Question 1

Which of the following agents is NOT a broad spectrum antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gentamycin (an aminoglycoside) primarily targets aerobic gram‑negative organisms and has limited activity against anaerobes and many gram‑positives, so it is not broad spectrum. Ampicillin, tetracycline, and chloramphenicol are broad-spectrum agents.

Question 2

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion are convectively called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion) are the processes that define pharmacokinetics.

Question 3

The drugs whose composition meets the correct scientific specification is called _________ drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drugs that meet established scientific specifications are termed standard drugs; counterfeit and substandard drugs do not meet these specifications.

Question 4

Which of the following drug cause osteomalacia and bone pain when administered clnocially?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Etidronate, a first‑generation bisphosphonate, can impair bone mineralization with long-term/high-dose use, leading to osteomalacia and bone pain. Calcitonin and calcitriol do not cause osteomalacia; teriparatide stimulates bone formation.

Question 5

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine is a short-acting ester local anesthetic; lidocaine is intermediate-acting, while bupivacaine and ropivacaine are long-acting.

Question 6

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine is a PABA ester local anesthetic; mepivacaine and lidocaine are amides, and cocaine is a benzoate ester, not a PABA ester.

Question 7

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a toluidine derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prilocaine is an amide local anesthetic that is a toluidine (o-toluidine) derivative; its metabolism yields o-toluidine, unlike lidocaine/bupivacaine (xylidide derivatives) and procaine (PABA ester).

Question 8

Indicate the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ester local anesthetics (e.g., procaine) are hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases, not dependent on hepatic metabolism. Amide agents (lidocaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine) are metabolized in the liver, so an ester is preferred in liver disease.

Question 9

Which of the following local anesthetics is more water-soluble?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine is the least lipid-soluble local anesthetic listed, making it the most water-soluble; tetracaine, bupivacaine, and etidocaine are highly lipid-soluble and potent.

Question 10

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is more lipid-soluble?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among common local anesthetics, bupivacaine is the most lipid-soluble and therefore the most potent and longest-acting compared with lidocaine, mepivacaine, and procaine.

Question 11

The more lipophylic drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Greater lipophilicity enhances membrane penetration and receptor access (often increasing apparent potency), increases plasma protein binding, and promotes tissue/fat distribution with slower release, leading to longer duration.

Question 12

Which of the following local anesthetics is a short-acting drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine is a short-acting ester local anesthetic due to rapid hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterases; tetracaine, bupivacaine, and ropivacaine are long-acting.

Question 13

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a long-acting agent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bupivacaine is a long-acting amide local anesthetic; lidocaine and mepivacaine are intermediate-acting, and procaine is short-acting.

Question 14

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is used for spinal anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracaine is a long-acting local anesthetic classically used for spinal anesthesia. Cocaine and dibucaine are mainly topical agents, and while bupivacaine can be used neuraxially, tetracaine is specifically recognized for spinal anesthesia.

Question 15

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: M2 muscarinic receptors are predominant in the heart (SA/AV nodes) where they decrease heart rate and conduction. Glands, smooth muscle, and endothelium primarily express M3 receptors.

Question 16

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parasympathomimetics stimulate muscarinic receptors, increasing vagal tone and causing bradycardia; they cause bronchoconstriction and miosis, and increase GI motility (not constipation).

Question 17

Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-acting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Edrophonium is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (indirect-acting cholinomimetic). Pilocarpine and carbachol are direct muscarinic agonists, and lobeline is a direct nicotinic agonist.

Question 18

Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physostigmine is a reversible carbamate acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Isoflurophate and parathion are organophosphates that inhibit AChE irreversibly, and carbachol is a direct cholinergic agonist, not an AChE inhibitor.

Question 19

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Scopolamine is an antimuscarinic (muscarinic receptor antagonist). Pipecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker (nicotinic Nm), Trimetaphan is a ganglionic blocker (nicotinic Nn), and Pilocarpine is a muscarinic agonist.

Question 20

Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Homatropine is an antimuscarinic used to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia. Pilocarpine and neostigmine are cholinomimetics, and ipratropium is an antimuscarinic used for bronchodilation, not as a mydriatic.

Question 21

Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancuronium has vagolytic (antimuscarinic) effects that commonly produce tachycardia. Tubocurarine and atracurium mainly cause histamine-related hypotension, and succinylcholine is more associated with bradycardia.

Question 22

Epinephrine decreases intracellular camp levels by acting on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Α2 receptors are Gi-coupled and inhibit adenylyl cyclase, decreasing intracellular cAMP. β receptors increase cAMP (Gs), and α1 signals via Gq.

Question 23

Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cardiac rate and contractility are mediated primarily by beta1-adrenergic receptors; alpha1/alpha2 are mainly vascular/ presynaptic, and beta2 is mostly bronchial/vascular smooth muscle.

Question 24

Indicate the indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ephedrine increases norepinephrine release from nerve terminals (indirect action) and has some direct receptor activity; the others are direct-acting agonists.

Question 25

Which of the following agents is a beta2–selective antagonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Butoxamine is a selective beta2-adrenergic antagonist. Tolazolin is an alpha antagonist, Pindolol is a nonselective beta blocker with partial agonist activity, and Ergotamin(e) has primarily alpha effects.

Question 26

Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propranolol is preferred in thyroid storm because it controls adrenergic symptoms and, at high doses, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. Pindolol has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, sotalol is not preferred for this use, and phentolamine is an alpha-blocker.

Question 27

Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic metabolism of hypnotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cimetidine is a strong inhibitor of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, decreasing metabolism of many sedative-hypnotics. Phenytoin induces enzymes, theophylline is a substrate, and flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist.

Question 28

Indicate a hypnotic drug - a selective agonist at the BZ1 receptor subtype?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that selectively binds the BZ1 (alpha1) subtype of the GABA-A receptor. Flurazepam and Triazolam are benzodiazepines (nonselective), and Flumazenil is an antagonist.

Question 29

Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bicuculline is a competitive antagonist at the GABA-A receptor that blocks the GABA binding site, directly interfering with GABA binding. Flurazepam, thiopental, and zolpidem act at allosteric sites to enhance GABA activity and do not block GABA binding.

Question 30

The drug against myoclonic seizures is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clonazepam is effective for myoclonic seizures, whereas carbamazepine and phenytoin can worsen them and primidone is not preferred.

Question 31

Valproate is very effective against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Valproate is a broad‑spectrum antiepileptic effective for absence, myoclonic, and generalized tonic‑clonic seizures.

Question 32

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fentanyl is a phenylpiperidine opioid; codeine and buprenorphine are phenanthrene derivatives, and dezocine is a benzomorphan.

Question 33

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Morphine is a strong mu-opioid receptor agonist; naloxone is an antagonist, pentazocine is a kappa agonist with weak/antagonist activity at mu, and buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist.

Question 34

Non-narcotic agents cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Non-narcotic analgesics (e.g., NSAIDs, acetaminophen) reduce fever and pain without causing respiratory depression, euphoria, or physical dependence—effects associated with opioids.

Question 35

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a paraaminophenol derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is a para-aminophenol derivative and a non-narcotic analgesic; aspirin is a salicylate, analgin (metamizole) is a pyrazolone derivative, and baclophen is a muscle relaxant.

Question 36

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) provides analgesic and antipyretic effects but has minimal to no anti-inflammatory action. Aspirin and metamizole are anti-inflammatory; naloxone is an opioid antagonist, not an analgesic.

Question 37

Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clonidine (clopheline) is a centrally acting alpha2-agonist with analgesic properties; the others (reserpine, propranolol, prazosin) are not analgesics.

Question 38

Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to treat antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal symptoms (e.g., acute dystonia). Levodopa, bromocriptine, and dopamine are not first-line for acute EPS from antipsychotics.

Question 39

Indicate the antipsychotic agent – a dibenzodiazepine derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic of the dibenzodiazepine class; the others are from different classes (fluphenazine—phenothiazine, risperidone—benzisoxazole, droperidol—butyrophenone).

Question 40

Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lithium carbonate is a mood stabilizer primarily indicated for bipolar disorder; it is not used for petit mal seizures, neurosis, or trigeminal neuralgia.

Question 41

The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most antidepressants require approximately 2–4 weeks to show therapeutic effect; 24 hours or 2–3 days is too soon, and 2–3 months is later than typical initial response.

Question 42

Indicate an effective antidepressant with minimal autonomic toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: SSRIs such as fluoxetine have minimal autonomic (anticholinergic and cardiovascular) toxicity, whereas TCAs like amitriptyline, imipramine, and doxepin have pronounced autonomic side effects.

Question 43

Anxiolytics are used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anxiolytics (e.g., benzodiazepines, buspirone) are used to relieve anxiety states historically termed neurosis; they are not primary treatments for psychosis, narcolepsy, or bipolar disorder.

Question 44

Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bicuculline is a competitive antagonist at the GABA-A receptor that blocks the GABA binding site. Chlordiazepoxide and thiopental are positive allosteric modulators at benzodiazepine and barbiturate sites, respectively, and picrotoxin blocks the chloride channel noncompetitively rather than GABA binding.

Question 45

Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propofol is an intravenous general anesthetic used for induction and sedation, whereas halothane, desflurane, and nitrous oxide are inhalational agents.

Question 46

Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Halothane depresses myocardial contractility and sinoatrial node activity, producing hypotension with bradycardia. Isoflurane and desflurane lower BP but typically increase HR; nitrous oxide has minimal cardiovascular depression.

Question 47

Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used as an intravenous sedative-anesthetic. Thiopental is a barbiturate, ketamin(e) is an NMDA antagonist, and propofol is an alkylphenol.

Question 48

Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propofol possesses intrinsic antiemetic properties and reduces postoperative nausea and vomiting, whereas thiopental, ketamine, and opioids like fentanyl do not have antiemetic effects and may contribute to nausea.

Question 49

Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tusuprex is a non‑narcotic antitussive, whereas codeine and ethylmorphine are opioid (narcotic) antitussives.

Question 50

Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Libexine (prenoxdiazine) acts peripherally by reducing airway cough-receptor sensitivity. Codeine, Tusuprex, and glaucine act centrally.

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Which of the following agents is NOT a broad spectrum antibiotic?

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion are convectively called?

The drugs whose composition meets the correct scientific specification is called _________ drugs?

Which of the following drug cause osteomalacia and bone pain when administered clnocially?

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action?

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid?

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a toluidine derivative?

Indicate the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease?

Which of the following local anesthetics is more water-soluble?

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is more lipid-soluble?

The more lipophylic drugs?

Which of the following local anesthetics is a short-acting drug?

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a long-acting agent?

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is used for spinal anesthesia?

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type?

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause?

Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-acting?

Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor?

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug?

Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic?

Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia?

Epinephrine decreases intracellular camp levels by acting on?

Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by?

Indicate the indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent?

Which of the following agents is a beta2–selective antagonist?

Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm?

Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic metabolism of hypnotics?

Indicate a hypnotic drug - a selective agonist at the BZ1 receptor subtype?

Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding?

The drug against myoclonic seizures is?

Valproate is very effective against?

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative?

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Non-narcotic agents cause?

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a paraaminophenol derivative?

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect?

Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity?

Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by?

Indicate the antipsychotic agent – a dibenzodiazepine derivative?

Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of?

The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of?

Indicate an effective antidepressant with minimal autonomic toxicity?

Anxiolytics are used to treat?

Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding?

Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously?

Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate?

Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative?

Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?

Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives?

Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect?

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