Immunology Practice Test 1
Immunology NCLEX Practice Test
Immunology, within the NCLEX test plan under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Immunology section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Immunology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Immunology Practice Test 1
The largest lymphoid tissue is?
- Liver
- Appendix
- Spleen
- Celiac lymph nodes
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen is the largest secondary lymphoid organ, responsible for filtering blood and mounting immune responses.
The x-interferons are primarily ____________?
- Leukocytes
- Leukocytic
- Fibroblast
- Both A and B
Explanation: Answer reason: Alpha (x) interferons are produced mainly by leukocytes, hence termed leukocytic interferons; beta interferons are produced by fibroblasts. Therefore both 'leukocytes' and 'leukocytic' describe x-interferons.
What is the major immunoglobulin found in serum?
- IgA
- IgG
- IgM
Explanation: Answer reason: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in serum, comprising the majority of circulating antibodies; IgA predominates in mucosal secretions, and IgM is produced early in primary responses.
What is the first line of defense against microorganisms?
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
- Skin
- Complement proteins
Explanation: Answer reason: The first line of defense in innate immunity is the physical barrier of the skin and mucous membranes, which prevent pathogen entry. Neutrophils, monocytes, and complement act after barriers are breached.
Which class of antibody is associated with an allergic reaction?
- IgG
- IgM
- IgE
- IgA
Explanation: Answer reason: IgE mediates type I hypersensitivity by binding to mast cells and basophils, triggering allergic reactions.
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier?
- IgA
- IgM
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Only IgG crosses the placenta. IgA is mainly in mucosal secretions and colostrum, and IgM is too large to cross. Since IgG is not an option, none of the listed choices cross the placental barrier.
Which immunoglobulin is found in human milk, especially colostrum, vaginal secretions, and tears?
- IgG
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
Explanation: Answer reason: Secretory IgA predominates in mucosal secretions such as breast milk (especially colostrum), tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions, providing mucosal immunity.
Colostrum is rich in?
- IgA
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
Explanation: Answer reason: Colostrum contains high levels of secretory IgA, which provides mucosal immunity to the newborn.
Macrophages present in the liver are called?
- Mesangial cells
- Kupffer cells
- Microglia
- Chondrocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: Liver-resident macrophages are Kupffer cells. Mesangial cells are in the renal glomeruli; microglia are CNS macrophages, and chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
Herd immunity is useful in preventing which disease?
- Polio
- Tuberculosis
- Tetanus
- Diphtheria
Explanation: Answer reason: Herd immunity reduces person-to-person transmission; it is highly effective for human-only transmissions like poliovirus. It is not useful for tetanus (not transmitted person-to-person) and is limited for tuberculosis.
Who invented the smallpox vaccine?
- Louis Pasteur
- Alexander Fleming
- Edward Jenner
- John Mendal
Explanation: Answer reason: Edward Jenner developed the first successful smallpox vaccine in 1796 using material from cowpox lesions.
Enzyme, heparin, and histamine are secreted by?
- Mast cells
- Leukocytes
- Fat cells
- RBCs
Explanation: Answer reason: Mast cells are tissue-resident immune cells whose granules contain histamine and heparin; degranulation releases these mediators.
An allergy involves?
- IgE
- IgG
- IgA
- IgM
Explanation: Answer reason: Type I hypersensitivity (allergic reactions) is mediated by IgE bound to mast cells and basophils, leading to histamine release upon allergen exposure.
A patient is seen in the emergency department after a bee sting caused bronchospasm and severe pruritus. The nurse understands that this type of hypersensitivity reaction is known as?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
- Type IV
Explanation: Answer reason: Bee stings triggering bronchospasm and severe itching indicate an acute anaphylactic reaction, which is IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity—Type I.
What is antiserum?
- Blood serum containing specific antibodies.
- Blood serum containing specific antigens.
- Blood serum containing a mixture of antigens and antibodies.
- Blood serum in which both antigens and antibodies are absent.
Explanation: Answer reason: Antiserum is serum that contains high titers of antibodies directed against a specific antigen, used for passive immunization. Therefore it contains specific antibodies, not antigens.
Glomerulonephritis is due to?
- Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
- Immune complex deposition
- Type V hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation: Answer reason: Most glomerulonephritis, such as post-streptococcal GN, results from type III hypersensitivity where circulating immune complexes deposit in glomeruli and activate complement.
Tonsils functions are?
- Formation of RBC
- They can stop the entry of germ in the body through nose and oral cavity.
- Kill the germ
- B & C both
Explanation: Answer reason: Tonsils are lymphoid tissue that trap pathogens entering via the nose and mouth and mount immune responses, helping block entry and destroy germs. They do not form RBCs, so both B and C are correct.
Anaphylaxis is type ... hypersensitivity reaction?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Explanation: Answer reason: Anaphylaxis is an immediate IgE-mediated reaction, which is Type I hypersensitivity.
B and T cells spend most of their time in the _______?
- Bloodstream
- Lymphatic system
- Heart chambers
- Capillaries
Explanation: Answer reason: B and T lymphocytes predominantly reside and recirculate through lymphoid tissues and the lymphatic system (lymph nodes, spleen, MALT), not mainly in the bloodstream or heart/capillaries.
Graft from identical twin is?
- Autograft
- Xenograft
- Isograft
- Allograft
Explanation: Answer reason: A graft between genetically identical individuals (identical twins) is an isograft. Autograft is self-to-self, allograft is same species non-identical, and xenograft is between different species.
Why is immunosuppressive therapy effective for a client with myasthenia gravis?
- Promotes the antibodies that impair the transmission of impulses
- Stimulates the production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
- Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors
- Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction
Explanation: Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease where antibodies target acetylcholine receptors. Immunosuppressive therapy reduces production of these autoantibodies, improving neuromuscular transmission. Option D describes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, not immunosuppressants.
What is the most likely diagnosis for a client 19 days post-autologous peripheral blood stem-cell transplantation for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma who presents with the illustrated skin changes?
- Herpes zoster
- A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line infection
- Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
- An allergic reaction to a medication
Explanation: Answer reason: Rash appearing about 2–8 weeks after stem-cell transplantation is most consistent with acute GVHD. Herpes zoster is dermatomal and usually occurs later; PICC infection is localized at the line site; a drug allergy is less likely given the post-transplant timing and context.
The primary target cell of HIV is?
- RBC
- Melanocyte
- CD4 + helper
- Thrombocyte
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV binds the CD4 receptor with co-receptors (CCR5/CXCR4), making CD4+ helper its primary targets; RBCs and platelets lack nuclei and melanocytes are not targets.
Which of the following cannot be prevented by immunization?
- Poliomyelitis
- Tuberculosis
- Cholera
- Onchocerciasis
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines exist for polio (OPV/IPV), tuberculosis (BCG), and cholera (oral vaccines). There is no approved vaccine to prevent onchocerciasis; control relies on ivermectin mass drug administration and vector control.
What is the function of white blood cells?
- Oxygen transport
- Blood clotting
- Immune defense
- Nutrient absorption
Explanation: Answer reason: White blood cells protect the body against pathogens through immune responses; red blood cells transport oxygen, platelets mediate clotting, and nutrient absorption is a gastrointestinal function.
A positive tuberculin test is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
- Type I hypersensitivity
- Type II hypersensitivity
- Type III hypersensitivity
- Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation: Answer reason: The tuberculin skin test elicits a delayed-type (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T helper 1 cells and macrophages, which is Type IV.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Rh incompatibility (Hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
- Type I reaction
- Type II reaction
- Type III reaction
- Type IV reaction
Explanation: Answer reason: Rh incompatibility involves maternal anti-D IgG antibodies that cross the placenta and cause complement-mediated cytotoxic hemolysis of fetal RBCs, which is a type II (antibody-mediated) hypersensitivity.
What are antigens?
- Substances that stimulate production of antibody
- Substances that destroy antibody
- Substances that provide immunity
- Substances which are used for sterilisation
Explanation: Answer reason: An antigen is any substance recognized by the immune system that elicits an immune response, particularly the production of specific antibodies.
Which of the following is a serious condition, which weakens the body’s immune system, leaving it unable to fight off illness?
- Hepatitis
- AIDS
- Syphilis
- Genital herpes
Explanation: Answer reason: AIDS, caused by HIV, destroys CD4+ T lymphocytes leading to immunodeficiency and inability to fight infections.
Combat the effects of histamine in allergic reactions, phagocytize antigen–antibody complexes, and destroy certain parasitic worms are the functions of?
- Astrocytes
- Leucocytes
- Thrombocytes
- Megakaryocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: The described functions are characteristic of eosinophils (neutralize histamine, ingest immune complexes, kill helminths). That option is absent; among the listed choices, the only immune leukocyte is lymphocytes, so B is the closest, though the item appears flawed.
Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against environmental bacteria?
- Hair in the nose
- Mucous membranes
- Osteoblasts
- Saliva
- Tears
Explanation: Answer reason: Mucous membranes provide a broad innate barrier against environmental bacteria by trapping pathogens and containing antimicrobial substances. Hair in the nose, saliva, and tears offer localized protection, and osteoblasts are unrelated to immune defense.
Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and filters organisms from the blood?
- Appendix
- Gallbladder
- Pancreas
- Spleen
- Thymus
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ that filters blood to remove pathogens and senescent erythrocytes and serves as a reservoir for red blood cells and platelets.
Humoral immunity is associated with which type of cell?
- T-cell
- B-cell
- Alpha cell
Explanation: Answer reason: Humoral immunity is antibody-mediated and is produced by B lymphocytes that differentiate into plasma cells; T cells mediate cell-mediated immunity.
Which cell type is responsible for producing antibodies?
- Neutrophils
- Lymphocytes
- Eosinophils
- Monocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes that differentiate into plasma cells; neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes do not secrete antibodies.
What is an injection consisting of bacterial cells that have been modified called?
- An antitoxin
- A vaccine
- A toxin
- A toxoid
Explanation: Answer reason: Modified or inactivated bacterial cells used to induce active immunity constitute a vaccine. Antitoxin is antibody therapy; toxin is the harmful substance; toxoid is a modified toxin, not cells.
The protective effects of breast milk are associated with which of the following?
- IgM antibodies
- Lysozyme
- Mast cells
- IgA antibodies
Explanation: Answer reason: Breast milk is rich in secretory IgA, which coats infant mucosal surfaces and neutralizes pathogens, providing passive mucosal immunity. IgM is minimal, mast cells are not a milk component, and lysozyme is present but not the primary immunologic factor.
Which disease listed is characterized by immunity that is not long lasting?
- Whooping cough
- Mumps
- Diphtheria
- Influenza
Explanation: Answer reason: Immunity to influenza is short-lived and strain-specific due to frequent antigenic drift, so protection wanes and yearly vaccination is needed. Mumps generally confers long-lasting immunity; diphtheria and pertussis require boosters but are longer-lasting than influenza.
Which statement is true regarding the infant's susceptibility to pertussis?
- If the mother had pertussis, the infant will have passive immunity.
- Most infants and children are highly susceptible from birth.
- The newborn will be immune to pertussis for the first few months of life.
- Infants under 1 year of age seldom get pertussis.
Explanation: Answer reason: Infants do not receive reliable passive immunity to pertussis and are at highest risk early in life; maternal disease does not confer protective passive immunity, and newborns are not immune.
Transplantation between members with the same genetic constitution is known as?
- Autograft
- Isograft
- Allograft
- Xenograft
Explanation: Answer reason: An isograft is a transplant between genetically identical individuals (e.g., monozygotic twins). Autograft is within the same person, allograft is between different individuals of the same species, and xenograft is between different species.
Anti-rabies vaccine is made from which type of viruses?
- Wild viruses
- Live attenuated viruses
- Mixed viruses
- Killed viruses
Explanation: Answer reason: Human rabies vaccines (e.g., HDCV, PCECV) are inactivated preparations; live attenuated rabies vaccines are not used for humans due to safety concerns.
What is the third line of defense against micro-organisms?
- Skin
- Phagocytes
- Complement Proteins
- Lymphocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: The third line of defense is the adaptive immune response mediated by lymphocytes (B and T cells). Skin is first line; phagocytes and complement are part of the innate second line.
Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in allergic reactions?
- IgE
- IgG
- IgA
- IgM
Explanation: Answer reason: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils and mediates type I hypersensitivity reactions, driving allergic responses via histamine release.
Vaccination is an example of which type of immunity?
- Herd immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Artificial passive immunity
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines introduce antigen to stimulate the person’s own immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells; this is active immunity induced by artificial means.
Which immunoglobulin protects the surface of mucous membranes against bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms?
- IgM
- IgA
- IgG
- IgD
Explanation: Answer reason: IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions (tears, saliva, respiratory and GI secretions) and provides first-line defense by neutralizing pathogens on mucous membranes.
What type of vaccine is the Hepatitis-B vaccine?
- Live attenuated vaccine
- Killed vaccine
- Toxoid
- Antisera
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis B vaccine is not live, not a toxoid, and not antisera; it is an inactivated (non-live) preparation. Among the given choices, the best match is killed vaccine.
What is the second line of defense against microbes?
- Skin
- B-Lymphocytes
- Phagocytes
- Mucous membrane
- T-Lymphocytes
Explanation: Answer reason: The second line of innate defense includes internal nonspecific responses such as phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages. Skin and mucous membranes are first-line barriers; B and T lymphocytes are third-line (adaptive) defenses.
Maturation of T-cell lymphocytes takes place at which organ?
- Thyroid
- Thymus
- Trachea
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: T lymphocytes undergo maturation and selection in the thymus, where they develop immunocompetence via positive and negative selection.
Ms. X is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse caring for this patient is aware that for a patient to be diagnosed with HIV she should have which condition?
- Infection of HIV, have a CD4+ T-cell count of 500 cells/microliter, history of acute HIV infection
- Infection with Tuberculosis, HIV and cytomegalovirus
- Infection of HIV, have a CD4+ T-cell count of >200 cells/microliter, history of acute HIV infection
- Infection with HIV, history of HIV infection and T-cell count below 200 cells/microliter
Explanation: Answer reason: AIDS is diagnosed in an HIV-infected person when the CD4 T-cell count falls below 200 cells/microliter or an AIDS-defining illness occurs. Option D matches this criterion; the other options list higher CD4 counts or unrelated coinfections.
Which of the following is used for passive immunization?
- Human and Animal sera
- Killed vaccine
- Toxoid
- Live attenuated vaccine
Explanation: Answer reason: Passive immunization provides preformed antibodies via immune globulins or antisera, which come from human or animal sera. Vaccines and toxoids stimulate active immunity.
What is the half-life of IgE?
- 120 days
- 2 to 3 days
- 6 to 8 days
Explanation: Answer reason: IgE has a short serum half-life of approximately 2–3 days, whereas other immunoglobulins like IgG persist much longer.
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