Expected Actions-Outcomes Practice Test 3
Expected Actions-Outcomes NCLEX Practice Test
Expected Actions-Outcomes is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Physiological Integrity → Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies → Expected Actions-Outcomes. This section links pharmacologic mechanisms to expected therapeutic responses and monitoring. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Expected Actions-Outcomes series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Expected Actions-Outcomes Practice Test 3
A client is prescribed atorvastatin for hypercholesterolemia. What is the primary therapeutic effect of atorvastatin?
- Increase in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels
- Reduction in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels
- Lowering of total cholesterol and LDL levels
- Elevation of triglyceride levels
Explanation: Answer reason: Atorvastatin, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, decreases hepatic cholesterol synthesis and increases LDL receptors, leading to reduced total cholesterol and LDL as the primary therapeutic effect.
Which clinical manifestation should decrease when nesiritide is effective in a client with acute heart failure and pulmonary edema?
- Dyspnea
- Hypotension
- Unstable angina
- Premature heartbeats
Explanation: Answer reason: Nesiritide (recombinant BNP) causes vasodilation and promotes natriuresis, reducing preload and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. This relieves pulmonary edema and improves dyspnea. Hypotension is an adverse effect, and it does not treat angina or premature beats.
What medication should be readily available prior to the arrival of a patient who attempted suicide by ingesting ethylene glycol?
- Fomepizole
- Naloxone
- Deferoxamine
- Acetylcysteine
Explanation: Answer reason: Ethylene glycol poisoning is treated with fomepizole, an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor that prevents formation of toxic metabolites. Naloxone treats opioid overdose, deferoxamine treats iron toxicity, and acetylcysteine treats acetaminophen overdose.
Which medication should be added to a long-term proton pump inhibitor regimen in a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease to enhance esophageal motility?
- Metoclopramide
- Omeprazole
- Famotidine
- Pantoprazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that increases lower esophageal sphincter tone and enhances gastric emptying, improving esophageal motility. Omeprazole and pantoprazole are PPIs and famotidine is an H2 blocker; they reduce acid but do not enhance motility.
Which of the following signs indicates an expected side effect of intravenous magnesium sulfate?
- Less frequent urination
- Frequent sleepiness
- Absence of knee-jerk reflex
- Decreased respirations
Explanation: Answer reason: Drowsiness/sedation is a common, expected effect of IV magnesium sulfate. Oliguria, loss of deep tendon (knee-jerk) reflexes, and respiratory depression indicate magnesium toxicity and require intervention.
What is the antidote for an accidental overdose of Atenolol in a 76-year-old male with bradycardia and hypotension?
- Digibind
- Calcium Gluconate
- Glucagon
- Calcium Disodium Edetate
Explanation: Answer reason: Atenolol is a beta-blocker; overdose causes bradycardia and hypotension. Glucagon increases cAMP independently of beta-receptors, improving heart rate and contractility, making it the antidote of choice.
What is the primary reason for administering mannitol to a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- Reduce the secretions of CSF
- Increase urine output
- Shift the fluid by osmosis thus decrease the ICP
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that creates an osmotic gradient, drawing water from brain tissue into the intravascular space to reduce cerebral edema and ICP. Increased urine output is a secondary effect and it does not reduce CSF production.
Which of the following medications is the safest to administer to adults needing assistance in falling asleep?
- Barbiturates
- SSRIs
- Minor tranquilizers
- Benzodiazepines
Explanation: Answer reason: Benzodiazepines are sedative-hypnotics with a wider safety margin than barbiturates and are commonly used short term for insomnia. SSRIs are antidepressants that may worsen insomnia, and the nonspecific category 'minor tranquilizers' is not preferred.
A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What is the primary nursing consideration during levothyroxine therapy?
- Monitor for signs of bleeding
- Assess for increased intracranial pressure
- Monitor thyroid function tests
- Monitor for respiratory depression
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine dosing is guided by TSH and free T4 values; monitoring thyroid function tests evaluates therapeutic effectiveness and prevents over- or under-replacement.
A client is admitted with a suspected overdose of acetaminophen. What intervention is essential in the early management of acetaminophen toxicity?
- Administering activated charcoal
- Administering naloxone
- Administering vitamin K
- Administering acetylcysteine
Explanation: Answer reason: N-acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity; given early (ideally within 8–10 hours) it replenishes glutathione and prevents hepatic injury. Naloxone is for opioid overdose, vitamin K is for warfarin reversal, and activated charcoal may reduce absorption but is not the essential antidotal therapy.
A client with hypothyroidism asks the nurse if she will still need to take thyroid medication during the pregnancy. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that?
- There is no need to take thyroid medication because the fetus's thyroid produces a thyroid-stimulating hormone.
- Regulation of thyroid medication is more difficult because the thyroid gland increases in size during pregnancy.
- It is more difficult to maintain thyroid regulation during pregnancy due to a slowing of metabolism.
- Fetal growth is arrested if thyroid medication is continued during pregnancy.
Explanation: Answer reason: Pregnant clients with hypothyroidism should continue levothyroxine; dose regulation is often more difficult because pregnancy increases thyroid demands and gland size, often requiring higher doses. Options A, C, and D are incorrect: fetal TSH does not replace maternal therapy, metabolism increases (not slows), and levothyroxine is safe and necessary for fetal growth.
What medication is anticipated to be ordered for a patient with organophosphate poisoning experiencing muscle tremors, severe drooling, and diaphoresis?
- Atropine
- Glucagon
- Physostigmine
- Succimer
Explanation: Answer reason: Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase causing cholinergic excess (salivation, diaphoresis, bronchial secretions). Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, reverses these muscarinic effects.
Which type of insulin is prescribed for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?
- Long-acting insulin
- Human regular insulin
- Lente insulin
- Human NPH insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: DKA is treated with IV regular insulin to rapidly decrease ketogenesis and blood glucose; regular insulin is the only insulin suitable for IV infusion. Long-acting, NPH, and lente are not used for DKA management.
An 18-year-old pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with malodorous vaginal discharge and motile flagellated organisms on wet mount; which antibiotic is the appropriate treatment?
- Ampicillin
- Metronidazole
- Diflucan
- Gentamicin
- Bactrim
Explanation: Answer reason: Motile flagellated organisms indicate Trichomonas vaginalis; first-line therapy is metronidazole, which is safe in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters. Other options do not treat trichomoniasis or are contraindicated in pregnancy.
The nurse notes that a client is receiving ganciclovir sodium; for the treatment of which disorder is this medication most likely prescribed?
- Pancreatitis
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
- Urolithiasis
Explanation: Answer reason: Ganciclovir is an antiviral used primarily to treat CMV infections, especially CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients.
An 82-year-old client is taking lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which outcome indicates the medication is effective?
- Increased appetite
- Fewer bowel movements
- Improved mental status
- Weight gain
Explanation: Answer reason: Lactulose reduces intestinal ammonia absorption, lowering serum ammonia and improving encephalopathy; the best indicator is improved mentation. It typically increases, not decreases, bowel movements.
What is the priority drug to be administered by the nurse in a child with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- IV NPH
- 2.5% Dextrose in Normal Saline (DNS)
- IV Normal Saline (NS)
- Insulin injection
Explanation: Answer reason: In DKA the priority medication is insulin, given as regular insulin (typically IV) to stop ketogenesis and lower glucose. NPH is not given IV; dextrose solutions are added later after glucose falls; normal saline is a fluid, not the priority drug.
Which drug is administered intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta and membranes to prevent postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
- Acetaminophen 1000mg
- Fluconazole 150mg
- Pethidine 100mg
- Oxytocin 10iu
Explanation: Answer reason: Active management of the third stage of labor uses oxytocin 10 IU IM to promote uterine contraction and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other options are analgesic, antifungal, or opioid analgesic and do not prevent PPH.
A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What is the primary action of metformin?
- Increasing insulin secretion
- Enhancing insulin receptor sensitivity
- Inhibiting glucose absorption in the intestine
- Stimulating glucose release from the liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Metformin primarily improves peripheral insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. It does not increase insulin secretion or stimulate hepatic glucose release; decreased intestinal absorption is minimal.
A client is prescribed clopidogrel after a coronary artery stent placement. What is the primary purpose of clopidogrel therapy?
- Reducing blood pressure
- Preventing platelet aggregation
- Lowering cholesterol levels
- Improving cardiac contractility
Explanation: Answer reason: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet P2Y12 inhibitor used after stent placement to inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent stent thrombosis; it does not lower blood pressure, cholesterol, or improve contractility.
What is acyclovir primarily used to treat?
- Herpes simplex
- Eczema
- Fibromyalgia
- Epilepsy
Explanation: Answer reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication effective against herpesviruses, particularly herpes simplex (HSV-1/HSV-2).
Which medication is used for fever?
- Ciprofloxacin
- Amoxicillin
- Acetaminophen
- Cetirizine
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetaminophen is an antipyretic used to reduce fever; ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin are antibiotics, and cetirizine is an antihistamine.
A pregnant woman is hospitalized for treatment of pregnancy induced hypertension in the 3rd trimester. She is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse understands that this medication is used MAINLY to?
- Maintain normal blood pressure
- Prevent convulsive seizures
- Decrease the respiratory rate
- Increase uterine blood flow
Explanation: Answer reason: Magnesium sulfate is used in pregnancy-induced hypertension primarily as a CNS depressant to prevent eclamptic seizures, not to control blood pressure, reduce respirations, or alter uterine blood flow.
You are caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on heparin IV. The latest APTT is 50. If the laboratory normal range is 16-24 seconds, you would anticipate?
- Maintaining the current heparin dose
- Increasing the heparin as it does not appear therapeutic.
- Giving protamine sulfate as an antidote.
- Repeating the blood test one hour after giving heparin.
Explanation: Answer reason: Therapeutic aPTT for heparin is about 1.5–2 times the control. With a normal of 16–24 s, an aPTT of 50 s indicates a therapeutic effect, so the current dose should be maintained.
The nurse enters the room of a client diagnosed with COPD. The client's skin is pink, and respirations are 8/minute. The client's oxygen is running at 6L/minute. What should be the nurse's FIRST action?
- Call the physician
- Put the client in Fowler's position
- Lower the oxygen rate
- Take the vital signs
Explanation: Answer reason: COPD patients may rely on hypoxic drive to breathe. High-flow oxygen can suppress this drive, causing bradypnea (RR 8/min). The priority is to reduce the oxygen flow rate immediately.
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving a thrombolitic agent, Alteplase (activasetsissue plasminogen activator) for treatment of a myocardial infarction. What outcome indicates the client is receiving adequate therapy within the first hours of therapy?
- Absence of a dysrhythmia (or arrhythmia)
- Blood pressure reduction
- Cardiac enzymes are within normal limits
- Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG
Explanation: Answer reason: Effective thrombolysis in acute MI is evidenced by reperfusion, shown by ST-segment returning toward baseline. Cardiac enzymes initially rise after reperfusion, BP reduction is nonspecific, and dysrhythmias may occur with reperfusion.
Ondansetron, 8 mg IV given before chemotherapy is to prevent?
- Dyspnea
- Weakness
- Pain
- Nausea and vomiting
Explanation: Answer reason: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not dyspnea, weakness, or pain.
A client is diagnosed with oral candidiasis. The nurse knows that this condition in AIDS is treated with?
- Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
- Acyclovir
- Fluconazole
- Zidovudine
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral candidiasis (thrush) is a fungal infection caused by Candida and is treated with antifungals such as fluconazole. TMP-SMX treats Pneumocystis/toxoplasmosis, acyclovir treats herpes viruses, and zidovudine is an antiretroviral.
A client with type 1 diabetes is prescribed regular insulin. When is the peak action of regular insulin?
- 30 minutes after administration
- 1 to 2 hours after administration
- 4 to 6 hours after administration
- 8 to 12 hours after administration
Explanation: Answer reason: Regular (short-acting) insulin typically peaks about 2–4 hours after dosing; among the provided choices, 1–2 hours is the closest correct timeframe. Thirty minutes is onset, and later times correspond to intermediate-acting insulin.
A client is admitted with exacerbation of asthma. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- Administering antipyretics
- Administering bronchodilators as ordered
- Encouraging fluid restriction
- Administering corticosteroids as ordered
Explanation: Answer reason: In an acute asthma exacerbation the immediate priority is to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow. Short-acting bronchodilators act quickly; antipyretics and fluid restriction are not indicated, and corticosteroids reduce inflammation but have a slower onset than bronchodilators.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a phosphate binder. What is the purpose of this medication?
- Increase phosphate absorption
- Bind to calcium in the intestines
- Promote phosphate excretion
- Reduce potassium levels
Explanation: Answer reason: Phosphate binders bind dietary phosphate in the intestines, reducing its absorption and increasing fecal excretion. They do not increase absorption, do not bind to calcium as their primary action, and are not used to lower potassium.
A client is prescribed isosorbide dinitrate for angina. What is the primary action of isosorbide dinitrate?
- Increasing heart rate
- Dilating coronary arteries
- Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
- Increasing sodium reabsorption
Explanation: Answer reason: Isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate that releases nitric oxide, causing vasodilation, especially of venous and coronary arteries, improving coronary blood flow and reducing myocardial oxygen demand.
A client is prescribed metoclopramide. What is the therapeutic effect of metoclopramide?
- Reducing gastric acid secretion
- Enhancing gastric emptying
- Increasing mucus production
- Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic dopamine D2 antagonist that increases GI motility and accelerates gastric emptying; it does not reduce acid, increase mucus, or inhibit prostaglandins.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. What is the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa?
- Reduction of blood pressure
- Increased red blood cell production
- Enhanced potassium excretion
- Improved calcium absorption
Explanation: Answer reason: Epoetin alfa is recombinant erythropoietin that stimulates erythropoiesis to treat anemia of chronic kidney disease, increasing RBC production.
A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What is the primary therapeutic effect of levothyroxine?
- Decreased heart rate
- Increased thyroid hormone levels
- Reduced metabolic rate
- Elevated blood pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine is synthetic T4 used to treat hypothyroidism; its therapeutic goal is to raise and normalize thyroid hormone levels. The other options describe opposite effects or non-primary outcomes.
A client is prescribed enalapril for heart failure. What is the primary action of enalapril?
- Increasing heart rate
- Inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
- Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
- Promotion of sodium excretion
Explanation: Answer reason: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone. That is its primary action.
A client is prescribed atorvastatin for hypercholesterolemia. What is the primary action of atorvastatin?
- Increasing gastric acid secretion
- Inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver
- Increasing mucus production
- Enhancing gastric emptying
Explanation: Answer reason: Atorvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) that reduces hepatic cholesterol synthesis, thereby lowering LDL.
A client is prescribed ranitidine for peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary action of ranitidine?
- Increasing gastric acid secretion
- Inhibiting histamine receptors in the stomach
- Increasing mucus production
- Enhancing gastric emptying
Explanation: Answer reason: Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that blocks histamine H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells, thereby decreasing gastric acid secretion. It does not increase acid, mucus production, or gastric emptying.
A client is prescribed metoprolol for hypertension. What is the primary action of metoprolol?
- Vasodilation
- Inhibition of beta-adrenergic receptors
- Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
- Promotion of sodium excretion
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 adrenergic receptor blocker, decreasing heart rate, contractility, and renin release; its primary action is beta-receptor inhibition, not vasodilation or sodium excretion.
A client is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). What is the primary therapeutic effect of ranitidine?
- Stimulation of gastric acid secretion
- Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
- Promotion of gastric motility
- Prevention of gastric ulcer formation
Explanation: Answer reason: Ranitidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that blocks histamine at parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. It does not stimulate acid or primarily increase motility; ulcer prevention is a result of decreased acid, not the primary effect.
A client is prescribed allopurinol for the treatment of gout. What is the primary therapeutic effect of allopurinol?
- Increased uric acid excretion
- Inhibition of uric acid production
- Enhanced kidney function
- Reduction of pain and inflammation
Explanation: Answer reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, decreasing uric acid synthesis. It is not a uricosuric agent, does not directly enhance kidney function, and is not primarily an analgesic or anti-inflammatory.
A client is prescribed allopurinol for chronic gout. What is the primary action of allopurinol?
- Reducing inflammation
- Lowering uric acid levels
- Relieving pain
- Inhibiting platelet aggregation
Explanation: Answer reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, decreasing uric acid production to prevent gout attacks; it is not an analgesic, anti-platelet, or primary anti-inflammatory for acute flares.
A client is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). What is the primary therapeutic effect of clopidogrel?
- Anticoagulation
- Platelet inhibition
- Vasodilation
- Reduction of cholesterol levels
Explanation: Answer reason: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that blocks ADP (P2Y12) receptors to inhibit platelet aggregation. It is not an anticoagulant, vasodilator, or lipid-lowering drug.
A client is prescribed metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting. What is the primary action of metoclopramide?
- Increasing gastric acid secretion
- Promoting gastric emptying
- Inhibiting serotonin receptors
- Blocking histamine receptors
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic D2 antagonist that increases GI motility, accelerating gastric emptying and helping relieve nausea. It does not increase acid (A); H2 blockers handle histamine receptors (D); serotonin receptor inhibition is not its primary action (C).
A client is prescribed atenolol for angina. What is the primary therapeutic effect of atenolol?
- Dilating coronary arteries
- Reducing heart rate and contractility
- Increasing blood pressure
- Inhibiting platelet aggregation
Explanation: Answer reason: Atenolol is a beta-1 selective beta-blocker that lowers myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility, relieving angina. It does not primarily dilate coronaries, increase BP, or inhibit platelets.
A client is prescribed isosorbide dinitrate for angina. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- Increased heart rate
- Vasodilation of coronary arteries
- Inhibition of platelet aggregation
- Enhanced myocardial contractility
Explanation: Answer reason: Isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate that releases nitric oxide, causing vasodilation (including coronary arteries), improving myocardial oxygen supply and relieving angina. Increased heart rate is a reflex side effect, platelet inhibition is due to antiplatelets, and it does not enhance contractility.
A client is admitted with a suspected overdose of benzodiazepines. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- Administering activated charcoal
- Administering an opioid analgesic
- Administering naloxone
- Administering an antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Naloxone reverses opioids, not benzodiazepines. The specific benzodiazepine antidote is flumazenil (not listed). Among the options, early administration of activated charcoal can reduce benzodiazepine absorption and is the most appropriate priority intervention. Opioid analgesic and antiemetic are not indicated.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. What is the therapeutic effect of sevelamer?
- Reducing blood pressure
- Lowering cholesterol levels
- Binding phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract
- Increasing calcium absorption
Explanation: Answer reason: Sevelamer is a non-calcium phosphate binder used in CKD to treat hyperphosphatemia by binding dietary phosphate in the GI tract, reducing absorption.
A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What is the primary therapeutic effect of levothyroxine?
- Reducing heart rate
- Lowering cholesterol levels
- Increasing thyroid hormone levels
- Promoting diuresis
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine is synthetic T4 used to replace deficient thyroid hormone in hypothyroidism; its primary effect is to increase circulating thyroid hormone levels.
A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- Decrease in blood pressure
- Diuresis and fluid loss
- Inhibition of aldosterone
- Increased cardiac contractility
Explanation: Answer reason: Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist. In heart failure, its primary therapeutic effect is blocking aldosterone, which reduces sodium and water retention and adverse remodeling; diuresis is secondary and mild.
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