Question 1

Adequate fluid replacement and vasopressin replacement are objectives of therapy for which of the following disease processes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Treatment therefore targets restoring intravascular volume with adequate fluid replacement and correcting the hormone deficiency with desmopressin/vasopressin. In contrast, SIADH involves excess ADH and is managed primarily with fluid restriction (and sometimes hypertonic saline or ADH antagonists), not vasopressin replacement. Diabetes mellitus and DKA require glucose/insulin-focused therapy; although fluids are important in DKA, vasopressin replacement is not a therapeutic goal.

Question 2

A 28-year-old software engineer, known to be a health enthusiast, attends an endocrinology lecture as part of a community health awareness program. He has recently been focusing on metabolic rates and their influence on weight management. The topic of thyroid hormones piques his interest, especially as he has a family history of thyroid disorders. As the discussion progresses, the instructor wishes to emphasize the significance of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4. She challenges the audience, asking, “Considering their pivotal role in body regulation, can you identify the primary function of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4?”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly explains their central role in weight change, thermogenesis, and cardiovascular stimulation seen in hypo- vs hyperthyroidism. Lowering blood glucose is mainly mediated by insulin and incretins rather than thyroid hormone. Calcitonin is a separate thyroid C-cell hormone, and while T3/T4 support normal growth and skeletal maturation, that is not their primary physiologic function.

Question 3

A 67-year-old female client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Polyuria, weakness, anorexia, depression/irritability, and somnolence align with hypercalcemia-related neuromuscular and neuropsychiatric effects. Bone pain is explained by increased osteoclastic activity leading to demineralization and skeletal discomfort. Diabetes insipidus can cause polyuria but would not explain bone pain and the broader hypercalcemia symptom cluster, and hypoparathyroidism typically causes hypocalcemia with tetany/paresthesias rather than these findings.

Question 4

A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The confirmatory discriminator for this condition is an elevated effective serum osmolality (typically >320 mOsm/kg), which correlates with neurologic changes and severity. ABGs are more central to diagnosing DKA because they identify metabolic acidosis, which is not the hallmark of HHNS. Sodium and potassium abnormalities are common and important to monitor and treat, but they do not best confirm the diagnosis compared with measured/calculated serum osmolality.

Question 5

Which of the following laboratory test best indicate compliance of the diabetic client and insulin therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average glycemic control over roughly the prior 2–3 months, making it the best marker of sustained adherence to an insulin regimen and overall diabetes management. Single glucose measurements such as fasting or 2-hour postprandial values can be influenced by recent meals, timing of insulin, stress, illness, or lab timing, so they do not reliably represent long-term compliance. HbA1c integrates day-to-day variability and better correlates with risk reduction for chronic microvascular complications when improved. The oral glucose tolerance test is primarily used for diagnosing diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance rather than monitoring ongoing treatment adherence.

Question 6

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type I diabetes mellitus about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that teaching is correct when the client makes which statement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Insulin requirements typically rise in mid-to-late pregnancy because placental hormones (e.g., human placental lactogen, cortisol, progesterone) create progressive insulin resistance. This increased resistance is most pronounced in the second and third trimesters, so clients with type 1 diabetes commonly need higher insulin doses during that period to maintain euglycemia. In contrast, early pregnancy often has increased insulin sensitivity and more variable intake from nausea/vomiting, which can lower insulin needs rather than increase them. Postpartum insulin needs generally fall rapidly after delivery as placental hormone levels drop, but the key teaching point tested here is the predictable rise in insulin needs later in pregnancy.

Question 7

A nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. Which of the following, if exhibited in the client, would indicate hyperglycemia and warrant physician notification?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to increased urine output, making frequent urination a classic early sign of uncontrolled high blood glucose and a potential marker of worsening metabolic status that needs evaluation and treatment adjustment. Diaphoresis is more characteristic of hypoglycemia due to adrenergic activation. Hypotension and increased pulse rate can occur later from dehydration, but they are less specific than the direct hyperglycemia-linked finding of osmotic diuresis.

Question 8

What is a normal physical finding of the thyroid gland?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: On exam, it may be difficult to feel at rest, but it can become appreciable as it elevates during swallowing, which is a normal dynamic finding. Nodularity and asymmetry suggest goiter, nodules, or other structural pathology rather than a typical exam. Tenderness is more consistent with inflammatory conditions such as thyroiditis and is not expected in a normal gland.

Question 9

The process of endocrine regulation of electrolytes involves?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormonal action helps maintain extracellular fluid volume and blood pressure by retaining sodium (and therefore water). The paired effect is increased potassium excretion, preventing hyperkalemia when sodium is conserved. Options that suggest sodium excretion or potassium reabsorption contradict aldosterone’s primary renal transport effects.

Question 10

Biochemical marker of Preeclampsia is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decreased renal clearance and increased oxidative stress raise serum uric acid early, making it a classic biochemical marker that correlates with disease severity and adverse outcomes. Proteinuria is a diagnostic criterion rather than a serum biochemical marker and may be absent in atypical preeclampsia. Serum creatinine can rise in severe disease due to renal impairment, but it is less sensitive as an early marker than uric acid; serum sodium is not characteristic.

Question 11

Diabetes affected which organ ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreatic islets, so dysfunction or destruction of these cells is central to the disease. While chronic hyperglycemia can damage organs such as the kidneys, those are complications rather than the primary organ involved in the pathogenesis. Therefore the organ most directly affected in the core disease process is the pancreas.

Question 12

Levothyroxine is primarily used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The primary indication is hypothyroidism and related states requiring thyroid hormone supplementation (e.g., post-thyroidectomy, Hashimoto disease). Replacing T4 restores normal metabolic activity and helps normalize TSH via negative feedback. It is not a treatment for diabetes, common cold symptoms, or primary hypertension, though thyroid dysfunction can secondarily affect weight, heart rate, and blood pressure.

Question 13

Which hormone is responsible for milk production?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prolactin drives the mammary alveolar cells to produce and secrete milk. In contrast, oxytocin mainly mediates milk ejection (let-down) by contracting myoepithelial cells rather than creating milk. Estrogen and progesterone promote breast development during pregnancy, and higher levels during pregnancy inhibit full lactation until after delivery when they drop.

Question 14

A nurse reviews the medications of a client with Klinefelter syndrome. The nurse knows that what medication minimizes the nurse effects of this disorder for the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Androgen replacement improves secondary sexual characteristics, increases muscle and bone mass, supports libido/energy, and helps reduce risks such as osteoporosis. The other choices do not address the core pathophysiology: nilutamide is an antiandrogen used in prostate cancer, tamsulosin treats BPH urinary symptoms, and minoxidil is used for hypertension/topical hair growth. Therefore, testosterone is the medication that best minimizes the clinical effects of the disorder.

Question 15

What is the underlying pathophysiology for edema in clients with Cushing syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol can exert mineralocorticoid effects and may be associated with increased mineralocorticoid activity, leading to sodium and water retention. This mechanism directly explains generalized fluid retention and dependent edema. By contrast, decreased sodium would reduce water retention, and decreased angiotensin II would typically reduce aldosterone-mediated retention rather than promote edema.

Question 16

Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a female client with bilateral adrenalectomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bilateral adrenalectomy permanently removes the adrenal cortex, eliminating endogenous production of glucocorticoids (and usually mineralocorticoids), so lifelong hormone replacement is required to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Teaching must emphasize that the body cannot “recover” adrenal hormone production after both glands are removed. While stress-dose steroids are important during illness, surgery, or major stress, that concept is supplemental to the core, always-true teaching point of lifelong replacement. A common misconception addressed by other options is that steroids can be stopped once the body “manufactures sufficient quantities,” which is impossible without adrenal tissue.

Question 17

Which one is known as female sex hormone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Estrogen supports follicular development and endometrial proliferation, while progesterone prepares and maintains the endometrium for implantation and gestation. Testosterone is predominantly an androgen and is not considered the primary female sex hormone in standard exam contexts, despite being present in small amounts in females. Therefore, selecting the option that includes both estrogen and progesterone best matches the concept being tested.

Question 18

Deficiency of insulin causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Absolute or relative lack of insulin causes diabetes mellitus, characterized by elevated blood glucose and impaired carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism. In contrast, goiter is related to thyroid dysfunction/iodine deficiency, rickets to vitamin D deficiency with impaired bone mineralization, and anemia to reduced hemoglobin/red cell mass rather than insulin. Therefore the condition most directly caused by insulin deficiency is diabetes mellitus.

Question 19

Hormone responsible for skeletal maturation of foetus -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They support endochondral ossification and epiphyseal development, so inadequate fetal/neonatal thyroid hormone exposure leads to delayed bone age and poor skeletal maturation. Estrogen and testosterone have major roles in pubertal growth spurts and epiphyseal closure later in development, not primary fetal skeletal maturation. Therefore the hormone most directly responsible for fetal skeletal maturation among the options is thyroid hormone.

Question 20

A patient is admitted to the medical unit with possible Graves disease (hyperthyroidism). Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces thyroid eye disease with proptosis (exophthalmos), a classic distinguishing physical finding. In contrast, bradycardia and hoarse voice are more consistent with hypothyroidism (reduced metabolic rate and possible myxedematous/edematous tissue changes). Periorbital edema is also more typical of hypothyroid myxedema rather than Graves hyperthyroidism.

Question 21

A patient suspected of having Grave's disease is tested for hormone abnormalities. In Grave's disease, the nurse would expect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Graves disease is an autoimmune cause of primary hyperthyroidism, producing excess thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland. Increased circulating T4 exerts negative feedback on the pituitary, suppressing TSH secretion. Therefore the expected lab pattern is high T4 with low TSH. A common distractor is elevated TSH with elevated T4, which fits secondary hyperthyroidism (pituitary source) rather than Graves.

Question 22

Growth hormone is secreted by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its secretion is stimulated by GHRH and inhibited by somatostatin, with major effects mediated through hepatic IGF-1 to promote linear growth and protein synthesis. The adrenal gland primarily secretes corticosteroids and catecholamines, not somatotropin. The thyroid produces T3/T4 and calcitonin, and the pancreas produces insulin and glucagon—none are the source of growth hormone.

Question 23

Which hormone increases egg reproduction in women?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By promoting follicular development and granulosa cell activity, it supports the production of a mature egg during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. In contrast, LH primarily triggers ovulation and luteinization after a dominant follicle has matured. Estrogen and progesterone are mainly ovarian steroid hormones that regulate endometrial changes and feedback control, rather than directly driving follicle recruitment and maturation.

Question 24

Estrogen is produced by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This ovarian production is central to regulation of the menstrual cycle, development of secondary sexual characteristics, and reproductive tissue maintenance. While small amounts of estrogen can arise from peripheral aromatization and adrenal precursors, the adrenal gland is not the primary direct source of estrogen in normal physiology. Pancreas and kidney have other endocrine roles (insulin/glucagon; renin/erythropoietin/vitamin D activation) rather than sex steroid production.

Question 25

Which hormone is produced by placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone rescues and maintains the corpus luteum in the first trimester so progesterone production continues and the endometrium is sustained. It is also the hormone detected by most pregnancy tests, making it the classic placental marker in early gestation. The other options are primarily anterior pituitary hormones (FSH, TSH, ACTH) rather than placental products.

Question 26

Calcitonin is secreted by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its primary physiologic role is to lower serum calcium by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, especially when calcium levels are elevated. In contrast, the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases serum calcium, making that option a common distractor. Pituitary and pancreas produce other hormone sets (e.g., ACTH/GH; insulin/glucagon) and are not the source of calcitonin.

Question 27

Which hormone regulates sleep-wake cycles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone promotes sleep onset and helps synchronize the body’s internal clock to the day–night cycle. Cortisol has a diurnal pattern but primarily supports metabolism and stress responses rather than directly governing sleep timing. Adrenaline and thyroxine are mainly involved in acute sympathetic activation and baseline metabolic rate, respectively, not circadian sleep signaling.

Question 28

You are preparing to review a teaching plan for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus. To determine the patient’s level of compliance with his prescribed diabetic regimen, which value would you be sure to review?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is less affected by day-to-day variation than spot glucose checks, so it better captures sustained compliance with diet, activity, and medications. Fasting glucose and a 24-hour fingerstick profile are short-term measures and can be temporarily improved or worsened by recent intake, illness, or medication timing. Oral glucose tolerance testing is primarily used for diagnosis (and certain screening contexts), not routine monitoring of adherence in established type 2 diabetes.

Question 29

A 7-year-old girl with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) has been home sick for several days and is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. If the child is experiencing ketoacidosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following lab results?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood pH 7.28 Diabetic ketoacidosis is defined by hyperglycemia with an anion-gap metabolic acidosis due to accumulation of ketone bodies. A low arterial/venous pH indicates acidemia, and 7.28 is consistent with metabolic acidosis seen in DKA. By contrast, a glucose of 140 mg/dL is near-normal and would not fit typical DKA physiology. The other values listed are not diagnostic for ketoacidosis and can be normal or abnormal for unrelated reasons.

Question 30

A patient with a family history of pheochromocytoma is scheduled for a 24-hour catecholamine urine test and fractionated plasma metanephrine measurement. The nurse knows the patient will undergo both because the 24-hour catecholamine urine test is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In pheochromocytoma evaluation, fractionated plasma free metanephrines are used primarily as a highly sensitive screening test to minimize missed cases, especially in higher-risk patients such as those with a family history. The 24-hour urinary catecholamine collection is more prone to false negatives because secretion can be episodic, so it is less sensitive. However, when elevated, urinary catecholamines are relatively more confirmatory because fewer non-tumor states produce marked sustained increases, making it comparatively more specific. Using both tests leverages sensitivity for screening and specificity for confirmation before proceeding to imaging/localization.

Question 31

The nurse is preparing for a women’s health fair. The nurse knows that which of the following is correct when teaching about the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combined estrogen-progestin therapy is associated with increased thrombotic and cardiovascular events, particularly in older postmenopausal patients and with oral formulations. This increased procoagulant and inflammatory risk contributes to higher rates of coronary events compared with nonusers in large trials. Option A is incorrect because HRT increases, not decreases, venous thromboembolism risk. Options C and D are incorrect because HRT generally reduces osteoporotic fracture risk but increases (rather than decreases) breast cancer risk with combined therapy.

Question 32

Source of progesterone in late pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In early pregnancy the corpus luteum in the ovary is the primary producer, but by the end of the first trimester the placenta becomes the dominant source (luteal-placental shift). Therefore, in late pregnancy progesterone production is primarily placental. Hypothalamus and pituitary regulate reproductive hormones but are not the main sites of progesterone synthesis in pregnancy.

Question 33

The hormone primarily responsible for regulating the "sleep -wake cycle is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone rises in darkness, promotes sleep onset, and helps synchronize the sleep–wake cycle to environmental lighting. Cortisol also follows a diurnal pattern (higher in the early morning) but primarily supports wakefulness and stress/metabolic regulation rather than being the primary sleep timing signal. Adrenaline and insulin are not circadian pacemakers for sleep; they mainly mediate acute sympathetic responses and glucose homeostasis, respectively.

Question 34

Which of the following is an ocular change that may be found in the patient with hyperthyroidism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This increases orbital volume and pushes the globe forward, producing proptosis with lid retraction and a “staring” appearance. The other options represent common eye conditions unrelated to thyroid excess (age-related lens changes, chronic optic neuropathy from elevated IOP, or eyelid droop from levator dysfunction). Therefore the ocular change classically associated with hyperthyroidism is forward protrusion of the eyes.

Question 35

Which hormone increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor acting primarily through AT1 receptors, rapidly increasing peripheral resistance and thereby elevating blood pressure. It also promotes aldosterone release, supporting longer-term pressure elevation through sodium and water retention. Antidiuretic hormone can cause vasoconstriction at higher concentrations, but its primary physiologic role is water reabsorption, making it a less direct best choice here compared with angiotensin II. Insulin and glucagon mainly regulate glucose metabolism rather than serving as primary pressor vasoconstrictor hormones.

Question 36

Which hormone promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This concentrates the urine and helps restore plasma osmolality and circulating volume. Aldosterone mainly increases sodium reabsorption (with accompanying water retention indirectly) by acting on the distal nephron, but it does not directly regulate water permeability the way ADH does. Insulin and glucagon regulate glucose metabolism rather than renal water handling.

Question 37

Which of the following cells in the pancreas make insulin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches the question asking which pancreatic cell type makes insulin. In contrast, α-cells mainly secrete glucagon (raising blood glucose), and δ-cells secrete somatostatin (inhibiting islet hormone release). Loss or dysfunction of β-cells underlies the absolute insulin deficiency of type 1 diabetes and contributes to type 2 diabetes progression.

Question 38

Thyroid gland doesn't produced?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is not a thyroid product; it is synthesized in the hypothalamus and released into circulation from the posterior pituitary. Therefore, among the listed choices, the one not produced by the thyroid is the posterior pituitary hormone. A common distractor is calcitonin, but it is indeed produced by thyroid C cells and participates in calcium homeostasis.

Question 39

Testosterone is produced in _____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These cells convert cholesterol into testosterone, which then supports spermatogenesis and development/maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics. The pituitary gland regulates testosterone via LH secretion but does not produce the hormone itself. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines, while ovaries produce mainly estrogen and progesterone (with only small amounts of androgens).

Question 40

Which organ is called the emergency gland?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The adrenal medulla rapidly secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine to increase heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose availability during emergencies, while the adrenal cortex supports longer stress adaptation via cortisol and aldosterone. This immediate, lifesaving hormonal surge is why it is termed the “emergency gland.” By contrast, the pituitary is the “master gland” controlling other endocrine organs but is not the primary source of the rapid emergency catecholamine response.

Question 41

What is the name of the gland that produces aldosterone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its main physiologic effect is to increase sodium (and water) reabsorption and promote potassium and hydrogen ion excretion in the distal nephron, helping control blood pressure and volume. The thyroid gland produces T3/T4 and calcitonin, not mineralocorticoids. The pituitary secretes trophic hormones (e.g., ACTH) that can influence adrenal function, but it is not the site of aldosterone synthesis.

Question 42

What is the primary cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic therapeutic steroid use suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis while producing the systemic metabolic effects of excess cortisol. Pituitary adenoma is a common endogenous cause (Cushing disease) but is less common than medication-induced cases in the general population. Adrenal hyperplasia can contribute to cortisol excess but is not the leading primary cause compared with exogenous glucocorticoids.

Question 43

Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Insulin, released from pancreatic beta cells in response to elevated blood glucose, promotes glucose entry into muscle and adipose tissue and stimulates glycogen synthesis, thereby lowering serum glucose. Adrenaline can raise glucose transiently during stress via glycogenolysis, but it is not the main regulator of day-to-day blood sugar control. Thyroxine and oestrogen influence metabolism and other body functions but do not serve as the primary hormones regulating blood glucose levels.

Question 44

Which hormone relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone increases ligamentous laxity (e.g., at the symphysis pubis) and helps soften/prepare the cervix, facilitating childbirth. Estrogen primarily promotes uterine growth and increases uterine blood flow, while progesterone mainly maintains uterine quiescence and supports the endometrium. Prolactin’s primary role is breast development and lactation rather than pelvic ligament relaxation.

Question 45

Which drug is used to treat type 1 diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Management therefore requires exogenous insulin to replace the missing hormone and allow cellular glucose uptake while suppressing hepatic glucose output and ketogenesis. Oral agents like metformin, sitagliptin, and pioglitazone primarily target insulin resistance or augment endogenous insulin secretion, which is inadequate or absent in type 1 diabetes. Without insulin therapy, patients are at high risk for hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis.

Question 46

What is the primary hormone responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: FSH stimulates growth and maturation of ovarian follicles and promotes estradiol synthesis in granulosa cells, initiating the follicular phase that sets the cycle in motion. The rise in ovarian hormones then provides feedback that shapes the timing of ovulation and subsequent luteal changes. In contrast, estrogen and progesterone primarily act as ovarian end-organ hormones that mediate endometrial proliferation and secretory transformation rather than serving as the upstream driver of follicle recruitment.

Question 47

Which hormone is responsible for milk production in females?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prolactin drives milk production and increases in response to infant suckling via reduced hypothalamic dopamine inhibition. Oxytocin, in contrast, causes milk ejection (let-down) by contracting myoepithelial cells rather than increasing milk synthesis. Estrogen and progesterone support breast development during pregnancy but high levels inhibit full lactation until after delivery.

Question 48

Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Insulin, produced by beta cells of the pancreas, lowers blood glucose by increasing glucose transport into muscle and adipose tissue and promoting glycogen synthesis in the liver. In contrast, adrenaline is a stress hormone that tends to raise glucose via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis rather than regulate it as the primary controller. Thyroxine mainly modulates basal metabolic rate, and estrogen primarily affects reproductive tissues and secondary sex characteristics, not acute glucose regulation.

Question 49

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the onset of puberty in both males and females?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete LH and FSH, which then act on the gonads to increase sex steroid production and gametogenesis, producing pubertal changes in both sexes. Growth hormone contributes mainly to the pubertal growth spurt but does not initiate gonadal maturation. Thyroid hormone and insulin support normal metabolism and growth, yet they are not the primary trigger for pubertal onset.

Question 50

A male client, age 44, has recurring abscesses and recent weight loss despite a healthy appetite. What history information will be most important to elicit from this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Unintentional weight loss despite a good appetite with recurrent skin abscesses strongly suggests hyperglycemia/diabetes, where glucose loss and cellular starvation drive polyphagia and weight loss while impaired neutrophil function increases infection risk. Nocturia reflects osmotic diuresis from glucosuria, and fatigue is common from dehydration and poor glucose utilization. This history element directly targets the most likely unifying diagnosis and guides immediate diagnostic testing (e.g., fasting glucose/A1c). A family history of type 1 diabetes is less important than current classic hyperglycemia symptoms and would not explain the client’s present manifestations as directly.

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Adequate fluid replacement and vasopressin replacement are objectives of therapy for which of the following disease processes?

A 67-year-old female client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?

A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

Which of the following laboratory test best indicate compliance of the diabetic client and insulin therapy?

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type I diabetes mellitus about her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that teaching is correct when the client makes which statement?

A nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. Which of the following, if exhibited in the client, would indicate hyperglycemia and warrant physician notification?

What is a normal physical finding of the thyroid gland?

The process of endocrine regulation of electrolytes involves?

Biochemical marker of Preeclampsia is –?

Diabetes affected which organ ...?

Levothyroxine is primarily used to treat?

Which hormone is responsible for milk production?

A nurse reviews the medications of a client with Klinefelter syndrome. The nurse knows that what medication minimizes the nurse effects of this disorder for the client?

What is the underlying pathophysiology for edema in clients with Cushing syndrome?

Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a female client with bilateral adrenalectomy?

Which one is known as female sex hormone?

Deficiency of insulin causes?

Hormone responsible for skeletal maturation of foetus -?

A patient is admitted to the medical unit with possible Graves disease (hyperthyroidism). Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis?

A patient suspected of having Grave's disease is tested for hormone abnormalities. In Grave's disease, the nurse would expect?

Growth hormone is secreted by?

Which hormone increases egg reproduction in women?

Estrogen is produced by?

Which hormone is produced by placenta?

Calcitonin is secreted by?

Which hormone regulates sleep-wake cycles?

You are preparing to review a teaching plan for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus. To determine the patient’s level of compliance with his prescribed diabetic regimen, which value would you be sure to review?

A 7-year-old girl with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) has been home sick for several days and is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. If the child is experiencing ketoacidosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following lab results?

A patient with a family history of pheochromocytoma is scheduled for a 24-hour catecholamine urine test and fractionated plasma metanephrine measurement. The nurse knows the patient will undergo both because the 24-hour catecholamine urine test is?

The nurse is preparing for a women’s health fair. The nurse knows that which of the following is correct when teaching about the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

Source of progesterone in late pregnancy is?

The hormone primarily responsible for regulating the "sleep -wake cycle is?

Which of the following is an ocular change that may be found in the patient with hyperthyroidism?

Which hormone increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction?

Which hormone promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys?

Which of the following cells in the pancreas make insulin?

Thyroid gland doesn't produced?

Testosterone is produced in _____?

Which organ is called the emergency gland?

What is the name of the gland that produces aldosterone?

What is the primary cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

Which hormone relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy?

Which drug is used to treat type 1 diabetes?

What is the primary hormone responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle?

Which hormone is responsible for milk production in females?

Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the onset of puberty in both males and females?

A male client, age 44, has recurring abscesses and recent weight loss despite a healthy appetite. What history information will be most important to elicit from this client?

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