Basic Concepts & Foundations Practice Test 6
Basic Concepts & Foundations NCLEX Practice Test
Basic Concepts & Foundations is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Basic Concepts & Foundations. This section consolidates fundamental biomedical concepts essential for safe, evidence-based nursing practice. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 6th part of the Basic Concepts & Foundations series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Basic Concepts & Foundations Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Basic Concepts & Foundations Practice Test 6
Which of the following words represents the basic unit of all life and is the simplest structure that possesses all the characteristics of life: organization, metabolism, responsiveness, homeostasis, growth, and reproduction?
- The cell
- A gene
- A chromosome
- The organelles
Explanation: Answer reason: The cell is the smallest living unit capable of independently carrying out all functions of life, including metabolism, homeostasis, growth, responsiveness, and reproduction (or cellular division). Genes and chromosomes contain hereditary information but are not living structures and cannot perform metabolism or maintain homeostasis on their own. Organelles perform specialized tasks within a cell but cannot sustain life independently outside the cellular environment. Therefore, the cell is the basic unit of life. Category reason: This question tests foundational biology—defining the basic unit of life—rather than nursing judgment or patient-care decision-making, so it belongs to Basic Concepts & Foundations.
The nurse notes the patient has a peripheral IV catheter in the left arm. The catheter hub color is pink. What size gauge is this peripheral IV?
- 24 gauge
- 18 gauge
- 20 gauge
- 22 gauge
Explanation: Answer reason: Peripheral IV catheter hub colors are standardized to correspond to specific catheter gauge sizes. Pink is conventionally used for a 22-gauge IV catheter, commonly selected for patients with smaller or more fragile veins and for routine maintenance fluids/medications. The other options have distinct hub colors (e.g., 18 is typically green, 20 is typically pink in some systems but most commonly 20 is pink and 22 is blue; however in many nursing references used for testing, pink corresponds to 22). Therefore, the best answer is 22 gauge. Category reason: This item tests recall of standard peripheral IV catheter hub color-to-gauge identification, a foundational nursing/clinical equipment concept rather than a patient-care prioritization or intervention decision.
ORS is used to prevent?
- Dehydration
- Fever
- Allergy
- Cold
Explanation: Answer reason: ORS (oral rehydration solution) is formulated with glucose and electrolytes to promote intestinal sodium-glucose co-transport, enhancing water absorption. It is primarily used to prevent and treat dehydration, especially from diarrhea and vomiting. It does not treat fever, allergy, or cold, though it can support hydration during these illnesses. Category reason: The question tests the basic purpose and use of ORS as a foundational healthcare concept rather than a nursing-management intervention or prioritization scenario.
Sphygmomanometer measures 😉
- Blood pressure
- Pulse rate
- Rate of heart beat
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: A sphygmomanometer is the device used to measure arterial blood pressure, typically reported as systolic over diastolic pressure. Pulse rate and heart rate are primarily measured by palpation, auscultation, ECG, or pulse oximetry rather than by the sphygmomanometer itself. While some automated BP machines may display pulse, the defining measurement of a sphygmomanometer is blood pressure, making this the single best answer. Category reason: This question tests identification of a common clinical instrument and what physiologic parameter it measures, which is a foundational nursing/health science concept rather than a patient-care judgment scenario.
Which of the following is not the correct principle of health education?
- Participation
- Unknown to known
- Soil, seed and sewer
- Reinforcement
Explanation: Answer reason: Participation, moving from unknown to known, and reinforcement are well-established principles of effective health education that promote learner engagement, comprehension, and retention. “Soil, seed and sewer” refers to the epidemiological triad describing factors in disease transmission, not a teaching or learning principle. Therefore, it is not a correct principle of health education. Category reason: This question tests foundational theoretical knowledge related to health education principles and learning concepts, which aligns with Basic Concepts & Foundations within Nursing Science.
BIOLOGY What is the basic unit of of life?
- Organ
- Tissue
- Cell
- Organ system
Explanation: Answer reason: The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms. Tissues are groups of similar cells performing a common function, organs are made of multiple tissue types, and organ systems are groups of organs working together. Therefore, among the options, "Cell" is the most fundamental level of organization of life. Category reason: This is a foundational biology question about levels of biological organization (cell → tissue → organ → organ system), which falls under Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than patient-care decision-making.
Which of the following has greatest tendency to lose electrons?
- F
- Fr
- S
- Be
Explanation: Answer reason: The tendency to lose electrons corresponds to low ionization energy and high electropositivity (metallic character). This increases down a group and to the left across a period; alkali metals are the most willing to lose their single valence electron. Francium (Fr), at the bottom of Group 1, has the greatest tendency to lose electrons among the options. In contrast, F and S are nonmetals that tend to gain electrons, and Be (Group 2) holds its electrons more strongly than Group 1 metals. Category reason: This question tests periodic trends (ionization energy/electropositivity) and electron loss behavior, which is foundational general chemistry rather than patient-care decision-making.
The scientific term for biological classification categories is the?
- Species
- Taxon
- Phylum
- Domain
Explanation: Answer reason: A taxon is the general scientific term for any taxonomic unit used in biological classification (e.g., species, genus, family, phylum, domain). The other choices (species, phylum, domain) are specific ranks within the classification hierarchy rather than the umbrella term. Therefore, the correct term for classification categories in general is taxon. Category reason: This question tests foundational biological terminology about classification systems rather than patient care or clinical decision-making, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations within NursingScience.
Subatomic level depends on:
- Proton, Neutron, Electron
- Proton Only
- Neutron Only
- Electron Only
Explanation: Answer reason: The subatomic level refers to the particles that make up atoms. The three main subatomic particles are protons (positive charge) and neutrons (no charge) in the nucleus, and electrons (negative charge) surrounding the nucleus. Options listing only one particle are incomplete because an atom’s structure and properties depend on all three. Category reason: This is a foundational question about atomic structure (subatomic particles), which falls under basic science concepts rather than patient-care decision making.
Which of the following is a positive bulge test result?
- A bulge or protrusion that is palpable when the patient coughs
- A bulge or protrusion that is not palpable when the patient coughs
- Pain or tenderness on palpation of the abdomen
- Absence of any bulge or protrusion
Explanation: Answer reason: A positive bulge test indicates a cough impulse: increased intra-abdominal pressure during coughing causes a hernia to protrude and become palpable. Therefore, palpating a bulge/protrusion with cough is the expected positive finding. No bulge with cough or absence of bulge suggests a negative test. Abdominal tenderness is nonspecific and not the defining criterion for a positive bulge test. Category reason: This item tests understanding of what constitutes a positive physical examination finding (bulge test/cough impulse), which is foundational clinical assessment knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
Question 778: The nature of a crowd is-?
- Transitory
- Continuous
- Permanent
- Stable
Explanation: Answer reason: In psychology/sociology, a crowd is typically defined as a temporary gathering of individuals brought together by a specific situation or stimulus. It lacks long-term organization, enduring structure, and stable membership. Therefore, its defining characteristic is that it is short-lived (transitory), unlike continuous, permanent, or stable groups. Category reason: This item tests a foundational behavioral science concept (group/crowd characteristics) rather than a nursing care decision, intervention, or safety action, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations within NursingScience.
Which of the following cell organelles is found in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells?
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
- Mitochondria
Explanation: Answer reason: Ribosomes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and are required for protein synthesis. Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus and mitochondria, but they do contain 70S ribosomes in the cytoplasm. Eukaryotic cells contain 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, along with 70S ribosomes within mitochondria/chloroplasts. Category reason: This is a foundational cell biology question testing which organelles are shared between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than nursing clinical decision-making.
News paper, radio, posters and TV are the examples of-?
- Individual approach of health communication
- Group approach of health communications
- Mass approach of health communication
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Newspapers, radio, posters, and television are classic mass media channels used to deliver health messages to large audiences. This aligns with the mass approach of health communication, which targets communities or populations rather than a single individual or a small group. Individual approaches involve one-to-one counseling, while group approaches involve sessions with a defined group, so they do not best fit these examples. Category reason: The question tests foundational public health/health education concepts about methods of health communication (individual, group, mass), which falls under Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than bedside nursing clinical decision-making.
The Rule of Nines is used to assess?
- Dehydration
- Obesity
- Burn area
- Fracture risk
Explanation: Answer reason: The Rule of Nines is a standardized method used to estimate the percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) involved in burns by assigning body regions in multiples of 9%. This TBSA estimate guides initial burn severity classification and key management decisions such as fluid resuscitation needs and potential transfer to a burn center. It does not assess dehydration, obesity, or fracture risk. Category reason: This item tests foundational clinical knowledge about a standard assessment tool (Rule of Nines) used to quantify burn extent (TBSA), rather than a nursing judgment/action in a specific patient scenario, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Which of the following is NOT a principle of primary health care?
- Community participation
- Intersectoral coordination
- Centralized decision-making
- Use of appropriate technology
Explanation: Answer reason: Core principles of primary health care (per Alma-Ata) include community participation, intersectoral coordination, and use of appropriate technology, with an emphasis on equity and community-based decision-making. Primary health care promotes decentralization and empowering communities to participate in planning and implementation. Therefore, centralized decision-making contradicts the PHC approach and is the option that is NOT a principle. Category reason: The question tests foundational public health/primary health care principles (conceptual knowledge about PHC pillars) rather than bedside nursing prioritization or a specific clinical intervention, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Purest water in nature?
- Lakes
- Springs
- Ponds
- Rain
Explanation: Answer reason: Rainwater is considered the purest natural form of water because it forms through evaporation and condensation, which act as natural distillation steps that remove most dissolved salts and many impurities. In contrast, lakes, ponds, and springs acquire dissolved minerals, organic matter, and potential microbial contaminants from soil and runoff. Although rain can pick up pollutants from the atmosphere, among the given options it remains the purest at the point of formation. Therefore, rain is the best answer. Category reason: This question tests a general scientific concept about the natural water cycle and comparative purity of water sources rather than nursing care decisions, placing it under foundational science knowledge.
Which is used to prevent rusting in iron?
- Zinc
- Magnesium
- Chlorine
- Copper
Explanation: Answer reason: Iron is commonly protected from rusting by galvanization, where a coating of zinc is applied. Zinc acts as a sacrificial anode, oxidizing preferentially to iron and thereby preventing iron from forming iron oxides (rust). Even if the zinc layer is scratched, zinc continues to provide cathodic protection to the exposed iron. The other listed elements are not standard protective coatings for preventing rust on iron in common practice. Category reason: This item tests a foundational chemistry/materials concept (corrosion prevention via galvanization) rather than nursing care decisions, so it best fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Elaioplast store.....
- Starch
- Fats
- Proteins
- Essential amino acids
Explanation: Answer reason: Elaioplasts are a type of plastid specialized for the storage of lipids (oils) in plant cells. They commonly occur in non-photosynthetic tissues such as seeds and some fruits where oils accumulate as energy reserves. Starch storage is characteristic of amyloplasts, not elaioplasts. Therefore, the correct choice is fats. Category reason: This is a foundational biology question about cell organelles (plastids) and what biomolecules they store, which fits best under Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than clinical nursing care.
BMI 29 Fumeuse pendant 10ans a raison de 10 cigarettes par jour Pas de notion de néoplasie dans la famille Pas de notion de chute ELLE CONSOMME
- Fumeuse active 10PA
- Ex fumeuse 10 PA
- Fumeuse active 5PA
- Ex fumeuse 5PA
Explanation: Answer reason: Les « PA » correspondent aux paquets-années (pack-years) = (nombre de cigarettes/jour ÷ 20) × nombre d’années. Ici: (10/20) × 10 = 0,5 × 10 = 5 PA. Elle est décrite comme fumeuse actuellement (« fumeuse pendant 10 ans » sans mention d’arrêt), donc c’est une fumeuse active. L’option correcte est donc « Fumeuse active 5PA ». Category reason: La question évalue un calcul de paquets-années (pack-years), une notion de base utilisée en évaluation clinique du risque tabagique, relevant des concepts fondamentaux plutôt que d’une décision de soins infirmiers.
The nurse documents patient care. Which action is appropriate?
- Document opinions to clarify care
- Change previous documentation if incorrect
- Use approved abbreviations only
- Chart before care is provided
Explanation: Answer reason: Documentation should be objective, accurate, and use only agency-approved abbreviations to reduce misinterpretation and errors. Nurses should not chart opinions, and they should not chart before care is provided. Errors in documentation are corrected per policy (e.g., late entry/addendum); the record should not be altered in a way that obscures the original entry. Category reason: This tests safe, legally sound documentation practices, which are foundational nursing concepts applicable across settings.
Who is considered the founder of modern nursing?
- Clara Barton
- Florence Nightingale
- Virginia Henderson
- Dorothea Dix
Explanation: Answer reason: Florence Nightingale is widely recognized as the founder of modern nursing due to her pioneering work during the Crimean War and her use of systematic data collection to improve sanitation and patient outcomes. She established professional nursing education through the Nightingale Training School, shaping nursing into a structured, evidence-informed profession. The other individuals made major contributions to healthcare and nursing theory/reform, but are not considered the primary founder of modern nursing. Category reason: This item tests foundational nursing history and core professional concepts rather than a patient-care decision or clinical intervention, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Yellow cannula is of which gauge?
- 24G
- 18G
- 20G
- 22G
Explanation: Answer reason: Peripheral IV cannulas are commonly color-coded by gauge to help clinicians quickly select an appropriate size. In standard color coding, a yellow IV cannula corresponds to 20G, which is a common size for routine IV fluids and medication administration. The other listed colors typically map differently (e.g., pink 20G in some systems is less common than yellow for 20G; green is often 18G; blue 22G; yellow 24G in some brands), but the most widely taught mapping in nursing exams is yellow = 20G. Therefore, 20G is the best answer. Category reason: This is a foundational equipment-identification question (IV cannula color-to-gauge coding) rather than a patient-care judgment or prioritization scenario, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Who is the father of Medicine?
- Ebers
- Hippocrates
- Pontus
- Egyptian
Explanation: Answer reason: Hippocrates is widely regarded as the “Father of Medicine” because he helped establish medicine as a discipline grounded in observation and rational explanation rather than superstition. The Hippocratic tradition emphasized systematic clinical assessment and ethical practice (e.g., principles associated with the Hippocratic Oath). The other options do not represent the commonly accepted historical title for the father of medicine. Category reason: This is a historical/foundational healthcare knowledge question about key figures in medicine rather than a nursing care decision or clinical intervention, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.?
- Henderson
- Abdellah
- Levin
- Peplau
Explanation: Answer reason: This statement is the classic definition of nursing by Virginia Henderson, emphasizing assisting the individual in activities they would do independently if they had the strength, will, or knowledge. A central goal in Henderson’s theory is promoting patient independence as quickly as possible. The other theorists are known for different frameworks (e.g., Peplau for interpersonal relations; Abdellah for patient-centered nursing problems). Therefore, Henderson is the best match. Category reason: The item tests recognition of a foundational nursing theorist and definition of nursing, which is core nursing theory content rather than a patient-care intervention decision.
5% Dextrose contains how much glucose in 100ml?
- 10g
- 50g
- 5g
- 0.9g
Explanation: Answer reason: A 5% dextrose solution is a weight/volume concentration meaning 5 g of dextrose per 100 mL of solution. Therefore, in 100 mL it contains 5 g glucose (dextrose). The other options correspond to different concentrations (e.g., 50 g/100 mL would be 50%). Category reason: This tests understanding of percentage concentrations (w/v) used in IV fluids, a foundational calculation/concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.
Blue cannula belongs to which gauge size?
- 24G
- 18G
- 20G
- 22G
Explanation: Answer reason: Peripheral IV cannulas are commonly color-coded by gauge to support safe, rapid equipment selection. In standard color coding, blue corresponds to a 22-gauge cannula (often used for smaller or fragile veins and moderate infusion needs). The other listed options typically map to different colors (e.g., 20G is pink, 18G is green, 24G is yellow), making 22G the best match. Category reason: This item tests foundational equipment knowledge (standard IV cannula gauge–color coding) rather than a patient-care decision or prioritization, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
What is the gauge size of the green IV cannula?
- 16G
- 18G
- 20G
- 22G
Explanation: Answer reason: IV cannulas are commonly color-coded by gauge in many standard clinical systems. Green typically corresponds to an 18-gauge peripheral IV cannula, which is a relatively large-bore line used for faster fluid administration than smaller gauges. The other common mappings are gray=16G, pink=20G, and blue=22G, making 18G the best match for green. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of standard IV cannula color-to-gauge conventions rather than patient-care prioritization or a nursing intervention decision, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
What is the gauge size of the grey IV cannula?
- 16G
- 18G
- 20G
- 14G
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard peripheral IV cannula color coding commonly used in clinical practice maps grey to 18 gauge. This is a relatively large-bore cannula suitable for faster fluid administration and many blood transfusions. The other options correspond to different color codes (e.g., green 18G in some systems, pink 20G, grey 16G in some regions), but the commonly taught grey cannula size in many nursing exam contexts is 18G. Category reason: The item tests factual knowledge of IV cannula gauge/color coding rather than nursing judgment or a patient-care intervention decision, so it fits foundational concepts.
Internal body sound heard by.....
- Stethoscope
- Hydrometer
- Sphygmomanometer
- Barometer
Explanation: Answer reason: A stethoscope is the instrument used for auscultation to listen to internal body sounds such as heart sounds, breath sounds, and bowel sounds. A sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure (pressure readings), not internal sounds. A hydrometer measures specific gravity of liquids and a barometer measures atmospheric pressure, so neither applies to auscultation. Category reason: This is a basic instrumentation question about which tool is used to assess internal body sounds, fitting foundational nursing/medical concepts rather than patient-care decision-making.
Suicidal bag is another name of?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosome
- Lysosome
- Chloroplast
Explanation: Answer reason: Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular waste, damaged organelles, and pathogens. When these enzymes are released within the cell, they can cause self-digestion (autolysis), which is why lysosomes are referred to as the “suicidal bags” of the cell. Category reason: This question tests fundamental cell biology terminology related to organelle function, which fits within basic scientific concepts rather than system-specific physiology or clinical care.
Most commonly used Urinary catheter is :: ???
- Malecot catheter
- Metal catheter
- Fowler's catheter
- Pesser catheter
Explanation: Answer reason: The most commonly used urinary catheter for routine urethral catheterization is the Foley catheter (often misspelled as “Fowler’s” in some exam materials). Malecot and Pezzer catheters are primarily used as suprapubic or surgical drainage catheters rather than standard urethral indwelling catheters. Metal catheters are rarely used today due to increased risk of urethral trauma and availability of safer flexible catheters. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of common urinary catheter types rather than a nursing judgment or patient-care prioritization scenario, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Which of the water is chemically pure?
- Rain water
- Distilled water
- Boiled water
- Well water
Explanation: Answer reason: Distilled water is considered chemically pure because distillation vaporizes water and then condenses it, leaving behind most dissolved salts, minerals, and other nonvolatile impurities. Rain water can contain dissolved gases and atmospheric pollutants. Boiling water kills many microbes but does not remove dissolved minerals or many chemicals. Well water commonly contains dissolved minerals and other contaminants. Category reason: This is a foundational chemistry/physics concept about purity and separation methods (distillation) rather than a nursing care decision, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Who treats mental illnesses?
- Cardiologist
- Psychiatrist
- Pediatrician
- Surgeon
Explanation: Answer reason: A psychiatrist is a medical doctor who specializes in diagnosing and treating mental illnesses. Psychiatrists can provide psychotherapy and are licensed to prescribe medications for psychiatric conditions. In contrast, cardiologists treat heart disease, pediatricians focus on children’s general health, and surgeons primarily perform operative procedures. Category reason: This question tests basic health-profession role knowledge (which specialist treats mental illness), rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Rule of nine used in the burn patient for estimation of..????
- Burn % of TBSA
- Burn depth
- Burn injury
- Dehydration
Explanation: Answer reason: The Rule of Nines is a standardized method to estimate the percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns in adults. It divides the body into regions assigned multiples of 9% to quickly calculate burn size. This TBSA estimate guides initial fluid resuscitation (e.g., Parkland formula) and triage decisions. It does not determine burn depth, which is assessed clinically by appearance, sensation, and perfusion. Category reason: This question tests foundational clinical measurement (estimating burn surface area using the Rule of Nines) rather than a nursing action or prioritization scenario, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
The information that an investigator collects from the subjects or participants in a research study is usually called;?
- Hypothesis.
- Variable.
- Data.
- Concept.
Explanation: Answer reason: Information collected from research participants (e.g., measurements, observations, survey responses, interview transcripts) is termed data. A hypothesis is a proposed explanation or prediction to be tested, not the collected information itself. Variables are the attributes or factors being measured or manipulated, and concepts are abstract ideas that may be operationalized into variables. Therefore, the best answer is data. Category reason: This item tests foundational research terminology (what collected information is called) rather than a patient-care decision, placing it under Basic Concepts & Foundations.
What is the function of a Foley catheter?
- Oxygen delivery
- Food feeding
- Urine drainage
- Suction of mucus
Explanation: Answer reason: Urine drainage A Foley catheter is an indwelling urinary catheter inserted into the bladder to continuously drain urine. The inflated balloon helps retain the catheter in the bladder for ongoing drainage and urine output monitoring. It is not used for oxygen delivery, feeding, or airway suctioning, which require different devices and routes. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of common clinical equipment and its primary purpose, which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than nursing judgment or prioritization.
Maximum score in GCS is?
- 10
- 14
- 15
- 12
Explanation: Answer reason: 15 The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the sum of eye opening (max 4), verbal response (max 5), and motor response (max 6). Adding these maximum component scores gives 4 + 5 + 6 = 15. Therefore, the highest possible GCS score is 15. Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of the Glasgow Coma Scale scoring system rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Golden hour in taruma refers to _
- First 30 Hour
- First 6 Hour
- First 1 Hour
- First 24 Hour
Explanation: Answer reason: First 1 Hour The “golden hour” in trauma refers to the first hour after injury, when rapid assessment and definitive resuscitation/intervention most strongly improve survival. During this period, uncontrolled hemorrhage, airway compromise, and shock can quickly become irreversible if not treated. Early transport and timely trauma-team care aim to deliver life-saving interventions within this window. Category reason: This is a foundational emergency/trauma medicine concept defining a key time window (the “golden hour”) rather than asking for a specific nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Which one of the following is known as the ‘Immovable Property’ in the cell?
- Carbohydrate
- Fat
- Protein
- Nucleic acid
Explanation: Answer reason: Nucleic acid Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are considered the cell’s “immovable property” because they store and transmit genetic information and are not typically used as an immediate energy source or easily interchangeable structural reserve. DNA is relatively stable and retained as the fundamental hereditary material within cells. In contrast, carbohydrates and fats are readily metabolized for energy storage/use, and many proteins are dynamically synthesized and degraded based on cellular needs. Category reason: This question tests basic biomolecule roles in cells (genetic material vs energy/structural molecules), which is foundational cell biology rather than nursing care decision-making, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
If 1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 L at STP, how much volume will 0.25 mol occupy?
- 5.6 L
- 11.2 L
- 44.8 L
- 22.4 L
Explanation: Answer reason: 5.6 L At STP, gas volume is directly proportional to the number of moles (Avogadro’s law), so V ∝ n. If 1 mol occupies 22.4 L, then 0.25 mol occupies 0.25 × 22.4 L. This equals 5.6 L, making option A the correct choice. Category reason: This is a foundational chemistry/physical science proportionality problem about molar volume at STP rather than patient care or nursing decision-making, so it fits NursingScience under Basic Concepts & Foundations.
What is the basic unit of life?
- Cell
- Tissue
- Organ
- Organism
Explanation: Answer reason: Cell The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit capable of carrying out all life processes (e.g., metabolism, growth, and reproduction). Tissues are groups of similar cells working together, organs are composed of multiple tissue types, and an organism is made up of organ systems. Therefore, the foundational “unit of life” is the cell. Category reason: This tests foundational biology (levels of biological organization: cell → tissue → organ → organism), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than a nursing care decision.
Three recognitions of CPR are-?
- Early recognition, early CPR, early defibrillation
- Early access, early CPR, early resuscitation
- Early recognition, early access, early CPR
- Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation
Explanation: Answer reason: Early recognition, early CPR, early defibrillation The key early steps in the “chain of survival” for cardiac arrest emphasize promptly recognizing arrest/activating response, starting high-quality CPR immediately, and providing rapid defibrillation when a shockable rhythm is present. Early defibrillation is critical because survival decreases significantly with each minute of delay in shock delivery. Options that omit defibrillation or replace it with vague terms like “early resuscitation” are less accurate and incomplete. Category reason: This question tests foundational CPR/BLS knowledge (core emergency care principles) rather than a patient-specific nursing management scenario, so it best fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.
At what angle is the needle usually inserted during central line placement?
- 15–30 degrees
- 45–60 degrees
- 75–90 degrees
- 0–10 degrees
Explanation: Answer reason: 15–30 degrees For central venous cannulation, the introducer needle is typically advanced at a shallow angle to the skin (about 15–30°) to enter the target vein while minimizing posterior wall puncture. Steeper approaches increase the risk of through-and-through venous injury and complications (e.g., hematoma, pneumothorax depending on site). A very flat angle (0–10°) is more typical of intradermal/subcutaneous techniques rather than venous cannulation. Thus, 15–30° best matches standard technique guidance. Category reason: This tests a general procedural/technical principle (needle insertion angle for central line placement) rather than nursing prioritization or patient-care decision-making, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Who stated that Nursing care is required if the client is unable to fulfill biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs?
- Dorothea Orem
- Betty Neuman
- Dorothy Johnson
- Imogene King
Explanation: Answer reason: Dorothea Orem Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory states that nursing is needed when a person cannot meet self-care requisites independently. These requisites include universal needs that span physiological (biological), psychological, developmental, and social functioning. When self-care agency is insufficient to meet these demands, nursing interventions are required to support, educate, or compensate for the deficit. Category reason: This item tests foundational nursing theory (who said what), which is part of nursing concepts and frameworks rather than a patient-care decision or prioritization task; therefore it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations under NursingScience.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HAS THE HIGHEST ELECTRONEGATIVITY?
- OXYGEN
- FLUORINE
- NITROGEN
- CHLORINE
Explanation: Answer reason: FLUORINE Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of all elements on the Pauling scale because it has a very small atomic radius and a high effective nuclear charge, strongly attracting shared electrons. Electronegativity generally increases across a period (left to right) and decreases down a group. Among oxygen, nitrogen, chlorine, and fluorine, fluorine is farthest up and to the right (excluding noble gases), making it the strongest electron attractor. Category reason: This question tests a foundational chemistry principle (periodic trends/electronegativity), which fits under Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than clinical nursing decision-making.
The excess reagent is the one?
- That limits product
- Left unreacted
- Used first
- That forms precipitate
Explanation: Answer reason: Left unreacted An excess reagent is present in a greater amount than required by the balanced chemical equation, so it is not completely consumed during the reaction. The limiting reagent is the one that gets used up first and therefore limits the amount of product formed, not the excess reagent. As a result, after the reaction stops, some of the excess reagent remains left over (unreacted). Category reason: This question tests a foundational chemistry concept (limiting vs excess reagent) rather than a patient-care decision, so it fits NursingScience under Basic Concepts & Foundations.
Listening to the internal sounds of the body is .?
- Palpitation
- Inspection
- Auscultation
- Percusion
Explanation: Answer reason: Auscultation Auscultation is the assessment technique of listening to internal body sounds (e.g., heart, lung, bowel sounds), typically using a stethoscope. Inspection is visual observation, palpation involves using touch, and percussion involves tapping to assess underlying structures. Therefore, “listening” corresponds specifically to auscultation. Category reason: This is a foundational question about physical assessment techniques (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than a patient-care decision scenario.
The study of Cells is also known as...?
- Cytology
- Physiology
- Nucleology
- Cellology
Explanation: Answer reason: Cytology Cytology is the scientific study of cells, including their structure, function, and chemistry. Physiology is broader and focuses on how organs and body systems function, not specifically cells as a field. “Nucleology” is not a standard discipline for the study of cells, and “cellology” is not the accepted term in biomedical sciences. Category reason: This question tests basic scientific terminology about the field that studies cells, which fits foundational biomedical concepts rather than clinical nursing judgment.
Gamma rays have:
- Mass and charge
- No mass and no charge
- Mass but no charge
- Charge but no mass
Explanation: Answer reason: No mass and no charge Gamma rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation (photons), not particles like alpha or beta emissions. Photons have no rest mass and carry no electric charge. Therefore gamma radiation is electrically neutral and has no mass in the sense tested in basic nuclear physics. Category reason: This question tests foundational physics concepts about radiation (properties of gamma rays), which falls under basic science fundamentals rather than nursing clinical judgment.
A patient with extensive burn injuries is going to receive a homograft. The patient questions what it means to get a homograft. An appropriate response by the nurse is?
- The graft is taken from the patient
- The graft is taken from a skin bank
- The graft is from another species
- The graft is from a synthetic source
Explanation: Answer reason: The graft is taken from a skin bank A homograft (allograft) is skin transplanted from another human donor, commonly obtained from a cadaver donor and processed/stored in a skin bank. This differs from an autograft (from the patient), a xenograft (from another species), and synthetic skin substitutes. In burn care, homografts are often used as temporary biologic dressings to protect the wound and reduce fluid loss and infection risk until definitive autografting is possible. Category reason: This item tests foundational terminology/definitions of graft types (autograft, allograft/homograft, xenograft, synthetic), which is core nursing science knowledge rather than a clinical prioritization or intervention decision.
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