Safety Devices Practice Test 3
Safety Devices NCLEX Practice Test
Safety Devices is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Safe and Effective Care Environment → Safety and Infection Control → Safety Devices. This section reviews appropriate restraint use and monitoring for patient protection and ethical compliance. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Safety Devices series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Safety Devices Practice Test 3
A 3-year-old is admitted to the pediatric unit with febrile seizures. No seizures have been witnessed in the Emergency Department, but parents state one occurred at home. The patient's current temperature is 39.8 degrees Celsius and acetaminophen was administered moments prior to admission. What is the nurses’ priority?
- Padding the bedside rails
- Verifying all lab work has been sent to lab and checking IV patency
- Administering an additional antipyretic
- Taking a SAMPLE history from the parents
Explanation: Answer reason: With a recent febrile seizure and persistent high fever, the child remains at risk for recurrent seizure activity, so implementing safety measures to prevent trauma is the most time-sensitive action. Padding side rails and ensuring a safe environment protects the child from head injury or limb entrapment if a seizure occurs. Giving another antipyretic is not immediate because acetaminophen was just administered and fever reduction takes time; also, antipyretics do not reliably prevent febrile seizures. Lab/IV checks and history collection are important but are secondary to preventing imminent harm.
The nurse has placed a client in soft wrist restraints due to continued attempts to pull out IV lines and a nasogastric tube. The client is delirious and does not understand instructions. The nurse understands assessing the client in restraints every two hours is important for what primary reason?
- Ensure the client is still breathing
- Assess the risk of self-strangulation
- Make sure the client is not in pain
- Assess for distal circulation of the restrained extremities
Explanation: Answer reason: Two-hourly checks focus on circulation, sensation, movement, skin integrity, and capillary refill distal to the restraint to detect ischemia early and avoid permanent injury. This option directly targets the most common and serious restraint-related complication for soft wrist restraints. While pain assessment is important, it is secondary to ensuring the restrained extremity remains perfused and neurologically intact. Breathing and strangulation risk are higher priorities with vest/waist or neck-adjacent restraints rather than properly applied soft wrist restraints.
A 14-year-old is admitted for suicidal ideations and expresses a history of physical abuse from her mother’s boyfriend. When preparing the room for her admission, what action will best support this patient’s safety?
- Removing all wires in the room and ensuring her dietary tray contains plastic silverware
- Requesting the mother stay in the room at all times as another set of eyes
- Providing age-appropriate activities, such as art therapy, movies, and games
- Documenting a brief summary of what the patient is telling you
Explanation: Answer reason: Removing cords/wires and using plastic utensils directly mitigates immediate means for strangulation or cutting during the high-risk admission period. Having the mother stay is unsafe because the patient reports abuse linked to the mother’s boyfriend and family presence can increase distress and does not replace appropriate observation protocols. Activities and documentation are important components of care but do not address the most urgent, preventable safety hazards in the room.
The nurse has become aware of the following client situations. For which client should the nurse recommend utilizing a restraint?
- A client with hypertension who appears agitated, is pacing, and states, "I want to go home now!"
- A client who is at risk for falling due to limited mobility frequently attempts to exit the bed unassisted
- A client being involuntarily committed for attempted self-harm who is anxious, fidgeting, and will not make eye contact with staff
- A disoriented client prescribed strict intake and output measurement who is attempting to remove the indwelling urinary catheter
Explanation: Answer reason: Attempting to remove an indwelling urinary catheter can cause urethral trauma, bleeding, and infection, and also compromises ordered monitoring needed for clinical management. Disorientation increases the likelihood that redirection alone will be ineffective and that device removal will recur. By contrast, agitation or anxiety without imminent harm and fall risk are typically managed first with de-escalation, close observation, environmental modifications, and toileting/bed alarms rather than restraints.
A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with an unknown mass in her lower left abdomen. Which action should be the nurse’s priority?
- Obtain the history of the illness.
- Place a “Do not palpate abdomen” sign over the child’s bed.
- Obtain a complete set of vital signs.
- Schedule a hemoglobin and hematocrit test for early morning.
Explanation: Answer reason: An unexplained abdominal mass in a child raises concern for conditions such as Wilms tumor, where palpation can cause tumor rupture and dissemination. Preventing abdominal palpation is an immediate safety priority to avoid harm. While assessment and diagnostics are important, protecting the child from a potentially dangerous intervention takes precedence.
The nurse has determined that a confused older adult client who keeps pulling out the intravenous line and indwelling catheter is in need of soft wrist restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- Obtain a p.r.n. restraint order
- Assess the placement of the wrist restraints, skin, and circulation every hour and document
- Place the client in a supine position after applying the restraints and secure the wrist restraints to the side rails when the client is in bed
- Remove the restraints once every 4 hours to perform activities of daily living
Explanation: Answer reason: Hourly checks with documentation are a core safety standard because changes can occur quickly in older adults with fragile skin and vascular disease. This action directly addresses ongoing monitoring and timely intervention, which is essential once restraints are applied. A common error is securing restraints to side rails, which can tighten during rail movement and increase injury risk, making that option unsafe.
A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation who presents with blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg, proteinuria, and complaints of headache and visual disturbances. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed
- Monitor urine output and daily weight
- Initiate seizure precautions and assess for deep tendon reflexes
- Encourage bed rest in a left lateral position
Explanation: Answer reason: Implementing seizure precautions (airway/suction/oxygen readiness, padded side rails, minimal stimulation) directly addresses the most imminent life-threatening complication. Assessing deep tendon reflexes helps identify increasing CNS irritability and guides urgency of escalation and monitoring, especially if magnesium sulfate therapy is anticipated. Antihypertensives, positioning, and fluid status monitoring are important but are secondary to immediate protection from an impending seizure in a symptomatic client.
A nurse is caring for a 9-year-old client having a convulsion. Which of the following should be the nurse’s priority action?
- Position the client on her left side
- Restrain the client
- Raise the bed rails
- Administer oxygen
Explanation: Answer reason: Raising (and padding, if available) the bed rails protects the child from falling or striking the environment during uncontrolled motor activity. Restraining is contraindicated because it can cause musculoskeletal injury and does not stop the seizure. Side-lying positioning and oxygen may be appropriate supportive measures, but safety from traumatic injury is the most immediate action that can be implemented instantly at the bedside.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected cervical spine fracture who is wearing a cervical collar while CT scan results are pending. The nurse enters the room and finds the client laying in bed without the cervical collar on. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- Ask the client if they have experienced any new incontinence
- Stabilize the client's neck in a neutral position and call for help
- Educate the client about the importance of leaving the collar on
- Page the primary health care provider to the bedside to assess the client
Explanation: Answer reason: The immediate priority is preventing further injury by manually maintaining the head/neck in neutral alignment and obtaining assistance to reapply immobilization safely. Assessment questions (eg, incontinence) and provider notification are important but come after the spine is stabilized because they do not reduce the immediate risk. Client education is appropriate later, once safety is restored and the patient is re-immobilized.
You have admitted a patient with a history of frequent seizures to your unit. What precautions will you implement to prevent the patient from harm should a seizure occur?
- Ensure that oxygen and suction are functioning and readily available
- Maintain the bed in its highest position so the patient can be easily accessed in case he needs to be suctioned
- Put the patient in a room farthest from the nurse's station, as too much noise and activity may bring about increased seizure activity
- Make sure no side rails are used, as the patient may injure themselves on side rails during seizure activity
Explanation: Answer reason: Having functioning suction and oxygen at the bedside supports immediate postictal airway clearance and supplemental oxygenation, reducing risk of respiratory compromise. Keeping the bed in the highest position increases fall risk and is unsafe; standard practice is to keep the bed low with padded side rails as indicated. Room placement far from staff delays response, and removing side rails increases risk of falling from bed during convulsions.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a client receiving antiemetic?
- Monitor intake and output
- Keep items far away from the bed
- Give the client privacy by letting him walk around the room
- Keep bed in low position with side rails up
Explanation: Answer reason: Keeping the bed low and using side rails reduces the chance of injury during drowsiness, sudden position changes, or attempts to get up quickly. Monitoring intake and output can be important in ongoing vomiting/dehydration, but it does not address the highest, immediate harm related to the medication’s CNS effects. Encouraging walking or placing items far away increases exertion and unassisted ambulation, which can worsen fall risk.
A comatose client needs a nasopharyngeal airway for suctioning. After the airway is inserted, he gags and coughs. Which action should the nurse take?
- Remove the airway and insert a shorter one.
- Reposition the airway.
- Leave the airway in place until the client gets used to it.
- Remove the airway and attempt suctioning without it.
Explanation: Answer reason: Gagging and coughing after placement indicates the airway is too long or improperly sized and is stimulating the posterior pharynx, increasing aspiration risk and worsening airway obstruction. The immediate safety priority is to remove the offending device and replace it with an appropriately sized adjunct that maintains patency without triggering protective airway reflexes. Simply repositioning is less reliable when the symptom suggests excessive length rather than minor malposition. Leaving it in place is unsafe because ongoing gagging can provoke vomiting/aspiration, and suctioning without an airway may be less effective and can cause additional mucosal trauma or inadequate clearance.
The following are teaching guidelines regarding radiation therapy except?
- The therapy is painless
- To promote safety, the client is assisted by therapy personnel while the machine is in operation
- The client may communicate all his concerns or needs or discomforts while the machine is operating
- Safety precautions are necessary only during the time of actual irradiation
Explanation: Answer reason: Patients are positioned and instructed before treatment starts, then observed via camera/intercom while irradiation occurs. Teaching should emphasize that the treatment itself is painless and that patients can communicate with staff during the procedure if needed. A common misconception is that staff remain physically present during beam delivery, which would unnecessarily increase occupational exposure.
The client with delirium is restrained to prevent the removal of a urinary catheter and an IV line. Which response should the nurse expect after the client is restrained?
- The client rests better at night.
- The client becomes visibly agitated.
- The client requires less pain medication.
- The client experiences a decrease in BP.
Explanation: Answer reason: Restraints are a safety intervention that can worsen confusion and distress in clients with delirium because they limit autonomy and increase sensory and psychological stress. A delirious client commonly misinterprets the situation, struggles against restraints, and escalates to agitation and combative behavior. Rather than improving sleep or comfort, restraints often increase stimulation and can precipitate further disorientation. Blood pressure is more likely to rise with agitation and stress than decrease, making that distractor inconsistent with expected physiologic response.
The nurse is changing the ties of the client with a tracheostomy. The safest method of changing the tracheostomy ties is to?
- Apply the new tie before removing the old one.
- Have a helper present.
- Hold the tracheostomy with the nondominant hand while removing the old tie.
- Ask the doctor to suture the tracheostomy in place.
Explanation: Answer reason: The key safety principle is preventing accidental decannulation, because a fresh or unsecured tracheostomy can be rapidly life-threatening if the tube dislodges. Having a second person stabilize the tracheostomy tube/faceplate while ties are changed reduces the chance of tube movement and provides immediate assistance if respiratory distress or tube displacement occurs. This approach also supports rapid intervention (e.g., maintaining airway patency, calling for help, preparing a replacement trach) during the brief period when the tube is most vulnerable. While preparing the new ties is important, relying on that alone does not provide the same level of safety as an assistant actively stabilizing the airway device. Suturing is not a routine nursing solution and does not address the immediate procedural safety need during tie change.
A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate while he is in restraints?
- Give fluids if the client requests them.
- Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are removed.
- Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours.
- Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise.
Explanation: Answer reason: The priority with restraints is preventing injury from impaired circulation, nerve compression, and skin breakdown caused by prolonged pressure and restricted movement. Neurovascular assessment of restrained extremities (color, temperature, capillary refill, pulses, sensation, movement) and checking skin integrity directly addresses the most serious and common restraint-related complications. Offering fluids only on request is inadequate because restrained clients may be unable or afraid to ask and dehydration is a known risk. Vital signs every 4 hours is too infrequent for a restrained, potentially unstable client, and “exercise every 2 hours” is not the key safety intervention compared with focused circulation/skin monitoring.
The nurse cares for a confused client who continues to pull at the intravenous (IV) catheter on the left forearm despite frequent instructions not to do so. What is the nurse's next action?
- Apply a gauze wrap and elastic stockinette around the IV site
- Apply a mitt on the right hand
- Apply a soft wrist restraint on the right wrist
- Apply an arm board to the left arm
Explanation: Answer reason: Covering the IV site with gauze and elastic stockinette helps camouflage and secure the catheter, reducing visual/tactile cues that prompt pulling while still allowing circulation checks and site monitoring. Escalating to restraints (mitt or wrist restraint) is more restrictive and typically requires a specific order and ongoing restraint monitoring, and should be reserved for when less restrictive measures fail. An arm board mainly prevents joint flexion/occlusion but does not reliably stop a patient from grabbing and pulling the catheter and can add discomfort or pressure risk.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients with restraints. Which of the following statements by one of the APs indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- “I will tie restraints in double knots.”
- “I will tie a restraint to the moving part of the bed frame.”
- “I will ensure that restraints fit tightly against the client.”
- “I will put four side rails up if a client is confused.”
Explanation: Answer reason: Restraints must be applied in a way that maintains safety while minimizing risk of injury and allowing rapid release in an emergency. This statement best reflects appropriate secure application compared with the unsafe alternatives: tying to the moving part of the bed can cause tightening and injury as the bed is repositioned, restraints should allow room for circulation (not be tight against the client), and raising all four side rails for a confused client is considered a restraint and increases fall/entrapment risk. The other options describe common restraint-related safety errors that can directly lead to impaired circulation, skin injury, or entrapment. Therefore this option most closely indicates correct restraint safety understanding among the choices provided.
The registered nurse is teaching a class of expectant parents about infant safety. Which statement by a class participant indicates a need for further instruction?
- "I will make sure there is a firm mattress in the crib."
- "I will put my baby to bed with a pacifier."
- "I will tie bumper pads to the sides of the crib to protect my baby's head."
- "I will use a sleeping sack or a thin tucked blanket to cover my baby."
Explanation: Answer reason: " Safe sleep guidance prioritizes reducing suffocation, strangulation, and entrapment risks in the sleep environment. Crib bumper pads are not recommended because they can obstruct an infant’s airway and create a rebreathing/suffocation hazard, and ties can pose strangulation risk. A firm mattress and offering a pacifier at sleep are consistent with SIDS risk-reduction recommendations. Wearable blankets (sleep sacks) are preferred over loose bedding; if a blanket is used, it should be thin and tucked to minimize loose fabric near the face.
The charge nurse is rounding on clients in restraints. Which of the following situations would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
- Client in a belt restraint in the semi-Fowler position
- Client in mitten restraints in the side-lying position
- Client in soft wrist restraints in the supine position
- Client in vest restraint in the high-Fowler position
Explanation: Answer reason: A vest restraint in a high-Fowler position increases the risk that the client will slide down in bed and the restraint will ride up, compressing the chest/neck and impairing ventilation. This creates an immediate threat to breathing and requires prompt repositioning and reassessment of restraint type and fit. By comparison, semi-Fowler with a belt restraint or side-lying with mittens is generally safer when properly applied and monitored, as it is less likely to restrict chest expansion.
The nurse prepares to administer an enteral feeding to a client through a nasogastric tube (NGT). Which is the priority intervention for the nurse to complete before administering the feeding?
- Determining tube placement
- Auscultating the bowel sounds
- Measuring the intake and output
- Establishing the client's baseline weight
Explanation: Answer reason: Verifying correct tube placement ensures the distal tip is in the gastrointestinal tract rather than the respiratory tract, which would place the client at immediate risk for aspiration pneumonia or fatal airway instillation. Bowel sounds may be present even when the tube is malpositioned and are not a reliable pre-feeding safety check. Intake/output and baseline weight are important for ongoing nutrition and fluid monitoring but do not address the immediate, highest-risk complication at the moment of feeding.
The nurse is caring for clients who are receiving prescribed oxygen therapy. It may indicate equipment malfunction and would require immediate intervention if the client who is receiving oxygen via a?
- Nonrebreather mask has a humidifier that is filled halfway with sterile water
- Partial rebreather mask has the bag deflate during each inspiration
- Face mask has the oxygen flow meter set at 6 L/min
- Nasal cannula has a pulse oximetry reading of 93%
Explanation: Answer reason: If the bag fully collapses with each breath, the flow rate is insufficient or there is a leak/obstruction, which can rapidly reduce delivered FiO2 and worsen hypoxemia. This finding suggests equipment setup malfunction or incorrect flow and requires immediate correction (increase flow, check connections/valves, replace device as needed). In contrast, humidifier water at a halfway level is expected, and a simple face mask at 6 L/min meets the minimum flow needed to avoid CO2 rebreathing.
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