Pharmacology Practice Test 7
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 7th part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Pharmacology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Pharmacology Practice Test 7
Tolerance to this inotropic drug develops after a few days?
- Amrinone
- Amiodarone
- Dobutamine
- Adenosine
Explanation: Answer reason: Continuous dobutamine infusion leads to beta-1 receptor downregulation and tachyphylaxis within a few days, reducing its inotropic effect.
This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug?
- Sotalol
- Propranolol
- Verapamil
- Quinidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Class IA antiarrhythmics are sodium channel blockers such as quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide. Sotalol is class III, propranolol is class II, and verapamil is class IV.
This drug is a Class IC antiarrhythmic drug?
- Flecainide
- Sotalol
- Lidocaine
- Verapamil
Explanation: Answer reason: Class IC antiarrhythmics include flecainide and propafenone. Sotalol is Class III, lidocaine is Class IB, and verapamil is Class IV (calcium channel blocker).
This drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic drug?
- Flecainide
- Sotalol
- Lidocaine
- Verapamil
Explanation: Answer reason: Class III antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers; sotalol is Class III, while flecainide is Class IC, lidocaine is Class IB, and verapamil is Class IV.
This drug is a Class IV antiarrhythmic drug?
- Flecainide
- Sotalol
- Lidocaine
- Verapamil
Explanation: Answer reason: Class IV antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem. Flecainide is Class Ic, lidocaine is Class Ib, and sotalol is Class III.
This drug is associated with Torsades de pointes?
- Flecainide
- Sotalol
- Lidocaine
- Verapamil
Explanation: Answer reason: Sotalol is a class III antiarrhythmic that prolongs the QT interval via potassium channel blockade, predisposing to torsades de pointes.
This drug has beta-adrenergic blocking activity?
- Flecainide
- Sotalol
- Lidocaine
- Verapamil
Explanation: Answer reason: Sotalol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker with class III antiarrhythmic properties; the others lack beta-blocking activity.
Choose the selective blocker of beta-1 adrenoreceptors?
- Labetalol
- Prazosin
- Atenolol
- Propranolol
Explanation: Answer reason: Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker. Labetalol blocks alpha-1 and nonselective beta receptors, prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker, and propranolol is a nonselective beta blocker.
This drug inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme?
- Captopril
- Enalapril
- Ramipril
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Captopril, enalapril, and ramipril are all ACE inhibitors, so the correct choice is All of the above.
This drug is a directly acting vasodilator?
- Labetalol
- Clonidine
- Enalapril
- Nifedipine
Explanation: Answer reason: Nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, directly relaxes vascular smooth muscle causing arteriolar vasodilation. Labetalol is an alpha/beta blocker, clonidine is a central alpha-2 agonist, and enalapril is an ACE inhibitor.
This drug blocks alpha-1 adrenergic receptors?
- Prazosin
- Clonidine
- Enalapril
- Nifedipine
Explanation: Answer reason: Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker; clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist, enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker.
This drug activates alpha-2 adrenergic receptors?
- Labetalol
- Phentolamine
- Clonidine
- Enalapril
Explanation: Answer reason: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. Labetalol and phentolamine are adrenergic blockers, and enalapril is an ACE inhibitor.
This drug is a potassium channel activator?
- Nifedipine
- Saralasin
- Diazoxide
- Losartan
Explanation: Answer reason: Diazoxide is a potassium channel opener; nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, saralasin is an angiotensin II partial agonist, and losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker.
This drug routinely produces some tachycardia?
- Propranolol
- Clonidine
- Enalapril
- Nifedipine
Explanation: Answer reason: Nifedipine (a dihydropyridine CCB) causes peripheral vasodilation with reflex sympathetic activation, commonly leading to tachycardia. Propranolol and clonidine lower heart rate; ACE inhibitors like enalapril do not typically cause reflex tachycardia.
Drug of choice for leprosy?
- DEC
- Dapsone
- Streptomycin
- Ivermectin
Explanation: Answer reason: First-line therapy for leprosy includes dapsone (with rifampicin ± clofazimine). DEC treats filariasis, ivermectin treats onchocerciasis/strongyloidiasis, and streptomycin is an aminoglycoside used for TB and other infections.
Metoclopramide injection is used for?
- Stroke
- Allergy
- Nausea
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist with prokinetic and antiemetic effects, used to treat nausea and vomiting, not stroke, allergy, or fever.
Haloperidol is a/an?
- Antipsychotic
- Mood stabilizer
- Antidepressant
- Anticoagulant
Explanation: Answer reason: Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, a butyrophenone D2 receptor antagonist used to treat schizophrenia and acute psychosis, not a mood stabilizer, antidepressant, or anticoagulant.
The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs is known as-?
- Pharmacodynamics
- Pharmacokinetics
- Pharmacopoeia
- Pharmacy
Explanation: Answer reason: ADME processes describe what the body does to a drug, which is pharmacokinetics. Pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body; pharmacopoeia lists standards; pharmacy concerns preparation/dispensing.
In which condition should Pedicloryl be avoided?
- Liver disease
- Headache
- Cough
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Pedicloryl (triclofos), a sedative-hypnotic, is hepatically metabolized and is contraindicated or should be avoided in hepatic impairment.
An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is?
- Salbutamol
- Adrenaline
- Hydrocortisone
- Betamethasone
Explanation: Answer reason: First-line emergency therapy for an acute asthma attack is a rapid-acting inhaled beta2-agonist such as salbutamol for immediate bronchodilation. Epinephrine is used mainly for anaphylaxis; corticosteroids like hydrocortisone or betamethasone are adjuncts, not immediate relief.
Dextrose 10% is?
- Hypotonic
- Isotonic
- Hypertonic
- Both a&b
Explanation: Answer reason: Solutions with >5% dextrose are hypertonic; D10W has higher osmolality than plasma.
An Intrathecal injection administers a drug through the?
- Superficial vein
- Cardiac area
- Spine
- Knee
Explanation: Answer reason: Intrathecal administration delivers medication into the cerebrospinal fluid within the subarachnoid space of the spinal canal, i.e., via the spine.
Linezolid is effective against which type of bacteria?
- Fungi
- Anaerobes
- Gram-positive
- Gram-negative
Explanation: Answer reason: Linezolid (an oxazolidinone) has activity primarily against Gram-positive organisms, including MRSA and VRE; it is not active against Gram-negative bacteria or fungi.
ECG changes in Digoxin toxicity are?
- Prolonged QT interval
- Prolonged PR interval
- ST segment elevation
- Tall T-waves
Explanation: Answer reason: Digoxin increases vagal tone and slows AV nodal conduction, producing PR prolongation. It typically shortens QT and causes scooped ST depression, not ST elevation or tall T waves.
The antiviral drug used to treat influenza is?
- Zidovudine
- Acyclovir
- Oseltamivir
- Imunovir
Explanation: Answer reason: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor effective against influenza A and B; others listed treat different viruses (e.g., zidovudine for HIV, acyclovir for HSV/VZV).
Method of administering a drug by topical friction over skin is called?
- Insufflation
- Instillation
- Inunction
- Insertion
Explanation: Answer reason: Inunction is the application of a medicinal substance by rubbing it into the skin. Insufflation is blowing powder/gas, instillation is placing drops into a cavity, and insertion is placing a form into a body cavity.
Which statements regarding the use of thiazide diuretics in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are true?
- Thiazide diuretics are effective when GFR is less than 30 mL/min.
- They can still have a diuretic effect in patients with mild renal impairment.
- Dosage adjustments may be necessary in patients with CKD.
- Thiazide diuretics can be combined with loop diuretics for better diuretic effect in advanced CKD.
Explanation: Answer reason: Thiazides retain efficacy in mild CKD but lose effectiveness when GFR falls below about 30 mL/min, so A is false. Routine dose escalation is not a standard remedy for CKD-related ineffectiveness, making C not generally true. Combination with loops may help only with specific agents (e.g., metolazone) and is not broadly true for all thiazides in advanced CKD, so D is not universally correct. Thus B is the best single true statement.
What is the antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose?
- Naloxone
- Atropine
- Vitamin k
- N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: Answer reason: N-acetylcysteine replenishes hepatic glutathione, detoxifying NAPQI, the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen. Naloxone is for opioids, atropine for organophosphates/bradycardia, and vitamin K for warfarin.
Lamotrigine is used for ?
- Depression
- Hypertension
- Epilepsy
- Eczema
Explanation: Answer reason: Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant used to prevent and control seizures and for bipolar disorder maintenance; among the options, this corresponds to epilepsy.
What effect(s) does inhaled salbutamol produce in a patient with bronchial asthma?
- Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction
- Causes bronchodilatation
- Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity
- Both causes bronchodilatation and reduces bronchial hyperreactivity
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol is a short-acting β2-agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle producing bronchodilation and provides bronchoprotection that decreases airway hyperreactivity to stimuli.
How do antitussives act to relieve cough?
- Liquifying bronchial secretions
- Raising the threshold of cough centre
- Reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
- Both raising the threshold of cough centre and reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
Explanation: Answer reason: Antitussives suppress cough by central action (raising the cough center threshold) and by peripheral action (reducing afferent impulses from the respiratory tract).
Heparin sodium injection are?
- Antihistamine
- Anticoagulant
- Antioxidant
- Antiviral
Explanation: Answer reason: Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant that potentiates antithrombin III to inhibit clotting factors, used to prevent and treat thrombosis.
What is the primary mechanism of action of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) treatment in a patient with Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
- Decrease inflammation of peripheral nerves
- Stimulate the immune response
- Provide passive immunity
- Reduce pain associated with neuropathy
Explanation: Answer reason: In GBS, IVIG modulates the autoimmune attack by neutralizing pathogenic antibodies and inhibiting complement and Fc-mediated processes, thereby reducing inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves.
If motility is increased, then how is drug absorption affected in the gut?
- Drug absorption is decreased
- Drug absorption is increased
- Drug absorption is not affected
- Nothing definite can be said
Explanation: Answer reason: Increased gastrointestinal motility shortens transit and contact time with the absorptive surface, reducing drug absorption.
Which of the following statements about adsorbent drugs used for diarrhea is true?
- Useful for treatment of severe diarrhea
- Very safe because not absorbed systemically
- In general, small doses needed to relieve diarrhea
- Kaolin and pectin are considered very effective (category I) adsorbents
Explanation: Answer reason: Adsorbent antidiarrheals (e.g., kaolin, pectin, attapulgite) act locally in the gut and are not systemically absorbed, making them relatively safe. They are not preferred for severe diarrhea, often require large doses, and kaolin/pectin are not considered highly effective.
Which class of drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects?
- Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
- H2 Receptor Antagonists (H2RAs)
- Antacids
- Prostaglandin Analogues
Explanation: Answer reason: Prostaglandin analogues (e.g., misoprostol) can induce uterine contractions and are associated with fetal harm; thus they are contraindicated in pregnancy. PPIs, H2 blockers, and antacids are generally considered safe.
Anvol tablets is used for?
- Diarrhea
- Diabetes
- Hypertension
- Hyperstosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Anvol contains nebivolol, a cardioselective beta‑blocker indicated for the management of hypertension.
Ventolin Syrup is used for?
- Weakness
- Insomnia
- Cholera
- Asthma
Explanation: Answer reason: Ventolin (salbutamol/albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm in asthma, not for weakness, insomnia, or cholera.
Which of the following is a suitable antidote for mercury poisoning?
- Atropine
- Dimercaprol
- Naloxone
- Nalorphine
Explanation: Answer reason: Dimercaprol (BAL) is a chelating agent used for heavy metal poisoning including mercury. Atropine treats organophosphate toxicity, while naloxone and nalorphine are opioid antagonists.
Which of the following is used to treat seizures...?
- Acetazolamide
- Acetylcysteine
- Acyclovir
- Adalimumab
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be used as an adjunct therapy for certain seizure types (e.g., absence). The others are not antiepileptics: acetylcysteine is a mucolytic/antidote, acyclovir is an antiviral, and adalimumab is a TNF-alpha inhibitor.
Etomidate injection is used for?
- Trauma
- Anesthesia
- Epilepsy
- Inflammation
Explanation: Answer reason: Etomidate is a short-acting intravenous general anesthetic used primarily for induction of anesthesia and rapid sequence intubation.
Lorazepam injection is used for?
- Hyperlipidemia
- Hypertension
- Cirrhosis
- Anxiety
Explanation: Answer reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine; its injection form is used for acute anxiety, agitation, and sedation. The other choices are not indications.
Xefecta medicine is used for?
- Syphilis
- Measles
- Pneumonia
- AIDS
Explanation: Answer reason: Xefecta is moxifloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic commonly used for bacterial respiratory infections such as community‑acquired pneumonia. Measles and AIDS are viral, and syphilis is treated primarily with penicillin.
Antidote for heparin is?
- Protamine sulphate
- Vitamin K
- Aminocarpoic acid
- Aminodarone
Explanation: Answer reason: Protamine sulfate binds and neutralizes heparin to reverse its anticoagulant effect. Vitamin K reverses warfarin; aminocaproic acid is antifibrinolytic; amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic.
Which of the following syrup is used for dry coughing?
- Cremaffin
- Zedex
- Citralka
- Dijex
Explanation: Answer reason: Zedex is an antitussive cough syrup for dry cough. Cremaffin is a laxative, Citralka is a urinary alkalinizer, and Dijex is a digestive enzyme preparation.
Which drug is a bronchodilator that may cause tremors and tachycardia?
- Salbutamol
- Tiotropium
- Montelukast
- Cetirizine
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator; beta stimulation commonly causes skeletal muscle tremor and tachycardia. The others are not beta-agonist bronchodilators associated with these effects.
Methotrexate is?
- A purine antagonist
- A folic acid antagonist
- An antibiotic
- An alkylating agent
Explanation: Answer reason: Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, acting as a folic acid antagonist. It is not a purine antagonist, antibiotic, or alkylating agent.
A client is prescribed ranitidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What is the primary action of ranitidine?
- Reducing gastric acid secretion
- Enhancing gastric emptying
- Increasing mucus production
- Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Ranitidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that blocks histamine on gastric parietal cells, thereby decreasing gastric acid secretion. It does not enhance gastric emptying, increase mucus, or inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Which of the following antibiotics contain a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure?
- Penicillins
- Cephalosporins
- Carbapenems and monobactams
- All groups
Explanation: Answer reason: Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams are all beta-lactam antibiotics that share a beta-lactam ring in their structure.
Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is?
- Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
- Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
- Inhibition of DNA synthesis
- Alteration of cell membrane permeability
Explanation: Answer reason: Amphotericin B binds ergosterol in fungal cell membranes and forms pores, increasing membrane permeability and causing leakage of cellular contents.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.