Renal & Urinary System Practice Test 8
Renal & Urinary System NCLEX Practice Test
Renal & Urinary System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Renal & Urinary System. This section focuses on fluid regulation and nursing interventions for renal dysfunction. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 8th part of the Renal & Urinary System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Renal & Urinary System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Renal & Urinary System Practice Test 8
An infection of the urinary bladder is called?
- Cystitis
- Nephritis
- Urolithiasis
- Pyelonephritis
Explanation: Answer reason: The urinary bladder infection/inflammation is termed cystitis. Nephritis refers to inflammation/infection of the kidney tissue, and pyelonephritis involves infection of the renal pelvis and kidney (an upper UTI). Urolithiasis describes urinary tract stones, not infection. Category reason: This is a terminology/definition question about diseases of the urinary tract, focusing on naming a bladder infection, which fits the Renal & Urinary System subject area.
Patient: 65-year-old male. Presentation: Burning micturition x3 days, increased frequency, urgency, afebrile, no hematuria. Possible Dx:
- UTI
- Prostatitis
- Urolithiasis
- Bladder carcinoma
Explanation: Answer reason: The symptom cluster of acute dysuria with frequency and urgency over a short duration most strongly fits acute cystitis. Absence of fever makes upper tract infection and acute bacterial prostatitis less likely, since prostatitis commonly presents with systemic symptoms and pelvic/perineal pain. Urolithiasis typically causes colicky flank pain and may produce hematuria, and bladder carcinoma classically presents with painless hematuria rather than acute irritative symptoms alone. Therefore, an uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection is the best single diagnosis among the choices. Category reason: This is primarily a diagnostic recognition question about urinary system conditions based on symptom patterns rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario, so it fits NursingScience under Renal & Urinary System.
Single uriniferous tubule does not contain?
- Loop of Henle
- Collecting duct
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Bowman's capsule
Explanation: Answer reason: A single uriniferous tubule (nephron) includes the renal corpuscle (glomerulus with Bowman’s capsule) and the renal tubule (PCT, loop of Henle, DCT). The collecting duct belongs to the collecting system and receives filtrate from multiple nephrons rather than being a component of one nephron. Therefore, it is not considered part of a single uriniferous tubule. Category reason: This tests identification of nephron versus collecting system structures, a foundational concept in renal anatomy/physiology under the Renal & Urinary System.
A patient with Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) is at increased risk for?
- Hypertension and Hypervolemia
- Hypotension and Hypovolemia
- Anemia and MBD
- Receiving too much dialysis time
Explanation: Answer reason: In AKI, decreased glomerular filtration leads to impaired excretion of sodium and water, causing fluid retention. The expanded intravascular volume raises blood pressure and can precipitate pulmonary edema and other signs of volume overload. By contrast, hypotension/hypovolemia are more typical triggers of prerenal AKI rather than direct consequences, and anemia/MBD are classically chronic kidney disease complications due to long-term erythropoietin and mineral metabolism disturbances. Category reason: This tests physiologic consequences of reduced renal filtration in acute kidney injury (fluid and sodium retention leading to volume overload and hypertension), which is foundational renal pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention/priority question.
The basic functional unit of a human kidney is known as?
- Nephron
- Pyramid
- Henle’s loop nephron
- Nephridia
Explanation: Answer reason: It is the microscopic structural and functional unit responsible for filtering blood, reabsorbing needed substances, secreting wastes, and forming urine. Each nephron includes the renal corpuscle (glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule) and the renal tubule (including the loop of Henle). Renal pyramids are gross anatomical regions of the kidney, and nephridia are excretory organs in some invertebrates, not humans. Category reason: This is a foundational question about kidney structure and function, focusing on the primary functional unit of the renal system rather than nursing interventions or clinical decision-making.
Which type of catheter is used for long-term urinary drainage?
- Intermittent catheter
- Foley catheter
- Condom catheter
- Suprapubic catheter
Explanation: Answer reason: It is an indwelling urethral catheter with an inflatable balloon that keeps it in the bladder, allowing continuous drainage over extended periods. Intermittent catheterization is intended for short, periodic emptying rather than ongoing drainage. Condom catheters are external and typically used for male urinary incontinence, not reliable long-term bladder drainage. Suprapubic catheters can also be used long term but are placed surgically; the standard answer for long-term urinary drainage via an indwelling device is the urethral Foley. Category reason: This tests types of urinary catheters and their typical indications for drainage duration, which is foundational knowledge of the renal/urinary system rather than a nursing judgment/prioritization scenario.
Which organ is responsible for filtering blood in the human body?
- Heart
- Lungs
- Kidneys
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: They filter the blood through nephrons, removing metabolic wastes (e.g., urea, creatinine) and excess water/electrolytes to form urine. This filtration helps maintain fluid balance, acid–base homeostasis, and blood pressure via hormonal regulation (e.g., renin). The other organs have different primary roles: the heart pumps blood, lungs oxygenate it, and the liver metabolizes substances and produces bile rather than performing primary blood filtration for waste excretion. Category reason: This question tests basic organ function related to blood filtration and urine formation, which is core content of the Renal & Urinary System.
Common symptom of urinary tract infection (UTI):
- Polyuria
- Dysuria
- Hematuria
- Nocturia
Explanation: Answer reason: Painful or burning urination is the classic presenting symptom of lower urinary tract infection due to inflammation of the urethral and bladder mucosa. Frequency and urgency often accompany it, but among the listed choices this is the most characteristic and commonly emphasized symptom. Hematuria can occur but is less consistently present, while polyuria and nocturia are more typical of other conditions (e.g., diabetes, diuretics, or prostate/bladder dysfunction). Category reason: This question tests recognition of a typical clinical manifestation of a urinary system infection rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting foundational knowledge of the Renal & Urinary System.
Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute renal failure?
- Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting, and nonhemorrhagic with and without clotting
- One type: acute
- Three types: prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal
- Two types: acute and subacute
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute renal failure (acute kidney injury) is classically categorized by the anatomic/physiologic location of the problem: decreased renal perfusion (prerenal), intrinsic kidney damage (intrarenal/intrinsic), or obstruction to urine outflow (postrenal). This framework guides evaluation because different causes produce different urine findings and respond to different treatments (e.g., fluids for prerenal vs relieving obstruction for postrenal). The other options describe unrelated classifications or incorrect time-based groupings. Category reason: This question tests foundational classification of acute kidney injury by site of pathology (prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal), which is core renal pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization decision.
In Patient with renal failure, diet should be?
- Low Sodium, low Potassium
- Low Carbohydrate, High Protein
- High Carbohydrate, Low Protein
- High Calcium, High Protein.
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal failure reduces the kidneys’ ability to excrete nitrogenous waste, so limiting protein intake decreases urea generation and helps reduce uremic symptoms. Calories should be maintained—often by increasing carbohydrate intake—to prevent catabolism, which would otherwise increase endogenous protein breakdown and worsen azotemia. While sodium and potassium restrictions are often needed depending on volume status and serum levels, the core dietary principle in renal failure is adequate calories with protein restriction (tailored to dialysis status). Category reason: This item tests foundational diet principles in renal failure (protein and calorie balance) rather than a nursing action or priority-setting, fitting the Renal & Urinary System domain.
The smallest functional unit of kidney is?
- Nephron
- Alveolus
- Neuron
- Glomerulus
Explanation: Answer reason: It is the basic structural and functional unit that carries out filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and urine formation. Each kidney contains about a million of these units working in parallel to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and acid–base balance. The glomerulus is only a component responsible for filtration within this unit, while the other options belong to different organs/systems. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of kidney structure and function, specifically the basic functional unit of the renal system, which fits Renal & Urinary System science content rather than nursing decision-making.
The elderly patient is at high risk for urinary incontinence because of?
- Increased glomerular filtration
- Decreased bladder capacity
- Diuretic use
- Dilated urethra
Explanation: Answer reason: Aging is associated with reduced bladder elasticity and detrusor muscle changes, leading to a smaller functional bladder capacity and increased urinary frequency/urgency. These changes contribute to urge incontinence and nocturia in older adults. By contrast, glomerular filtration rate generally declines with age, and urethral dilation is not a typical primary age-related cause. Diuretics can precipitate incontinence, but the question asks for the common physiologic reason in the elderly. Category reason: This tests age-related physiologic changes in the urinary system (bladder function and capacity), which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
Most common type of renal stone?
- Calcium stone
- Cystine stone
- Mixed stone
- Uric acid stone
Explanation: Answer reason: Calcium-based stones (most commonly calcium oxalate, sometimes calcium phosphate) account for the majority of kidney stones in adults. They form when urine is supersaturated with calcium and oxalate/phosphate, influenced by factors like low urine volume, hypercalciuria, high oxalate intake, and certain metabolic conditions. In contrast, uric acid stones are less common and are associated with persistently acidic urine, while cystine stones are rare and due to an inherited amino acid transport defect.
Which organ is called “filter of body”?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Lungs
- Spleen
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidney is the body’s primary blood-filtering organ, continuously removing metabolic wastes (e.g., urea, creatinine) and excess water/electrolytes to form urine. It also maintains acid–base balance and regulates fluid volume and blood pressure through sodium handling and the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system. The liver performs detoxification and metabolism but is not the main organ that filters blood into an excreted fluid. The spleen filters aged blood cells and the lungs filter small emboli/gas exchange, neither serving as the principal “body filter” in standard physiology terminology.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a phosphorus level of 5.0 mg/dL. She knows that which of the following are possible causes of this condition?
- Tumor lysis syndrome
- Hypoparathyroidism
- Hypercalcemia
- Renal failure
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyperphosphatemia most commonly results from decreased renal excretion of phosphate. When kidney function declines, phosphate retention occurs and serum phosphorus rises, often accompanied by reciprocal changes in calcium and secondary hyperparathyroidism over time. A phosphorus level of 5.0 mg/dL is mildly elevated and is classically explained by impaired glomerular filtration and tubular handling seen in renal failure. By contrast, hypercalcemia tends to lower serum phosphate via PTH-mediated phosphaturia rather than raise it.
Anuria is defined as -?
- Failure to release urine
- Blood in the urine
- Excessive urine production
- Excessive urine production at night
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly matches the concept of not producing/excreting urine. “Blood in the urine” describes hematuria, not anuria. “Excessive urine production” and “excessive urine production at night” describe polyuria and nocturia, respectively, which are opposite patterns of urine output.
Urine urge occurs at bladder capacity?
- 50 ml
- 150 ml
- 250 ml
- 400 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults, the first sensation may occur around 150 mL, but the typical desire/urge to void is more consistently present around 250–300 mL. This volume corresponds to enough detrusor stretch to activate afferent signaling to the pontine micturition centers, producing the conscious need to urinate. A capacity such as 50 mL is generally too low to create a normal urge in a healthy adult, while 400 mL is closer to strong urgency/fullness rather than the usual onset of urge.
__________ is the medical term for inflammation of the bladder?
- Cystitis
- Candidiasis
- Nephrotitsis
- Halitosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Inflammation of the urinary bladder is termed cystitis, derived from “cyst-” (bladder) plus “-itis” (inflammation). This most commonly reflects a lower urinary tract infection and presents with dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic discomfort. Candidiasis refers to a fungal infection (often mucocutaneous) rather than a bladder inflammation term. Halitosis is bad breath, and the “nephro-” root relates to kidney pathology rather than the bladder.
Prerenal failure occurs in :-
- Heart Failure
- Nephrolithiasis
- Toxic Nephropathy
- Glomerulonephritis
Explanation: Answer reason: Reduced cardiac output lowers effective arterial blood volume, causing renal hypoperfusion and a fall in GFR, which is a classic prerenal mechanism. In contrast, nephrolithiasis causes postrenal obstruction, and toxic nephropathy typically causes intrinsic tubular injury. Glomerulonephritis is an intrinsic renal cause due to inflammatory damage to the glomeruli.
Low erythropoietin level is seen in ?
- Aplastic Anemia
- Obesity
- Renal Failure
- Hematoma
Explanation: Answer reason: When kidney function is impaired, erythropoietin production falls, leading to a hypoproliferative, normocytic anemia typical of chronic kidney disease. This mechanism directly explains why erythropoietin levels are low in renal failure. In contrast, aplastic anemia is a primary bone marrow failure state where erythropoietin is usually appropriately elevated due to anemia-driven hypoxia.
First sign/symptoms of renal graft rejection is ?
- Tenderness
- Fever
- Rash
- Increased Creatinine
Explanation: Answer reason: Immune-mediated injury reduces glomerular filtration before systemic symptoms become prominent, so lab evidence typically appears first. Fever and graft-site tenderness can occur but are less consistent early findings and may also suggest infection or other postoperative issues. Rash is not a typical early feature of renal graft rejection and is more associated with drug reactions or certain systemic immune processes.
Prerenal failure occurs in :-
- Heart Failure
- Nephrolithiasis
- Glomerulonephritis
- Toxic Nephropathy
Explanation: Answer reason: Reduced cardiac output in this condition lowers effective arterial blood volume and renal blood flow, triggering RAAS-mediated sodium and water retention and a rise in BUN/creatinine from hypoperfusion. In contrast, nephrolithiasis is a postrenal (obstructive) cause, while glomerulonephritis and toxic nephropathy are intrinsic renal causes due to inflammatory or tubular injury. Therefore the option reflecting impaired perfusion best matches a prerenal mechanism.
Inability to urinate despite of desire is known as the ?
- Incontinence
- Enuresis
- Retention
- Encopresis
Explanation: Answer reason: This matches the stem’s description of wanting to urinate but being unable to do so. Incontinence instead refers to involuntary leakage of urine, and enuresis is typically involuntary urination (often nocturnal) rather than an inability to void. Encopresis concerns involuntary fecal soiling, not urinary function.
Normal GFR level?
- 90 ml/min
- 110 ml/min
- 125 ml/min
- 180 ml/min
Explanation: Answer reason: 73 m². This value aligns with expected creatinine clearance in a healthy young adult with normal renal perfusion and intact glomerular function. Values around 90 mL/min can be normal in older adults but are lower than the classic teaching for normal reference in healthy adults. A value like 180 mL/min would suggest hyperfiltration states rather than a standard normal baseline.
Clinical manifestations of glomerular injury is ?
- Proteinuria
- Hypertension
- Hematuria
- All of the Above
Explanation: Answer reason: This produces proteinuria and hematuria as direct urinary findings of glomerular capillary wall damage. In addition, impaired filtration and activation of sodium/water retention mechanisms (often with RAAS involvement) contribute to volume expansion and hypertension. Because each listed finding can occur with glomerular disease, the combined choice is the best single answer.
Increased BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) is a symptom of ?
- Cirrhosis of Liver
- Dehydration
- Renal Failure
- Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal failure reduces glomerular filtration and tubular handling of nitrogenous wastes, producing azotemia with increased BUN (often with increased creatinine as well). Dehydration can also elevate BUN via prerenal azotemia, but that is a volume-status cause rather than a primary organ failure and is typically suggested by a disproportionately high BUN-to-creatinine ratio. Cirrhosis more commonly decreases urea synthesis (potentially lowering BUN), and hyperthyroidism is not a classic direct cause of BUN elevation.
The most common serious complication of Peritoneal dialysis is ?
- Leakage
- Peritonitis
- Bleeding
- Hyperglyceridemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Microbial contamination during connections/disconnections can rapidly lead to abdominal pain, fever, and cloudy effluent, and can progress to sepsis if not treated promptly. Other complications like dialysate leakage or bleeding can occur, but they are generally less common as a life-threatening outcome than infectious peritoneal inflammation. Early recognition and strict aseptic technique are therefore central to preventing the most serious complication.
The most common complication of hemodialysis is?
- Chest pain
- Disequilibrium syndrome
- Hypotension
- Abdominal pain
Explanation: Answer reason: This intradialytic drop in blood pressure is the most frequent complication encountered during treatments, especially with high ultrafiltration rates, autonomic dysfunction, or low baseline BP. Chest pain can occur but is less common and may reflect myocardial ischemia triggered by hypotension rather than being the primary routine complication. Disequilibrium syndrome is classically associated with early dialysis or severe uremia but is relatively uncommon compared with blood pressure instability.
Formation of stones in the kidney is known as........?
- Renal calculi
- Renal Cali
- Nephrolithiasis
- Both A and C
Explanation: Answer reason: The suffix “-lithiasis” refers to stone formation, and “nephro-” denotes kidney, making it the precise term for stones in the kidney. “Renal calculi” describes the stones themselves rather than the condition, so it is less exact for “is known as.” The option “Renal Cali” is not a standard clinical term, and “Both A and C” is incorrect because only one option best matches the wording of the stem.
A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show?
- Vesicoureteric reflux
- Neurogenic bladder
- Renal and ureteric calculi
- Posterior urethral valves
Explanation: Answer reason: Reflux of urine from the bladder into the ureters and kidney promotes recurrent pyelonephritis and renal scarring, making this a classic association in pediatrics. Other causes like posterior urethral valves or neurogenic bladder can also predispose to infection, but they are less common overall and typically present with additional obstructive/voiding symptoms. Therefore the most likely underlying finding is reflux at the vesicoureteral junction.
The clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome include which of the following?
- Haematuria
- Massive proteinuria
- Weight loss
- Increased serum albumin
Explanation: Answer reason: 5 g/day). This protein loss drives downstream findings such as hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia, making heavy proteinuria the hallmark manifestation. Hematuria is more characteristic of nephritic syndromes where inflammatory glomerular injury predominates. Increased serum albumin is the opposite of what occurs, and weight loss is not a typical defining manifestation (patients often gain weight from edema).
Your male patient is complaining of dysuria, frequency, hematuria and mild swelling of the penis. His symptoms are most compatible with?
- Urethritis
- Pyelonephritis
- Prostatitis
- Cystitis
Explanation: Answer reason: g., STI-related). Hematuria can accompany urethral mucosal irritation and inflammation. Pyelonephritis typically adds systemic features such as fever, chills, and flank pain from upper-tract involvement. Prostatitis more often includes perineal pain, obstructive voiding symptoms, and a tender prostate rather than penile swelling.
Which organ of human body purifies blood?
- Liver
- Lungs
- Heart
- Kidney
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys accomplish this via glomerular filtration followed by tubular reabsorption and secretion, producing urine and maintaining homeostasis. The liver detoxifies and metabolizes many substances but does not perform the primary filtration role that removes urea/creatinine from circulation. The lungs and heart are essential for gas exchange and circulation, respectively, but they do not clear dissolved nitrogenous wastes from blood.
Urine turns red due to:
- Hematuria
- Dysura
- Dysuria
- Anuria
Explanation: Answer reason: This can occur from urinary tract infection, stones, malignancy, trauma, or glomerular disease, and the gross color change is a hallmark clue. Dysuria refers to painful urination and does not itself change urine color. Anuria is markedly decreased/absent urine output, so it would not present as red-colored urine.
Best site for AV fistula:
- Radial artery & cephalic vein
- Femoral artery & vein
- Brachial artery & basilic vein
- Subclavian vein
Explanation: Answer reason: A radiocephalic (wrist) fistula is the classic first-choice access when vessels are suitable, offering good long-term patency and fewer complications. Femoral access is generally avoided for routine fistula creation due to higher infection risk and difficulty with cannulation/ambulation. Subclavian venous access is not a fistula site and is specifically undesirable because it can cause central venous stenosis that jeopardizes future dialysis access.
Which of the following hormones helps regulate chloride reabsorption?
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Renin
- Estrogen
- Aldosterone
Explanation: Answer reason: Chloride commonly follows sodium to maintain electroneutrality, so enhancing sodium reabsorption promotes accompanying chloride reabsorption. This is part of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system’s role in conserving salt and water and supporting intravascular volume. ADH mainly increases water permeability, while renin is an enzyme that initiates RAAS rather than directly driving tubular chloride handling.
Which of the following conditions is most likely related to the development of renal calculi?
- Gout
- Pancreatitis
- Fractured femur
- Disc disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Renal calculi can form when urinary solute concentrations rise, promoting crystallization (e.g., uric acid stones in acidic urine). Gout is characterized by hyperuricemia, which increases urinary uric acid load and predisposes to uric acid nephrolithiasis. This mechanism directly links a systemic metabolic disorder to stone formation. In contrast, pancreatitis and disc disease are not typical primary risk factors for kidney stones, and a fracture is only indirectly associated (e.g., immobilization-related hypercalciuria) and is less classically tested than uric acid stones from gout.
Which of the following organs filters blood and produces urine?
- Heart
- Urinary bladder
- Lungs
- Kidneys
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys perform glomerular filtration and tubular processing within nephrons to generate urine as a final excretory product. In contrast, the urinary bladder primarily stores urine rather than producing it. The heart pumps blood and the lungs exchange gases, neither of which carries out the filtration and tubular functions needed to make urine.
Which of the following is produced by the kidney to regulate blood pressure?
- Renin
- Blood
- Urea
- Water
Explanation: Answer reason: Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney release renin in response to low renal perfusion, low sodium delivery to the macula densa, or sympathetic stimulation. Renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, ultimately leading to angiotensin II–driven vasoconstriction and aldosterone release. By contrast, urea is a nitrogenous waste product and “blood” and “water” are filtered/handled by the kidneys but are not produced as hormonal regulators of blood pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client with renal failure. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.30, a PCO2 of 32 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate concentration of 20 mEq/L. The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to note?
- Sodium level of 145 mEq/L
- Magnesium level of 2.0 mg/dL
- Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- Phosphorus level of 4.0 mg/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L In metabolic acidosis, excess hydrogen ions shift into cells and potassium shifts out to maintain electroneutrality, increasing serum potassium. Renal failure also reduces potassium excretion, making hyperkalemia more likely and clinically significant. A potassium of 5.2 mEq/L reflects mild hyperkalemia consistent with acidemia and impaired renal clearance. By contrast, the sodium and magnesium values listed are within typical reference ranges and are not expected changes specifically driven by metabolic acidosis in renal failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a blood sampling for a serum creatinine level. The client asks the nurse, "What is the purpose for this test?" Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- "This test will inform your provider how your kidneys are functioning."
- "This test will inform your provider if you are anemic."
- "This test will inform your provider if you have an infection."
- "This test will inform your provider if you have a thyroid disorder."
Explanation: Answer reason: " Serum creatinine reflects renal filtration because creatinine is produced at a fairly steady rate and is primarily cleared by the kidneys. When kidney function declines, creatinine accumulates in the blood, making it a key marker used to estimate GFR and monitor acute or chronic kidney disease. Anemia is evaluated with hemoglobin/hematocrit, infection with WBC count and inflammatory markers, and thyroid disorders with TSH/free T4 rather than creatinine. Therefore the most accurate purpose statement focuses on assessing kidney function.
Kidney Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in ____?
- Henle’s loop
- DCT
- PCT
- Nephron
Explanation: Answer reason: This segment has high-capacity reabsorptive machinery and abundant mitochondria, making it the dominant site for glucose reuptake under physiologic conditions. When plasma glucose exceeds the transport maximum, these carriers saturate and glucose spills into urine (glycosuria). Distal convoluted tubule and Henle’s loop are not primary sites for glucose reabsorption, and “nephron” is too nonspecific as it includes multiple segments.
The nurse collects a urine sample from a patient with urolithiasis. The nurse knows that urolithiasis is the presence of ____ stuck in the genitourinary system.?
- KIDNEY
- LUNG
- ORGAN
- STONES
Explanation: Answer reason: These mineral concretions can obstruct urine flow and cause colicky flank pain, hematuria, and sometimes infection. The term is not limited to a specific organ like the kidney because stones may lodge anywhere along the genitourinary pathway. Options like lung or organ do not describe the pathologic entity responsible for the condition.
The client with urolithiasis has a history of chronic urinary tract infections. The nurse concludes that this client most likely has which of the following types of urinary stones?
- Calcium oxalate
- Uric acid
- Struvite
- Cystine
Explanation: Answer reason: g., Proteus, Klebsiella), raise urine pH by converting urea to ammonia, which promotes precipitation of magnesium ammonium phosphate. These infection-related stones are classically struvite and can form large staghorn calculi. In contrast, calcium oxalate stones are more associated with hypercalciuria/oxalate load and are not primarily infection-driven. Uric acid stones are linked to acidic urine and hyperuricemia, while cystine stones result from an inherited amino acid transport defect.
The volume of urine in oliguria is?
- Less than 100 ml
- Less than 400 ml
- Less than 800 ml
- Does not make urine
Explanation: Answer reason: 5 mL/kg/hr). This threshold reflects significantly decreased renal perfusion or intrinsic renal dysfunction causing low filtrate formation and/or increased tubular reabsorption. <100 mL/24 hr is more consistent with anuria, which is a more severe reduction in urine output. “Does not make urine” is not the standard definition and would align with complete anuria rather than oliguria.
Urine is stored in?
- Ureter
- Urethra
- Kidney
- Bladder
Explanation: Answer reason: The organ designed for this reservoir role is a distensible muscular sac with a detrusor muscle that can expand and contract to support micturition. In contrast, the kidneys produce urine, while the ureters and urethra mainly serve as conduits to transport urine from kidneys to the reservoir and then outside the body. Therefore the best answer is the structure that stores urine prior to elimination.
Kidney infection is called?
- Pyelonephritis
- Hepatitis
- Otitis
- Gastritis
Explanation: Answer reason: This commonly results from an ascending urinary tract infection and is associated with systemic symptoms such as fever, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. The other options name infections/inflammation in different organs (liver, ear, stomach), so they do not match the kidney. Recognizing organ-specific terminology is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate antimicrobial management.
Which of the following organs functions as part of the genitourinary system to maintain blood pressure?
- Heart
- Kidney
- Urinary bladder
- Ureter
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys adjust sodium and water excretion to change circulating volume, directly affecting cardiac output and arterial pressure. They also release renin to activate the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, increasing vasoconstriction and sodium/water retention when perfusion is low. In contrast, the urinary bladder and ureters mainly store and transport urine and do not provide primary blood pressure regulation.
Blood pressure is controlled by which Organ?
- Heart
- Brain
- Liver
- Kidneys
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidneys adjust sodium and water excretion (pressure natriuresis/diuresis), directly determining intravascular volume and thus cardiac output over time. They also initiate the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, producing vasoconstriction and promoting sodium/water retention when renal perfusion is low. Although the heart and brain contribute to short-term control through cardiac output changes and autonomic reflexes, the kidneys are the dominant organ for sustained control.
The apex of the renal pyramid is called the ..?
- Major calyx
- Minor calyx
- Renal papilla
- Renal pelvis
Explanation: Answer reason: The apex projects into a minor calyx, and that projecting tip is specifically termed the renal papilla. The minor and major calyces are collecting chambers that receive urine, not the named apex of the pyramid itself. The renal pelvis is a larger funnel-like collecting region that receives urine from the major calyces and leads to the ureter.
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