Endocrine System Practice Test 16
Endocrine System NCLEX Practice Test
Endocrine System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Endocrine System. This section reviews hormonal regulation and nursing priorities in metabolic and endocrine disorders. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 16th part of the Endocrine System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Endocrine System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Endocrine System Practice Test 16
The condition of excess glucose in blood is —?
- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperglycemia
- Glycosuria
- Anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess glucose in the bloodstream reflects impaired insulin secretion/action or increased counter-regulatory hormones, which defines elevated plasma glucose. This is termed hyperglycemia and is a core concept in diabetes mellitus and stress hypermetabolic states. Glycosuria instead refers to glucose spilling into urine when serum glucose exceeds the renal threshold. Hypoglycemia is the opposite state (low blood glucose), and anemia relates to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, not glucose levels.
Which of the following is an endocrine gland?
- Thyroid
- Liver
- Salivary gland
- Tear gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The thyroid fits this definition because it produces and releases T3 and T4 (and calcitonin) into circulation. In contrast, salivary and tear glands are exocrine glands that release secretions through ducts onto epithelial surfaces. While the liver has important metabolic and endocrine-like functions, it is not classically categorized as an endocrine gland in basic anatomy questions compared with the clearly endocrine thyroid.
Beta cells of the pancreas produce -
- Gastrin
- Glucagon
- Insulin
- Somatostatin
- Glucose
Explanation: Answer reason: They respond to increased serum glucose by secreting a peptide hormone that promotes cellular glucose uptake (especially in muscle and adipose), stimulates glycogen synthesis, and suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis. This mechanism is central to normal postprandial glucose control and is deficient in type 1 diabetes due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction. A common distractor is glucagon, which is secreted by alpha cells and raises blood glucose rather than lowering it.
Diabetes insipidus is under control of ?
- ACTH
- TSH
- ADH
- Aldosterone
Explanation: Answer reason: ADH normally promotes water reabsorption in the kidney collecting ducts via V2 receptors and aquaporin insertion, concentrating urine. When ADH is absent or ineffective, patients pass large volumes of dilute urine and develop polydipsia and potential hypernatremia. ACTH and TSH regulate adrenal cortex and thyroid function respectively, and aldosterone mainly controls sodium/potassium balance rather than free-water conservation.
Strongest stimulus of lactation is by ?
- PPH
- Metoclopramide
- Sucking
- Bromocriptine
Explanation: Answer reason: This physiologic reflex is the most potent and immediate stimulus because it directly activates the normal feedback loop that maintains milk supply. Metoclopramide can increase prolactin by blocking dopamine but is a pharmacologic, less robust substitute for inadequate breast stimulation. Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that suppresses prolactin and would reduce, not stimulate, lactation. PPH is unrelated as a stimulus and may impair lactation indirectly through maternal illness or pituitary ischemia.
Ovulation is the cause?
- FSH surge
- LH surge
- Prolactin surge
- Oxytocin Surge
Explanation: Answer reason: This surge follows sustained estrogen production that switches hypothalamic-pituitary feedback from negative to positive, sharply increasing gonadotropin release. FSH also rises, but its primary role is follicle recruitment and granulosa cell stimulation rather than directly initiating follicle rupture. Prolactin primarily supports lactation and can suppress GnRH when elevated, and oxytocin mediates uterine contraction and milk letdown, not ovulation.
Which is the female sex hormone?
- Estrogen
- Androgen
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: Estrogens are the primary female sex hormones produced mainly by the ovaries and are central to menstrual cycle regulation and female secondary sex characteristics. Androgens are classically the predominant male sex hormones (though present in females in smaller amounts). Insulin and thyroxine are metabolic hormones (glucose regulation and thyroid function) rather than sex hormones.
In a client with SIADH, serum sodium level
- Increases
- Decreases
- Remain in normal range
- Fluctuates
Explanation: Answer reason: This produces dilutional hyponatremia because total body water rises more than total body sodium. The expected lab pattern is low serum sodium with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine. A common distractor is an increased sodium level, which would fit dehydration/diabetes insipidus rather than water retention from SIADH.
The ____ hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary ?
- Luteninizing
- Oxytocin
- Melanocyte Secreting
- Prolactin
Explanation: Answer reason: The two hormones released from the posterior pituitary are ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin, making this option the only match. Luteinizing hormone and prolactin are anterior pituitary hormones, and melanocyte-stimulating hormone is primarily associated with the intermediate/anterior pituitary. Therefore, the best answer is the hormone known to be released from the posterior pituitary.
Cushing's disease is caused by hyperactivity of ?
- Growth hormone
- Glucocorticoids
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex (zona fasciculata) and drives the classic metabolic features such as hyperglycemia, muscle wasting, central adiposity, and immunosuppression. In contrast, growth hormone excess causes acromegaly/gigantism, insulin excess causes hypoglycemia, and thyroxine excess causes hyperthyroidism. Therefore, the option that matches the fundamental endocrine abnormality is glucocorticoid hyperactivity.
Enlargement of thyroid gland occurs in
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperthyroidism
- Tumors of thyroid
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: In hypothyroidism (commonly iodine deficiency or Hashimoto disease), reduced thyroid hormone can lead to compensatory TSH-driven gland hyperplasia and enlargement. In hyperthyroidism (e.g., Graves disease), diffuse gland hypertrophy/hyperplasia is common and can produce a visible goiter. Thyroid tumors can also enlarge the gland via nodular growth or mass effect, so each listed condition can be associated with enlargement.
Deficiency of which vitamin during pregnancy may cause neural tube defect ____ ????
- Folic acid
- Niacin
- Riboflavin
- Thiamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Maternal folate deficiency increases the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly, which is why periconceptional folic acid supplementation is recommended. The other listed B vitamins have important roles (e.g., niacin in NAD/NADP, thiamine in carbohydrate metabolism) but are not the primary deficiency linked to neural tube closure failure. Clinically, folic acid is emphasized preconception through the first trimester because the critical window is often before pregnancy is recognized.
Which of the following hormone is modified amino acid?
- Epinephrine
- Progesterone
- Prostaglandin
- Estrogen
Explanation: Answer reason: Epinephrine is a catecholamine derived from tyrosine via DOPA and dopamine, so it fits the “modified amino acid” category. In contrast, progesterone and estrogen are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol, and prostaglandins are eicosanoids derived from arachidonic acid. Therefore the only modified-amino-acid hormone listed is epinephrine.
Which of the following hormone contain iodine ??
- Testosterone
- Thyroxine
- Calcium Gluconate
- Zinc Adrenaline
Explanation: Answer reason: Thyroxine (T4) specifically contains four iodine atoms, making iodine an essential micronutrient for normal thyroid hormone production. Testosterone is a steroid derived from cholesterol and does not incorporate iodine. The other listed choices are not appropriate hormones containing iodine, and one is not a hormone at all.
Source of progesterone during normal menstrual Cycle :-
- Corpus Leutum
- Stroma
- Surface Epithelium Of Ovary
- Endometrium
Explanation: Answer reason: This hormone converts the proliferative endometrium into a secretory lining and stabilizes it to support potential implantation. If pregnancy does not occur, corpus luteum regression causes a drop in progesterone, triggering menstruation. The other listed tissues are not the principal physiologic source of cyclic progesterone production in a normal cycle.
Moon face with central obesity is noticed in ?
- Addison's Disease
- Cushing's Syndrome
- Down Syndrome
- Turner's Syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypercortisolism also promotes insulin resistance and protein catabolism, contributing to weight gain in the torso with muscle wasting. Addison’s disease is adrenal insufficiency and more typically presents with weight loss, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation rather than central obesity. Down and Turner syndromes have distinct dysmorphic and developmental features, but moon facies with central obesity is classically tied to cortisol excess.
Which among the following hormone is secreted by Pituitary gland?
- Calcitonin
- Glucocorticoids
- Glucagon
- Prolactin
Explanation: Answer reason: The correct choice is produced in the anterior pituitary and is central to lactation by stimulating milk production after childbirth. The other options are secreted by different glands: calcitonin by thyroid C cells, glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex, and glucagon by pancreatic alpha cells. This makes the remaining option the only one matching pituitary secretion.
What controls sugar levels in the body?
- Insulin
- Glucagon
- Both
Explanation: Answer reason: Insulin decreases blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake (especially in muscle and fat), increasing glycogen synthesis, and reducing hepatic glucose output. Glucagon increases blood glucose by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis during fasting or stress. Choosing only one ignores the essential push–pull mechanism that maintains stable glucose levels across fed and fasting states.
The male sex hormone is?
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
Explanation: Answer reason: The testes (Leydig cells) produce the predominant circulating androgen that drives spermatogenesis support, libido, muscle mass, and voice/deepening and body hair patterns. Estrogen and progesterone are more closely associated with female reproductive physiology, though small amounts of estrogen are present in males via aromatization. The question asks for the primary male sex hormone, making the main androgen the best answer.
In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation?
- Polyphagia
- Dehydration
- Bedwetting
- Weight loss
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess glucose in the urine pulls water with it, causing polyuria and nighttime accidents that parents often identify quickly and find concerning. While polyphagia and weight loss are common features of diabetes, they can be subtle or attributed to growth, activity, or diet changes. Dehydration is typically a later consequence and may not be recognized until symptoms are more severe.
The Hormone which contracts the Uterus Muscles during childbirth to expel baby out is?
- Calcitonin
- Oxytocin
- Insulin
- Prolactin
Explanation: Answer reason: This hormone acts on uterine smooth muscle receptors to raise intracellular calcium and strengthen rhythmic contractions, facilitating cervical dilation and fetal expulsion. It also participates in a positive feedback loop (Ferguson reflex) where cervical stretching triggers more release, intensifying labor. Prolactin primarily stimulates milk production, while calcitonin and insulin regulate calcium and glucose homeostasis, respectively, and do not mediate labor contractions.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is seen in SIADH ?
- Hyponatremia
- Hypernatremia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia
Explanation: Answer reason: This dilutes serum sodium, producing dilutional hyponatremia with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine. The key electrolyte pattern is low sodium rather than high sodium because the problem is excess free water, not sodium loss as the primary driver. Potassium abnormalities are not the characteristic finding in isolated SIADH and would suggest an additional process if present.
Which of the following hormones is involved in the maturation of the egg ?
- Estrogen
- Testosterone
- Luteinizing
- All of the These
Explanation: Answer reason: This estrogen rise promotes proliferation of the endometrium and reflects progressive development of the dominant follicle leading up to ovulation. Luteinizing hormone is most directly responsible for triggering ovulation and luteinization rather than being the main driver of maturation across the follicular phase. Testosterone is an androgen precursor for estrogen synthesis in the ovary, but it is not the principal hormone associated with egg maturation in standard physiology teaching.
What is the name of master gland?
- Thymus
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary
- Pineal
Explanation: Answer reason: The anterior pituitary secretes TSH, ACTH, LH/FSH, GH, and prolactin, which regulate thyroid, adrenal cortex, and gonadal function as well as growth and lactation. While the hypothalamus is the primary regulator of pituitary activity via releasing/inhibiting hormones, the pituitary is classically labeled the master gland because its hormones directly drive other glands’ output. Thymus and pineal have specialized roles (T-cell maturation; melatonin/circadian rhythm) and do not broadly control other endocrine glands.
The pituitary gland is called –?
- Master gland
- Thyroid gland
- Adrenal gland
- Pineal gland
Explanation: Answer reason: g., TSH, ACTH, LH/FSH, GH, prolactin) regulate the activity of multiple other endocrine organs. This central regulatory role coordinates thyroid, adrenal cortex, and gonadal function via tropic hormones. While it is controlled by the hypothalamus, it remains the primary peripheral driver of many endocrine axes. The other choices are distinct glands with more specific hormone outputs and are not the main regulators of other endocrine glands.
Hormone responsible for ovulation:
- LH
- FSH
- ACTH
- TSH
Explanation: Answer reason: The rise in estradiol from the dominant follicle creates positive feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, producing this surge. FSH primarily supports follicular growth and granulosa cell function earlier in the cycle rather than causing follicle rupture. ACTH and TSH regulate adrenal and thyroid function, respectively, and are not part of the ovulatory trigger mechanism.
Which of the following blood glucose levels would indicate hypoglycemia in an infant?
- 45 mg/dL
- 43 mg/dL
- 38 mg/dL
- 29 mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: This value is below that commonly tested cutoff, indicating inadequate circulating glucose to meet the brain’s metabolic needs. Values in the low-to-mid 40s may be borderline depending on timing and symptoms, so they are less clearly definitive on exams. Severe values like 29 mg/dL are also hypoglycemic, but the question asks for a level that indicates hypoglycemia using the standard threshold concept, making the level just below 40 mg/dL the best single choice.
The hormone which decides the colour of skin is?
- Malatonin
- Secretrin
- Malonin
- Gastrin
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the listed options, the intended closest match to this concept is the misspelled/variant term given as option A, while the other options are gastrointestinal hormones that do not regulate skin pigment. Secretin and gastrin act on pancreatic bicarbonate secretion and gastric acid secretion, respectively, making them clear distractors. Although the scientifically accurate answer would be MSH, the best answer within the provided choices is option A.
What hormone does the parathyroid produce??
- Calcitonin
- PTH
- PFH
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: This hormone raises serum calcium by increasing bone resorption, enhancing renal calcium reabsorption, and stimulating activation of vitamin D to increase intestinal calcium absorption. Calcitonin is produced by thyroid C cells and generally lowers serum calcium, making it a common distractor. Insulin is produced by pancreatic beta cells, and the remaining option is not a standard human hormone secreted by this gland.
Which organ is called sweet gland?
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Thyroid
- Adrenal gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The pancreas contains the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin to lower blood glucose and glucagon to raise it, making it central to “sweet” (sugar) control. This association is commonly tested because pancreatic dysfunction directly leads to diabetes mellitus and dysglycemia. In contrast, the thyroid and adrenal glands affect metabolic rate and stress responses but are not the primary glands controlling blood sugar homeostasis.
What medical condition can contribute to low sperm count?
- Hypertension
- Diabetes
- Asthma
- Arthritis
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic hyperglycemia increases oxidative stress and can damage Sertoli and Leydig cell activity, leading to poorer spermatogenesis and reduced sperm concentration. Autonomic neuropathy and erectile/ejaculatory dysfunction can coexist, further contributing to subfertility, but the question specifically asks about low count. The other listed conditions are not classically associated with a primary reduction in sperm production compared with metabolic/endocrine disease.
The Hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland that rarely affects the posterior lobe leading to:
- Grave’s disease
- Simmond’s disease
- Frohlick’s Syndrome
- Levi Syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: This clinical entity is classically termed pituitary cachexia, reflecting severe wasting and features of multiple endocrine deficiencies. Among the options, the disorder that specifically denotes anterior pituitary failure is the one selected. A common distractor is Graves disease, which is primary thyroid hyperfunction rather than pituitary hypofunction.
Which of the following condition is the most common form of Hyperthyroidism?
- Addison's disease
- Crushing Sundrome
- Grave's disease
- Hashimoto's disease
Explanation: Answer reason: This mechanism characterizes Graves disease and explains typical clinical findings such as diffuse goiter and possible ophthalmopathy. Addison’s disease is primary adrenal insufficiency and does not cause elevated thyroid hormone levels. Hashimoto’s disease is autoimmune thyroiditis that most commonly results in hypothyroidism, though transient hyperthyroid phases can occur but are not the most common form overall.
Which value of HbA1c in a Diabetic patient is indication of good control of blood sugar level-?
- 6.5to 8.0
- 8-10
- 10-12
- 1-3
Explanation: Answer reason: 6.5to 8.0 HbA1c reflects average glycemia over roughly the prior 2–3 months and is used to judge overall diabetes control. “Good control” is generally around <7% for many nonpregnant adults, with individualized targets that may be relaxed (e.g., <8%) in older adults, those with comorbidities, or hypoglycemia risk. Among the choices given, this range best aligns with accepted treatment targets. Higher ranges (8–10, 10–12) indicate suboptimal control and higher risk of microvascular complications, while 1–3 is not physiologically compatible with diabetes management targets.
Excess iodine in diet may cause?
- Goiter
- Anemia
- Diabetes
- Kwashiorkor
Explanation: Answer reason: When thyroid hormone production is temporarily inhibited or becomes abnormal in susceptible individuals, TSH stimulation can lead to gland hypertrophy, presenting as goiter. The other options reflect different etiologies: anemia is most often tied to iron/B12/folate deficiency or hemolysis, diabetes is primarily related to insulin deficiency/resistance, and kwashiorkor is due to severe protein deficiency. Therefore the best consequence among the choices is thyroid enlargement.
Osteomalacia occurs due to deficiency of:
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: When it is deficient, newly formed osteoid cannot mineralize properly, leading to soft, weak bones and bone pain in adults (osteomalacia). This mechanism directly explains osteomalacia, whereas vitamin A is more associated with vision/epithelial function, vitamin B6 with amino acid metabolism/neuropathy risk, and vitamin K with coagulation factor activation. The clinical hallmark is defective mineralization rather than a primary collagen or clotting abnormality.
Which mineral prevents goiter?
- Iron
- Iodine
- Calcium
- Sodium
Explanation: Answer reason: Iodine is an essential substrate for production of T3 and T4, so deficiency leads to increased TSH stimulation and compensatory thyroid enlargement. Adequate dietary iodine (e.g., iodized salt) prevents this pathophysiologic cascade. Iron deficiency can impair thyroid peroxidase activity but is not the classic nutritional prevention of goiter, and calcium/sodium are not required substrates for thyroid hormone synthesis.
Which hormone is secreted during stress?
- Cortisol
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
- Oxytocin
Explanation: Answer reason: This response raises blood glucose via gluconeogenesis, supports vascular tone, and modulates inflammation to help the body cope with acute or chronic stress. Insulin typically decreases during stress because counter-regulatory hormones promote hyperglycemia rather than glucose storage. Thyroxine regulates baseline metabolic rate and oxytocin is primarily involved in labor, lactation, and bonding rather than the primary stress hormone response.
Which hormone causes milk ejection?
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
Explanation: Answer reason: Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary when the nipple is stimulated, producing this contraction and actively expelling milk into the ducts. Prolactin instead primarily drives milk production in the alveolar cells rather than ejection. Estrogen and progesterone mainly regulate breast development and, during pregnancy, tend to inhibit full lactation until after delivery.
Glucagon receptors are NOT found in which organ?
- Kidney
- Cornea
- Stomach
- Adrenal gland
Explanation: Answer reason: These receptors are expressed in metabolic and endocrine-related organs such as the kidney (gluconeogenesis/handling of substrates), stomach/GI tract (metabolic and secretory modulation), and adrenal tissue (interactions with stress-related endocrine function). The cornea is an avascular ocular tissue primarily specialized for transparency and refraction, not systemic metabolic signaling, so it is not a typical target organ for glucagon receptor–mediated effects. Therefore, among the listed choices, the cornea is the best answer for an organ lacking glucagon receptors.
Which of the following hormone has role in brain development of foetus?
- TRH
- T4
- TSH
Explanation: Answer reason: During early gestation the fetus relies heavily on maternal thyroxine that crosses the placenta and supports brain maturation before the fetal thyroid axis is fully functional. TRH and TSH mainly regulate thyroid hormone production but do not directly provide the active thyroid hormone needed at target tissues. Therefore the hormone with the key role in fetal brain development among the options is thyroxine.
Pineal gland is found in?
- Brain
- Neck
- Chest
- Abdomen
Explanation: Answer reason: Its primary hormone, melatonin, helps regulate circadian rhythms and sleep–wake cycles, linking endocrine function to central nervous system anatomy. Because it is an intracranial gland, locations such as the neck (thyroid/parathyroids), chest (thymus), or abdomen (adrenals/pancreas) do not match its known anatomical position. Therefore, the only correct site among the choices is within the cranial cavity.
Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
- Hyponatremia
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypermagnesemia
- Hypercalcemia
Explanation: Answer reason: In hyperparathyroidism, excessive PTH therefore most directly leads to elevated serum calcium as the dominant complication. This also explains classic downstream risks like nephrolithiasis and bone demineralization, both driven by sustained high calcium turnover. Hypocalcemia is more consistent with hypoparathyroidism or hungry bone syndrome after parathyroidectomy, not the typical untreated state. Sodium and magnesium disturbances are not the primary physiologic consequence tested for hyperparathyroidism.
In caring for a client with diabetes insipidus who is receiving an antidiuretic hormone intranasally which serum lab test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- Osmolality
- Calcium
- Platelets
- Glucose
Explanation: Answer reason: Serum osmolality directly reflects the body’s water balance and should decrease appropriately as the excessive water losses of diabetes insipidus are corrected. Trending this value helps the nurse detect overcorrection (too much water retention) early, before neurologic complications occur. Calcium and platelets are not directly affected by ADH therapy, and glucose monitoring is more relevant to diabetes mellitus rather than diabetes insipidus.
The therapeutic effect of insulin in treating type 1 diabetes mellitus is based on which physiologic action?
- Facilitates transport of glucose into the cell
- Increases intracellular receptor site sensitivity
- Stimulates function of beta cells in the pancreas
- Delays carbohydrates digestion and absorption
Explanation: Answer reason: In type 1 diabetes, endogenous insulin production is absent due to autoimmune beta-cell destruction, so exogenous insulin replaces the missing hormone to restore this glucose-uptake signal. Increasing “intracellular receptor sensitivity” is not insulin’s primary therapeutic mechanism and is more relevant to insulin resistance states (type 2 diabetes). It also does not stimulate beta-cell function in type 1 diabetes, and delaying carbohydrate absorption is a mechanism associated with agents like alpha-glucosidase inhibitors rather than insulin.
Oxytocin present in.??
- Men
- Women
- Both
- None of these
Explanation: Answer reason: While it is classically associated with uterine contractions and milk ejection, it also has physiologic roles in both sexes, including social bonding and modulation of stress responses. In men, oxytocin is present and can influence reproductive tract smooth muscle activity and neurobehavioral functions. Therefore, the most accurate choice is that it is present in both men and women.
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings would be consistent with hyperthyroidism?
- Thinning hair and cold intolerance
- Palpitations and an elevated heart rate
- Weight gain and straining with defecation
- Fatigue and prolonged menstrual periods
Explanation: Answer reason: This commonly manifests as tachycardia, palpitations, and sometimes atrial dysrhythmias. In contrast, cold intolerance, weight gain/constipation, and prolonged menses are more typical of hypothyroidism due to slowed metabolism and reduced GI motility. Therefore the cardiovascular hyperadrenergic finding best matches the expected clinical picture.
Female sex hormone is?
- Estrogen
- Testosterone
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: They promote endometrial proliferation and contribute to reproductive tissue maturation and function. Testosterone is primarily an androgen (though present in smaller amounts in females) and is not considered the primary female sex hormone. Insulin and thyroxine are metabolic hormones involved in glucose regulation and thyroid function, respectively, not sex hormone physiology.
Hyperglycemia means high:
- Sugar
- Vitamin
- Carbohydrate
- Salt
Explanation: Answer reason: The term breaks down as “hyper-” (high) and “-glycemia” (glucose in the bloodstream). Therefore, the condition specifically indicates high blood sugar rather than high vitamins, general dietary carbohydrate, or salt levels. This concept is central to diabetes physiology and monitoring with blood glucose measurements (e.g., mg/dL).
A nurse assessing the newborn of a mother with diabetes understands that hypoglycemia is related to what pathophysiological process?
- Disruption of fetal glucose supply
- Pancreatic insufficiency
- Maternal insulin dependency
- Reduced glycogen reserves
Explanation: Answer reason: At birth, the transplacental glucose source stops abruptly when the umbilical cord is clamped, but the newborn’s insulin level remains high for a period, rapidly lowering serum glucose. This makes the key mechanism an acute interruption of glucose delivery rather than an inability to produce insulin. Pancreatic insufficiency would tend to cause hyperglycemia, and reduced glycogen reserves may worsen or prolong hypoglycemia but is not the primary initiating process in this scenario.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
