Question 1

Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Converting 100 μm to millimeters gives 100 μm ÷ 1000 = 0.1 mm, so it is smaller than 1 mm. In contrast, 0.001 m and 10-3 m both represent 10^-3 m, which equals 1 mm, and 0.1 cm equals 1 mm because 1 cm = 10 mm. Therefore, the only option not equivalent to 1 mm is the micrometer value given.

Question 2

Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 3.5 billion years ago. The core principle is that the earliest life forms on Earth were prokaryotes, which appear very early in the geologic record. Microfossils and stromatolites provide evidence of bacterial life dating back roughly 3.5 billion years. This timeframe aligns with early Earth conditions after crust stabilization and the emergence of shallow marine environments conducive to microbial mats. The smaller “years ago” options are far too recent for the origin of cellular life, while the extremely large value is incompatible with Earth’s ~4.5-billion-year age.

Question 3

Clor coding for Nitrous oxide cylinder is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nitrous oxide is identified by a blue color code in commonly taught systems for anesthesia gas identification, helping clinicians rapidly distinguish it from oxygen and other gases during setup and transport. This directly matches the option specifying French blue. Options like black/white-shouldered or gray are typically associated with other gases in various standards and would increase the risk of misidentification.

Question 4

Which of following glove is of largest size?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Glove sizing is standardized so that higher numeric sizes correspond to a larger hand circumference and therefore a larger glove. Among the listed numeric options, 7.0 is greater than 6.5 and 6.0, so it represents the largest size. “None” is not appropriate because a largest size is clearly present within the provided options. This tests basic equipment knowledge used in clinical practice for selecting appropriately fitting sterile gloves.

Question 5

Which of the following catheters is NOT Used in parenteral nutrition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hickman, Groshong, and Broviac are tunneled central venous catheters commonly used for long-term therapies such as TPN. A Swan-Ganz catheter is a pulmonary artery catheter designed for hemodynamic monitoring (e.g., pulmonary artery pressures, cardiac output), not for administering parenteral nutrition. Using a monitoring catheter for infusion would be inappropriate and increases risk of complications and inaccurate monitoring.

Question 6

The following is NOT a common risk factor for insomnia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Older adults have higher rates of insomnia due to changes in circadian rhythm, comorbid illness burden, and medication effects. Female sex is also linked with higher insomnia prevalence, partly related to hormonal transitions and higher rates of mood/anxiety disorders. In contrast, regular physical activity generally improves sleep quality and sleep efficiency, so it is not considered a typical risk factor.

Question 7

Chest compression and ventilation ratio in neonatal resuscitation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Neonatal Resuscitation Program recommends a coordinated ratio of three compressions to one ventilation, targeting about 90 compressions and 30 breaths per minute (120 events/min). This balance optimizes oxygen delivery while still supporting circulation during bradycardia or asystole. Ratios like 30:2 used in older children/adults are not used in routine neonatal CPR because the pathophysiology differs and effective ventilation is the key initial intervention.

Question 8

Which advanced waste treatment technology utilizes high-pressure, high-temperature steam to effectively sterilize and reduce the volume of medical waste, while also generating renewable energy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., biogas/syngas depending on the specific process configuration). This aligns with hydrothermal approaches, which use pressurized hot water/steam to break down waste and can be integrated with energy recovery. Autoclaving also uses pressurized steam for sterilization, but it is primarily a disinfection/sterilization step and does not inherently generate renewable energy. Pyrolysis is thermal treatment in low oxygen and does not rely on steam sterilization as the defining mechanism, while supercritical water oxidation focuses on oxidative destruction in supercritical water rather than steam sterilization with volume reduction plus energy generation as described.

Question 9

No matter which advance practice registered nurse (APRN) specialty is chosen, there are 3 required graduate-level courses (the APRN Core) in every program. Which of the following is not one of these?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Those three focus on diagnosing and managing patient problems using advanced clinical reasoning and prescribing-related knowledge. Health promotion/disease prevention is essential content in APRN education but is not one of the universally named “APRN Core” triad courses. A common distractor is thinking prevention is part of the core because it is emphasized in primary care, but it is not the standardized core course title set required for all APRN programs.

Question 10

What are some benefits of regular exercise mentioned in the passage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The passage explicitly lists weight management and improved cardiovascular health as benefits of regular physical activity. When a question asks what is mentioned, the best answer is the option that directly matches the stated benefits without adding or substituting unstated effects. This choice accurately reproduces two of the exact benefits cited in the text. Other options either include benefits not mentioned (e.g., cognitive function, social interactions) or combine only one clearly stated benefit with wording that is less directly paired in the passage compared with this option.

Question 11

Isolation of a child with mumps belongs to what level of prevention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease transmission and reduce incidence before new cases occur. Isolating a child with mumps breaks the chain of infection by limiting exposure of susceptible contacts to respiratory droplets. While the child is already infected, the purpose of isolation is community-level prevention of spread rather than treating sequelae. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection/screening, and tertiary prevention focuses on limiting disability from established disease.

Question 12

Which of the following concepts are LEAST likely to coincide?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Environmental injustice commonly places hazardous sites near low-income communities, and overcrowding/poor ventilation increases transmission risk for tuberculosis. Residential segregation historically aligns with suburbanization patterns that separate resources and opportunities by geography and socioeconomic status. In contrast, globalization tends to increase interconnectedness and can widen within- and between-country inequalities through unequal distribution of capital, labor protections, and health resources, making equality least likely to coincide.

Question 13

Which of the following is known as “Father of Public Health”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: He is widely credited with pioneering modern epidemiology through investigation of the 1854 London cholera outbreak using mapping and source-tracing. This work demonstrated how identifying and removing an environmental exposure can rapidly reduce community disease burden, a hallmark public health approach. A common distractor is Louis Pasteur, who is most associated with germ theory, vaccination, and microbiology rather than being labeled the father of public health. The other options are diseases, not individuals, so they cannot fit the “father of” eponym.

Question 14

Because an endotracheal tube (ET tube) is placed inside a body cavity, intubation is considered ____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Endotracheal intubation places a tube through the upper airway into the trachea, breaching normal protective barriers and increasing risks such as trauma, bleeding, aspiration, and infection. Because it requires skilled technique and ongoing monitoring to prevent complications (e.g., tube dislodgement, hypoxia), it is classified by invasiveness rather than by convenience or scheduling. “Routine” or “minor” may describe frequency or perceived complexity, but they do not change the procedural classification based on entering a body cavity.

Question 15

How have advancements in wearable health monitoring devices enabled earlier detection of infectious disease outbreaks in high-risk populations?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early outbreak detection depends on timely physiologic signal capture, analytic interpretation, and rapid communication to response systems. Continuous wearable monitoring can detect subtle deviations (e.g., rising temperature, heart rate, or respiratory rate) that may precede clinical presentation in high-risk groups. AI-enabled models can integrate these streams to identify patterns consistent with emerging infection clusters and reduce noise from individual variability. Real-time sharing with public health authorities supports faster surveillance, confirmation, and intervention compared with delayed, manual reporting, so combining all three mechanisms best explains earlier detection.

Question 16

Which of the following describes a neutron?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes the neutral description the only option that matches the fundamental property of a neutron. By contrast, a positively charged subatomic particle refers to a proton, and a negatively charged subatomic particle refers to an electron. A negatively charged atom describes an anion (an atom that has gained electrons), which is not a neutron.

Question 17

The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Listening first establishes a baseline of bowel activity and helps detect hypoactive, hyperactive, or absent sounds before the abdomen is manipulated. Percussion then helps estimate gas patterns, organ size, and presence of fluid (e.g., dullness with ascites). Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, masses, and guarding while minimizing discomfort and avoiding changes to findings caused by earlier maneuvers.

Question 18

Good crying scores—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A score of 2 reflects a strong, appropriate response (e.g., crying/vigorous withdrawal) indicating intact neurologic reflexes and better immediate adaptation after birth. A score of 1 indicates only a minimal response (grimace), and 0 indicates no response, both suggesting the need for closer assessment/support. Therefore, a good crying response corresponds to the highest value on this parameter.

Question 19

According ramsey scale a patient sluggish response on loud sound, sedation score is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A sluggish response to a loud auditory stimulus implies the patient is not readily responsive to normal conversation and requires a stronger verbal stimulus, indicating deeper sedation. This corresponds to the level where the patient responds only to a brisk auditory stimulus rather than being cooperative or quickly responsive. Lower scores reflect an anxious/cooperative or lightly sedated patient who responds promptly to voice, whereas this presentation indicates a more depressed level of arousal.

Question 20

SUBCUTANEOUS injection is given at what angle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An insertion angle of about 45° is the classic technique that helps ensure the needle tip reaches subcutaneous fat, especially in average or thinner patients. A 10–15° angle is typically used for intradermal injections, which target the dermis for tests like TB screening. A 90° angle more reliably reaches muscle unless a very short needle and ample adipose tissue are present, so it is not the single best general answer here.

Question 21

Slow, irregular breathing scores—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Slow, irregular respirations reflect compromised ventilation and reduced physiologic stability, so they are not scored as normal/high. They also typically are not the lowest possible score because the lowest category is reserved for absent respirations or extreme failure. Therefore the intermediate low score is the best match for slow, irregular breathing.

Question 22

A patient makes a decision in order to get a reward. The nurse understands this is which stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Moral reasoning focused on personal consequences (reward seeking or punishment avoidance) reflects the earliest level of Kohlberg’s framework. At this level, choices are driven by what benefits the individual rather than by social expectations or internalized ethical principles. Conventional reasoning centers on maintaining relationships, rules, and societal order, which goes beyond simple reward-based decision-making. Postconventional reasoning relies on abstract principles and rights, not immediate personal gain. Therefore, reward-motivated decisions align best with the preconventional stage.

Question 23

Nucleic acid is absent in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not contain nucleic acids (DNA or RNA). In contrast, mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA, and the nucleolus is rich in RNA involved in ribosome synthesis.

Question 24

Which program deals with tuberculosis control?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This program standardizes case detection, DOTS-based treatment, drug supply, and monitoring/reporting to reduce transmission and improve cure rates. The immunization program focuses on vaccines broadly rather than TB case management, while the child development scheme addresses nutrition/early childhood services. The leprosy program is disease-specific but targets leprosy, not TB, making it an incorrect match to the stem.

Question 25

First stool of the neonate is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is typically thick, sticky, and dark green/black due to bile pigments, mucus, lanugo, and swallowed amniotic fluid. Passage within the first 24–48 hours is an expected newborn finding and helps screen for bowel patency. Other choices refer to different substances: chyme is partially digested stomach contents, vernix is a skin coating, and colostrum is early breast milk.

Question 26

Which of the following terms describes a child’s behavior of treating inanimate objects as though they are alive?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This definition directly matches the behavior described in the stem. Artificialism instead refers to believing natural phenomena are made by people (e.g., “mountains were built”), not that objects are alive. Magical thinking and pretend play may coexist at this age but do not specifically mean assigning “aliveness” to inanimate objects.

Question 27

An instrument with a smaller least count provides which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A smaller least count means the instrument can measure smaller increments, which increases the precision (repeatability and resolution) of the measurement. It does not necessarily affect accuracy, which depends on calibration, and it reduces uncertainty rather than increasing it.

Question 28

Which organelle is surrounded by a double membrane?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mitochondria are enclosed by both an outer and an inner membrane, which supports their role in ATP production. Ribosomes and centrioles lack membranes, and vacuoles are surrounded by a single membrane.

Question 29

The cell wall is present in all of the following exxcept?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatocytes are animal (human) cells, so they do not have a cell wall. In contrast, plant cells have cellulose-based walls, fungi have chitin-based walls, and bacteria have peptidoglycan-containing walls. Therefore the only exception among the options is the animal liver cell.

Question 30

The World Health Organization (WHO) was established in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The WHO’s Constitution came into force on April 7, 1948, which is recognized as the organization’s official establishment date and is commemorated as World Health Day. Dates like 1945 are associated more broadly with the post–World War II creation of the United Nations framework rather than the WHO’s start. Therefore the best answer is the year 1948.

Question 31

Which organization observes "World Health Day"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: WHO sets the annual theme and mobilizes countries and partners to promote population-level health priorities. UNICEF focuses primarily on children’s welfare and immunization programs but does not own this observance. UNESCO and ILO have different core mandates (education/culture and labor), making them incorrect.

Question 32

The most penetrating radiation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gamma rays have the greatest penetrating ability because they are high-energy electromagnetic waves with no mass or charge, allowing them to pass through tissue and even dense materials. Alpha particles are easily stopped by skin, beta particles have moderate penetration, and X-rays are penetrating but generally less than gamma in this context.

Question 33

Which suture is commonly used in vaginal repair surgeries?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Polyglactin 910 is braided, handles well, and provides adequate short-term tensile strength while being absorbed during healing. Non-absorbable materials (silk, nylon, polypropylene) are more likely to require later removal and can act as a nidus for irritation or infection if left in mucosal tissues. For this reason, absorbable synthetic sutures are standard for most routine vaginal repair closures.

Question 34

Which parameter evaluates skin color?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The other components evaluate different physiologic domains: pulse for heart rate, grimace for reflex irritability, and respiration for breathing effort. Because the question asks which parameter evaluates skin color, it maps directly to the “Appearance” item. This aligns with how newborn status is rapidly assessed immediately after birth.

Question 35

In primary health care, "essential drugs" means?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This concept emphasizes public health impact, proven efficacy and safety, and cost-effectiveness rather than novelty or price. The option describing them as the basic needed drugs aligns with their role in supporting common conditions managed in primary care. Choices like “latest” or “imported” are not defining criteria and can conflict with affordability and accessibility goals central to essential medicines lists.

Question 36

Which indicator reflects the standard of living of a community?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Average income per person is a direct proxy for material resources, purchasing power, and access to housing, nutrition, education, and healthcare. In contrast, infant mortality and death rates are important health-status indicators but can be influenced by multiple factors beyond income (e.g., healthcare system performance, public health measures). Birth rate reflects fertility patterns and demographic structure rather than living standards.

Question 37

First urine of newborn is called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The expected first elimination passed by a newborn is the thick, dark, tar-like stool that accumulated in utero, and this is the term being targeted by the item. The other options refer to different newborn-related substances or features (skin coating, fine body hair, and early breast milk), so they do not match the concept of a newborn’s first elimination. Clinically, knowing these terms supports normal-versus-abnormal newborn transition checks, such as documenting passage soon after birth.

Question 38

Pulse rate is measured in —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In clinical practice and on monitoring devices (including pulse oximeters), this is reported as beats per minute to allow consistent comparison across patients and time points. The other units listed do not describe a heart-rate measurement: PSI is pressure, RPS is frequency per second (not the clinical convention for pulse), and CMP is not a standard physiologic unit for pulse. Therefore the correct unit for pulse rate is beats per minute.

Question 39

What type of bias occurs when exposure and disease status affect participation in a study?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Selection bias occurs when the relationship between exposure and outcome influences participation, leading to non-representative samples and distorted results.

Question 40

Priorities of Planning in Nursing Process is done by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nursing care planning prioritizes needs based on Maslow’s hierarchy, addressing physiological needs first, followed by safety, love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.

Question 41

How successful is CPR in real life compared to the near-100% success rate on Grey’s Anatomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Across many settings, overall survival to hospital discharge after CPR is commonly in the teens, and can be even lower for unwitnessed arrests or non-shockable rhythms. This makes the

Question 42

Name of the Procedure? The removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term specifically refers to the deliberate removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue from a wound bed. Drainage addresses removal of fluid/pus rather than excising necrotic tissue, and dressing is a covering/protective intervention rather than tissue removal. Phlebectomy is a venous procedure and does not describe wound-bed necrotic tissue removal.

Question 43

If the needs of the infant are met in a loving, consistent manner, the infant will develop a sense of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mistrust, where reliable, consistent caregiving and prompt meeting of basic needs builds the infant’s expectation that the world is safe and caregivers are dependable. Loving, predictable responses to hunger, discomfort, and distress reinforce secure attachment and emotional regulation foundations. When care is inconsistent or neglectful, mistrust and insecurity are more likely to develop. Other options align with later developmental tasks (e.g., independence/autonomy emerges in toddlerhood).

Question 44

A term used to describe members of the same group based on physiological characteristics, such as skin color or body structure is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term refers to classification using features such as skin pigmentation and certain inherited physical characteristics. In contrast, culture refers to shared learned beliefs, values, and practices rather than physiology, and minority describes a population group’s social power or numerical representation rather than biologic traits. Therefore the option that matches physiologic/physical grouping is the correct choice.

Question 45

When Nurse Trish is providing care to his patient, she must remember that her duty is bound not to do any action will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This aligns with the clinician’s duty to prevent injury, unnecessary risk, and iatrogenic complications. Beneficence focuses on actively promoting good rather than the baseline obligation to avoid harm, while justice concerns fair distribution of resources and equal treatment. Therefore the statement most directly defines the obligation to “do no harm.”.

Question 46

The client tells the nurse about an intense fear of dogs that causes the client to avoid visiting other unless it is continued that there are no dogs on the premises. The client further explains that these fears seem unreasonable, but the fear continues in spite of this acknowledgment. Which conclusion by the nurse is accurate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Specific phobia is defined by marked fear about a specific object/situation that is out of proportion to actual danger and leads to avoidance and functional impairment. A key diagnostic feature is that the person often recognizes the fear as excessive or unreasonable while still being unable to control it, matching the client’s acknowledgment and persistent avoidance. Option A is incorrect because the described avoidance behavior and distress are consistent with an anxiety disorder rather than a normal, non-pathologic fear. Option B is incorrect because specific phobias are generally more common in women, and onset can occur in childhood or later depending on the phobic stimulus.

Question 47

Which of the following is not an aim of primary prevention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measures like immunization, environmental sanitation, and use of specific nutrients are classic primary prevention strategies because they stop disease before it starts. Disability limitation, however, is a goal of tertiary prevention, where the emphasis is on reducing impairment and maximizing function after a disease has produced residual effects. Therefore it does not belong to the aims of primary prevention.

Question 48

Secondary source of data?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A textbook compiles existing knowledge and summaries from prior primary sources, making it a classic secondary source. In contrast, diaries and physical evidence are typically firsthand materials generated or observed directly and are treated as primary sources. Written records can be primary or secondary depending on whether they are original documentation or later summaries, so the unambiguously best choice here is the compiled reference source.

Question 49

What is the most basic structural unit of living things?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cell theory states that the cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms. A cell is the smallest entity capable of carrying out all processes of life (metabolism, growth, response, and reproduction) on its own. DNA is essential genetic material but is not an independent living unit and does not perform life functions without cellular machinery. Skin is an organ/tissue composed of many cells, and “life” is a concept rather than a discrete structural unit.

Question 50

Crystallisation is an example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The particles rearrange into a more organized structure, but no new substance is formed and the composition remains the same. This is typically reversible (e.g., dissolving the crystals again) by changing physical conditions such as temperature or solvent evaporation. In contrast, chemical change/reaction requires bond breaking/forming that produces different substances with new properties, which is not what occurs in crystallisation.

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