Adverse Effects-Contraindications Practice Test 4
Adverse Effects-Contraindications NCLEX Practice Test
Adverse Effects-Contraindications is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Physiological Integrity → Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies → Adverse Effects-Contraindications. This section identifies medication risks, interactions, and adverse effects for safe pharmacologic care. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 4th part of the Adverse Effects-Contraindications series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Adverse Effects-Contraindications Practice Test 4
A client is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen for pain. What is the primary nursing consideration during hydrocodone/acetaminophen therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor liver function
- Monitor respiratory rate
Explanation: Answer reason: Hydrocodone/acetaminophen contains acetaminophen, which can cause hepatotoxicity. The key nursing consideration is monitoring liver function and total daily acetaminophen dose.
A client is prescribed lorazepam for anxiety. What is the primary nursing consideration when administering lorazepam?
- Monitor for signs of hyperactivity
- Administer with a full glass of water
- Encourage the client to engage in physical activity
- Assess for respiratory depression
Explanation: Answer reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can cause CNS and respiratory depression; the key safety priority is monitoring ventilation and sedation for early signs of respiratory compromise.
A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetracycline can reduce the efficacy of combined oral contraceptives by altering enterohepatic recirculation; advise a backup method of contraception.
What is the early sign of aspirin toxicity?
- Nausea and vomiting
- Abdominal tenderness
- Ringing in the ears
- Cheyne-Stokes respiration
- Kussmaul respiration
Explanation: Answer reason: Early salicylate (aspirin) toxicity commonly presents with tinnitus (ringing in the ears); GI upset can occur but tinnitus is the classic early sign.
What is the most common neurological complication associated with the swine flu influenza vaccine?
- Increased ICP
- Guillain-Barré syndrome
- Epilepsy
Explanation: Answer reason: Guillain-Barré syndrome is the recognized neurological complication historically associated with influenza (swine flu) vaccination; increased ICP and epilepsy are not typical vaccine-related complications.
A multiparous client using medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) for contraception should be instructed to increase her intake of which nutrient?
- Folic acid
- Vitamin C
- Calcium
- Magnesium
Explanation: Answer reason: Depot medroxyprogesterone can decrease bone mineral density due to hypoestrogenic effects. Clients should increase calcium intake (often with vitamin D) to protect bone health.
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with long-term use of PPIs?
- Diarrhea
- Hypertension
- Osteoporosis-related fractures
- Drowsiness
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic PPI use can reduce calcium absorption and is linked to decreased bone density and increased risk of osteoporotic fractures. The other options are not characteristic long-term adverse effects.
Which medication does the nurse understand to be Category X in pregnancy for a 24-year-old client in the fertility clinic?
- Metformin
- Gabapentin
- Simvastatin
- Amoxicillin
Explanation: Answer reason: Statins, including simvastatin, are contraindicated in pregnancy (former FDA Category X) due to teratogenic risk. The other options are not Category X.
A patient taking escitalopram (Lexapro) asks about potential drug interactions; which substance should the nurse caution the patient to avoid?
- Calcium supplements
- Grapefruit juice
- Multivitamins
- St. John's Wort
Explanation: Answer reason: St. John’s Wort has serotonergic activity and can precipitate serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs like escitalopram; it also induces CYP enzymes altering drug levels. Therefore it should be avoided.
A client is prescribed risperidone for schizophrenia. What is the primary nursing consideration during risperidone therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor liver function
- Monitor for extrapyramidal side effects
Explanation: Answer reason: Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia). Monitoring for EPS is a key nursing priority; bleeding and increased ICP are not typical risks, and liver function monitoring is not the primary concern.
The nurse caring for a 9 year-old child with a fractured femur is told that a medication error occurred. The child received twice the ordered dose of morphine an hour ago. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a PRIORITY at this time?
- Risk for fluid volume deficit related to morphine overdose
- Decreased gastrointestinal mobility related to mucosal irritation
- Ineffective breathing patterns related to central nervous system depression
- Altered nutrition related to inability to control nausea and vomiting
Explanation: Answer reason: Morphine overdose can cause CNS and respiratory depression; ensuring effective breathing is the immediate life-threatening priority over GI or nutrition concerns.
You are caring for a depressed client with a new prescription for an SSRI antidepressant. In reviewing the admission history and physical, which of the following should lead you to question the safety of this medication?
- History of obesity
- Prescribed use of an MAO inhibitor
- Diagnosis of vascular disease
- Takes antacids frequently
Explanation: Answer reason: SSRIs are contraindicated with MAO inhibitors due to risk of serious reactions such as serotonin syndrome; a washout period is required.
You are caring for a hypertensive client with a new order for captopril (Capoten). Which information should the nurse include in patient teaching?
- Avoid green leafy vegetables
- Restrict fluids to 1000cc/day
- Avoid the use of salt substitutes
- Take the medication with meals
Explanation: Answer reason: ACE inhibitors such as captopril can cause potassium retention leading to hyperkalemia. Salt substitutes are potassium-based and should be avoided. No fluid restriction is indicated, green leafy vegetables are not contraindicated, and captopril is best taken 1 hour before meals rather than with meals.
A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
- “I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.”
- “I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.”
- “I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.”
- “I always wear my medical identification.”
Explanation: Answer reason: Glyburide (a sulfonylurea) can cause hypoglycemia; meals should not be skipped. Carrying candy, limiting sun exposure due to photosensitivity risk, and wearing medical ID are appropriate.
A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy has been started on Proscar (finasteride). The nurse's discharge teaching should include?
- Telling the client's wife not to touch the tablets
- Explaining that the medication should be taken with meals
- Telling the client that symptoms will improve in 1–2 weeks
- Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime, to prevent nocturia
Explanation: Answer reason: Finasteride is teratogenic to a male fetus; women who are or may become pregnant should not handle the tablets (especially crushed/broken). Other options are incorrect: it does not need meals, onset takes months—not 1–2 weeks—and bedtime dosing doesn’t prevent nocturia.
A client treated for depression has developed signs of serotonin syndrome. The nurse recognizes that serotonin syndrome is caused by?
- Concurrent use of an MAO inhibitor and a SSRI
- Eating foods that are high in tyramine
- Drastic decreases in the dopamine level
- Use of medications containing pseudoephedrine
Explanation: Answer reason: Serotonin syndrome results from excessive serotonergic activity, commonly from combining MAOIs with SSRIs. Tyramine and pseudoephedrine relate to hypertensive crisis with MAOIs, and dopamine decreases are unrelated.
Hydralazine (a vasodilator) can produce?
- Seizures, extrapyramidal disturbances
- Tachycardia, lupus erythematosus
- Acute hepatitis
- Aplastic anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Hydralazine commonly causes reflex tachycardia and a drug-induced lupus-like syndrome; seizures, acute hepatitis, and aplastic anemia are not typical adverse effects.
The physician prescribes estrogen (Premarin) 0.625 mg daily for a 43-year-old woman. The nurse knows which of the following symptoms is a common initial side effect of this medication?
- Nausea.
- Visual disturbances.
- Tinnitus.
- Ataxia.
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral estrogen commonly causes early gastrointestinal upset such as nausea; visual changes, tinnitus, and ataxia are not typical initial effects.
Anxiolytic dosage reduction is recommended?
- In patients taking cimetidine
- In patients with hepatic dysfunction
- In elderly patients
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Cimetidine inhibits hepatic metabolism of many anxiolytics, hepatic dysfunction reduces drug clearance, and older adults have decreased clearance and increased sensitivity; therefore lower doses are recommended in all these cases.
Which assessment findings indicate pancytopenia in a client taking felbamate (Felbatol) for seizures?
- Sore throat
- Epistaxis
- Skin rash
- Gingival hyperplasia
Explanation: Answer reason: Felbamate can cause aplastic anemia (pancytopenia). An early warning sign of neutropenia is sore throat due to infection risk, which should be reported immediately.
A pregnant woman with upper RTI due to streptococcus bacteria has history of penicillin allergy. The suitable drug is?
- Amoxicillin
- Azithromycin
- Doxycycline
- Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Answer reason: Macrolides such as azithromycin are safe in pregnancy and cover streptococcal URIs. Amoxicillin is a penicillin (avoid with penicillin allergy). Doxycycline and chloramphenicol are contraindicated in pregnancy.
A client is prescribed prednisone for the treatment of inflammation. What is the nurse's priority assessment before administering prednisone?
- Blood pressure measurement
- Blood glucose level
- Serum potassium level
- Respiratory rate
Explanation: Answer reason: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can cause hyperglycemia by increasing gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Checking blood glucose is the priority assessment before administration.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- Hypertension
- Bradycardia
- Hyperactivity
- Increased appetite
Explanation: Answer reason: Digoxin toxicity commonly causes bradycardia due to increased vagal tone and slowed AV conduction. Hypertension, hyperactivity, and increased appetite are not typical signs (anorexia is more common).
A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypernatremia
Explanation: Answer reason: Low potassium increases digoxin binding to Na+/K+ ATPase, potentiating its effects and predisposing to toxicity and dysrhythmias.
A client with hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for with diuretic therapy?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypercalcemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Most diuretics increase renal sodium loss and water excretion, predisposing patients to hyponatremia. Hyperkalemia occurs with potassium-sparing agents; calcium effects vary by class.
A client is prescribed spironolactone. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- Serum sodium
- Serum potassium
- Serum calcium
- Serum creatinine
Explanation: Answer reason: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia; therefore, serum potassium must be monitored closely.
A client is prescribed clozapine for the treatment of schizophrenia. What is the primary concern that the nurse should monitor for with clozapine therapy?
- Hypertension
- Hyperglycemia
- Agranulocytosis
- Liver dysfunction
Explanation: Answer reason: Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis; nurses must monitor ANC/WBC closely as the primary safety concern.
A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for the treatment of tuberculosis. What should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking INH?
- Dairy products
- Tyramine-containing foods
- Alcohol
- High-fiber foods
Explanation: Answer reason: Isoniazid is hepatotoxic; alcohol increases the risk of liver damage and should be avoided during therapy.
A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What is the primary nursing consideration during digoxin therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor potassium levels
- Monitor for respiratory depression
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity; therefore potassium must be closely monitored. The other options are not primary concerns for digoxin therapy.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for with furosemide therapy?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypercalcemia
- Hypomagnesemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Loop diuretics like furosemide increase urinary excretion of magnesium (and potassium), predisposing to hypomagnesemia. Among the options listed, hypomagnesemia is the most characteristic imbalance to monitor.
A client is prescribed fluoxetine for depression. What is the primary nursing consideration during fluoxetine therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor liver function
- Monitor for serotonin syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: Fluoxetine is an SSRI; a key safety priority is monitoring for serotonin syndrome (agitation, confusion, hyperreflexia, fever). Bleeding risk can occur but is less primary than identifying this life‑threatening adverse effect; increased ICP and routine liver monitoring are not typical priorities with fluoxetine.
A client is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What is the primary nursing consideration during amiodarone therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor liver function
- Monitor pulmonary function
Explanation: Answer reason: Amiodarone’s most serious toxicity is pulmonary toxicity (e.g., pneumonitis/fibrosis). Priority nursing action is baseline and periodic pulmonary function monitoring and assessment for respiratory symptoms.
A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What is the primary nursing consideration during digoxin therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor liver function
- Monitor serum digoxin levels
Explanation: Answer reason: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index and risk of toxicity; monitoring serum digoxin levels is the primary nursing action to ensure therapeutic dosing and prevent toxicity.
Which drug is contraindicated in head injury?
- Morphine
- Antibiotic
- Oxygen
- I/V Fluids
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioids like morphine can depress respiration, raise CO2, increase intracranial pressure, and mask neurologic assessment, so they are contraindicated in head injury. Antibiotics, oxygen, and IV fluids are not inherently contraindicated.
Which assessment finding indicates a serious adverse effect of the calcium channel blocker verapamil in a client treated for cardiac dysrhythmias?
- Dizziness
- Flushed skin
- Bradycardia
- Peripheral edema
Explanation: Answer reason: Verapamil depresses SA/AV node conduction and can cause significant bradycardia or AV block, which is a serious adverse effect requiring intervention. Dizziness, flushing, and peripheral edema are more common but less serious effects.
Which of the following is a common side effect of chemotherapy?
- Hypertension
- Hair loss
- Increased appetite
- Improved vision
Explanation: Answer reason: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles, leading to alopecia (hair loss). The other options are not common chemo effects.
Which of these medications can cause this condition?
- Diclofenac
- Metformin
- Amiodarone
- Furosemide
Explanation: Answer reason: Amiodarone is associated with distinctive adverse effects such as blue-gray skin discoloration, thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, and pulmonary toxicity; this makes it the best match for a medication causing the depicted condition.
Which medications should clients avoid when taking lithium carbonate due to increased risk of lithium toxicity?
- Antacids
- Antibiotics
- Diuretics
- Hypoglycemic agents
Explanation: Answer reason: Diuretics, especially thiazides, promote sodium loss, which increases renal reabsorption of lithium and raises serum lithium levels, elevating the risk of toxicity.
Which anti-emetic medication is considered safe for use during pregnancy?
- Metoclopramide
- Ondansetron
- Doxylamine
- Dimenhydrinate
Explanation: Answer reason: Doxylamine (often combined with pyridoxine) is first-line for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy with strong safety data, making it the safest choice among the listed antiemetics.
Which effect may be exhibited by a child with acute leukemia who is started on chemotherapy including Prednisone?
- Alopecia
- Anorexia
- Mood Changes
- Weight loss
Explanation: Answer reason: Prednisone, a corticosteroid used in chemotherapy regimens, commonly causes mood and behavioral changes (e.g., irritability, euphoria). It typically increases appetite and can cause weight gain, not anorexia or weight loss; alopecia is more related to other chemo agents.
A client has an order for streptokinase. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the client for?
- Allergies to pineapples and bananas
- A history of streptococcal infections
- Prior therapy with phenytoin
- A history of alcohol abuse
Explanation: Answer reason: Streptokinase is derived from streptococci; prior streptococcal infection can produce antistreptokinase antibodies, increasing risk of allergic reactions and reducing efficacy. Therefore assess for a history of streptococcal infections.
While obtaining information about the client's current medication use, the nurse learns that the client takes ginkgo to improve mental alertness. The nurse should tell the client to?
- Report signs of bruising or bleeding to the doctor
- Avoid sun exposure while using the herbal
- Purchase only those brands with FDA approval
- Increase daily intake of vitamin E
Explanation: Answer reason: Ginkgo biloba can inhibit platelet aggregation and increase bleeding risk; clients should report bruising or bleeding. Photosensitivity is associated with St. John’s wort, supplements aren’t FDA-approved, and increasing vitamin E would further increase bleeding risk.
A client with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is receiving Platinol (cisplatin). To help prevent nephrotoxicity, the nurse should?
- Slow the infusion rate
- Make sure the client is well hydrated
- Record the intake and output every shift
- Tell the client to report ringing in the ears
Explanation: Answer reason: Cisplatin is highly nephrotoxic; aggressive hydration and diuresis help prevent renal tubular injury. Other options do not directly prevent nephrotoxicity (ringing in ears relates to ototoxicity).
A client has been receiving Rheumatrex (methotrexate) for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should tell the client to avoid taking?
- Aspirin
- Multivitamins
- Omega 3 fish oils
- Acetaminophen
Explanation: Answer reason: NSAIDs such as aspirin reduce renal clearance of methotrexate and increase toxicity and bleeding risk; clients should avoid aspirin while on methotrexate. The other options are not specific contraindications in typical RA dosing.
A client hospitalized for treatment of congestive heart failure is to be discharged with a prescription for Digitek (digoxin) 0.25mg daily. Which of the following statements indicates that the client needs further teaching?
- "I will need to take the medication at the same time each day."
- "I can prevent stomach upset by taking the medication with an antacid."
- "I can help prevent drug toxicity by eating foods containing fiber."
- "I will need to report visual changes to my doctor."
Explanation: Answer reason: Antacids decrease digoxin absorption and should not be taken concurrently; take digoxin at the same time daily and report visual changes. High-fiber foods can also reduce absorption, so they are not used to prevent toxicity.
A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted in a cholinergic crisis. Signs of cholinergic crisis include?
- Decreased blood pressure and constricted pupils
- Increased heart rate and increased respirations
- Increased respirations and increased blood pressure
- Anoxia and absence of the cough reflex
Explanation: Answer reason: Cholinergic crisis (excess acetylcholine from anticholinesterase excess) causes muscarinic effects such as miosis and hypotension; tachycardia and hypertension are more consistent with myasthenic crisis.
A client with bipolar disorder is discharged with a prescription for Depakote (divalproex sodium). The nurse should remind the client of the need for?
- Frequent dental visits
- Frequent lab work
- Additional fluids
- Additional sodium
Explanation: Answer reason: Valproate (divalproex) requires regular monitoring of liver function tests and platelets due to risks of hepatotoxicity and thrombocytopenia. Dental visits relate to phenytoin; increased fluids or sodium are counseling points for lithium, not valproate.
The physician has ordered Coumadin (sodium warfarin) for a client with a history of clots. The nurse should tell the client to avoid which of the following vegetables?
- Lettuce
- Cauliflower
- Beets
- Carrots
Explanation: Answer reason: Warfarin’s effect is reduced by vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables like lettuce are high in vitamin K and should be avoided or kept consistent.
A client has recently been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The nurse should tell the client to avoid taking?
- Aleve (naprosyn)
- Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
- Tylenol (acetaminophen)
- Robitussin (guaifenesin)
Explanation: Answer reason: Diphenhydramine has anticholinergic effects that can cause mydriasis and raise intraocular pressure, which is contraindicated in glaucoma. The other options (NSAID, acetaminophen, expectorant) do not increase IOP.
A client tells the nurse that she takes St. John's wort (hypericum perforatum) three times a day for mild depression. The nurse should tell the client that?
- St. John's wort seldom relieves depression.
- She should avoid eating aged cheese.
- Skin reactions increase with the use of sunscreen.
- The herbal should not be taken with other antidepressants.
Explanation: Answer reason:St. John’s wort has serotonergic activity and enzyme-inducing effects. When combined with other antidepressants (especially SSRIs, SNRIs, or MAOIs), it can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome and reduce medication effectiveness. Therefore, clients should be instructed not to take St. John’s wort concurrently with other antidepressants.
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