is induced by a vaccine rather than by natural infection, it is classified as artificial. Passive immunity would involve receiving preformed antibodies (e.g., immune globulin), which is not the mechanism of routine varicella vaccination. Category reason: This question tests classification of immunity types (active vs passive; natural vs artificial) in response to vaccination, which is a core concept in Immunology.
What is the function of the spleen?
- Digestion
- Hormone
- Immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Immunity The spleen is a major lymphoid organ that filters blood and supports immune surveillance. It helps remove opsonized microbes and aged/damaged red blood cells and provides a site for lymphocyte activation and antibody production. Loss of splenic function increases risk for severe infections, especially from encapsulated bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae). Category reason: This question tests the biological role of the spleen as part of the immune/lymphatic system, which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.
What is the function of the spleen?
- Digestion
- Hormoné
- Immúnity
Explanation: Answer reason: Immúnity The spleen is a major secondary lymphoid organ that filters blood, removes opsonized pathogens, and helps mount immune responses via lymphocytes and antigen presentation. It also clears aged or damaged red blood cells and can serve as a reservoir for platelets, but its primary tested function is immune defense. Therefore, immunity best matches the spleen’s key role compared with digestion or hormone production. Category reason: This question tests the spleen’s primary role in immune function (filtering blood-borne pathogens and supporting lymphocyte-mediated responses), which belongs to Immunology.
Which of the following is the example of type 3 hypersensitivity?
- Asthma
- Serum Sickness
- Tuberculin Test
- Anaphylaxis
Explanation: Answer reason: Serum Sickness Type III hypersensitivity is immune complex–mediated (antigen–antibody complexes) with complement activation and inflammation in tissues such as vessels, kidneys, and joints. Serum sickness is the classic example, occurring after exposure to foreign proteins or certain drugs and presenting with fever, urticaria/rash, arthralgias, and possible proteinuria. By contrast, anaphylaxis and many asthma phenotypes are primarily type I (IgE-mediated) and the tuberculin test is type IV (delayed, T-cell mediated). Category reason: This item tests classification of hypersensitivity reactions and their immunologic mechanisms (immune complex vs IgE vs T-cell mediated), which is foundational Immunology rather than a nursing-care decision.
Vaccine for Polio is...?
- HepA
- RV
- VAR
- OPV
Explanation: Answer reason: OPV OPV stands for Oral Polio Vaccine and is a vaccine specifically used to prevent poliomyelitis. The other options refer to different vaccines: HepA (hepatitis A), RV (rotavirus), and VAR (varicella). Therefore, OPV is the correct vaccine for polio among the listed choices. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of which vaccine corresponds to a specific infectious disease (polio), which is foundational immunization content under Immunology rather than a nursing judgment/intervention scenario.
Which cells are called scavengers of the body?
- RBC
- Neurons
- WBC
- Platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: WBC White blood cells, especially phagocytes like neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages, act as “scavengers” by engulfing and digesting microbes, dead cells, and cellular debris. This phagocytic cleanup function is a core part of innate immune defense and inflammation. RBCs mainly transport oxygen, neurons conduct impulses, and platelets primarily support clotting/hemostasis rather than debris removal. Category reason: This question tests foundational immune cell function (phagocytosis and debris clearance), which is best categorized under Immunology rather than nursing interventions or patient-care decision-making.
HIV primarily attacks which part of the human body?
- Liver
- Bones
- Heart
- Immune system
Explanation: Answer reason: Immune system HIV primarily infects and destroys CD4+ T lymphocytes, which are central to coordinating immune responses. Progressive loss of these cells leads to impaired cell-mediated immunity and susceptibility to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. Therefore, the body system primarily attacked is the immune system. Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge of how HIV affects the body by targeting CD4+ immune cells, which is an Immunology concept rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.
Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
Explanation: Answer reason: IgA Secretory IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin in breast milk, especially in colostrum, and is specialized for mucosal protection. It coats the infant’s gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosa to prevent pathogen adherence and invasion while producing minimal inflammatory response. This passive immunity is a key mechanism by which breastfeeding reduces infectious diarrhea and respiratory infections in early life. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of immunoglobulin classes and passive mucosal immunity provided by breast milk, which is a core concept in Immunology.
What type of immunity is provided by vaccination?
- Innate immunity
- Active immunity
- Passive immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Active immunity Vaccination introduces antigenic material that stimulates the person’s own immune system to produce a primary response, including antibodies and memory B and T cells. This creates longer-lasting protection compared with giving preformed antibodies. Passive immunity would be immediate but temporary and does not generate immune memory, while innate immunity is non-specific and not created by vaccination. Category reason: This question tests the immunologic mechanism of how vaccines work (adaptive immune response and memory formation), which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Immunology rather than a nursing care action or prioritization task.
Which cells are the main defenders of the immune system?
- White Blood Cells
- Red Blood Cells
- Platelets
- Plasma
Explanation: Answer reason: They are the primary immune cells responsible for recognizing, attacking, and coordinating responses against pathogens. Key types include neutrophils and macrophages for innate defense and lymphocytes (B and T cells) for adaptive immunity, including antibody production and cell-mediated killing. Red blood cells primarily transport oxygen, platelets mediate clotting, and plasma is the fluid component of blood that carries proteins and cells rather than serving as the main defensive cell type. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about immune system components and which blood cells provide host defense, which is core Immunology content.
Which of the following cells are mainly infected by HIV?
- Killer T-lymphocytes
- Helper T-lymphocytes
- Plasma B-cells
- MemoryB-cells
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV primarily targets CD4+ T cells because it binds the CD4 receptor (and co-receptors such as CCR5/CXCR4) to enter the cell. Progressive depletion and dysfunction of these cells impairs cell-mediated immunity and weakens activation of other immune cells, leading to opportunistic infections. While macrophages and dendritic cells can also be infected, among the listed options CD4+ helper T cells are the main target. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of HIV tropism and immune cell targets, which is a core concept in Immunology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Formation of auto-Abs (IgG) to acetylcholine receptors:
- Multiple sclerosis
- Graves's disease
- Myasthenia gravis
- Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation: Answer reason: This disorder is caused by IgG autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, reducing receptor availability and impairing neuromuscular transmission. The result is fluctuating, fatigable skeletal muscle weakness that often worsens with activity and improves with rest. By contrast, multiple sclerosis targets CNS myelin, Graves’ disease targets the TSH receptor, and rheumatoid arthritis primarily targets synovial tissues via autoimmune inflammation. Category reason: The item tests recognition of the specific autoantibody target and disease association, which is foundational immune-mediated pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario; thus it fits Immunology.
Anti nuclear Abs found in case of
- SLE
- IMN
- CML
- AML
Explanation: Answer reason: ANA are autoantibodies directed against nuclear components and are classically associated with systemic autoimmune diseases. Systemic lupus erythematosus has a very high prevalence of ANA positivity, making it a key screening marker for this condition. The other options are hematologic malignancies or nephropathy where ANA is not a characteristic diagnostic finding. Category reason: The question tests knowledge of autoantibodies (ANA) and their association with autoimmune disease, which is primarily an Immunology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Vaccination is?
- Natural active immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Natural passive immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines introduce antigenic material (or genetic instructions for antigen production) to stimulate the person’s own immune system to mount a response. This leads to development of immunologic memory via activation of B and T lymphocytes, providing longer-term protection. It is “artificial” because immunity is induced by medical intervention rather than by natural infection, and “active” because the host generates the response rather than receiving preformed antibodies. Category reason: This question tests the type and mechanism of immunity produced by vaccination, which is a core concept in Immunology rather than a nursing care decision.
Vaccine is an example of?
- Antibiotic
- Antiseptic
- Immunity booster
- Sedative
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines contain antigens (or genetic instructions for antigens) that stimulate the adaptive immune system to develop immunologic memory. This increases the body’s ability to mount a rapid, effective response on future exposure to the pathogen, providing active acquired immunity. Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, antiseptics reduce microbial load on tissues, and sedatives depress the central nervous system; none of these describe the primary function of vaccines. Category reason: This is a foundational question about how vaccines work by inducing adaptive immune responses and immunologic memory, which falls under Immunology rather than nursing-care decision making.
Q. A man was hiking and noticed a rash appeared on his arm which was not covered by clothing . The rash grew in size for 2 days and then subsided after 2 weeks. Which of the following reaction took place in this person?
- Type 2 hypersensivity
- Type 4 hypersensitiviy
- Type 1 hypersensivity
- Type 3 hypersensivity
Explanation: Answer reason: The delayed onset and evolution over days with resolution over weeks is characteristic of a T-cell–mediated delayed-type reaction rather than an immediate IgE process. Type I reactions occur within minutes to hours, while type II and III are antibody-mediated and typically present with hemolysis/cytotoxicity or immune-complex disease patterns rather than a localized delayed rash. Outdoor exposure with an expanding rash pattern can follow contact dermatitis/insect antigen exposure where sensitized T cells drive local inflammation. Category reason: This item tests the mechanism and timing of hypersensitivity reactions, which is core immune-system theory rather than a nursing intervention or care-prioritization scenario; therefore it fits Immunology under NursingScience.
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