Question 1

Which drug belongs to the aminoglycoside antibiotic class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., gentamicin, amikacin, tobramycin) known for concentration-dependent killing and notable risks of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Among the options, gentamicin is the only aminoglycoside. Erythromycin is a macrolide, amoxicillin is a penicillin (beta-lactam), and ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin (beta-lactam). Recognizing antibiotic classes helps anticipate spectrum and key adverse effects relevant to safe use and monitoring.

Question 2

Which group of drugs is mainly used in COPD treatment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Short- and long-acting bronchodilators (beta-2 agonists and anticholinergics) improve expiratory flow, reduce air trapping, and relieve dyspnea, making them the main drug group used. Inhaled corticosteroids may be added for selected patients (e.g., frequent exacerbations) but are not the primary class across COPD. Analgesics, antidepressants, and diuretics do not treat the underlying airflow obstruction and are used only for comorbid conditions or specific complications.

Question 3

What is the primary use of macrolide antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin) inhibit bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit and are especially useful for common respiratory pathogens, including atypicals such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila, and Legionella. They are widely used for community-acquired pneumonia, bronchitis/exacerbations of COPD, and upper respiratory infections when bacterial coverage is needed or in penicillin allergy. In contrast, uncomplicated UTIs are more often caused by Enterobacterales (e.g., E. coli), for which macrolides have poor activity and are not first-line. While they can be used for some skin/soft tissue infections, that is not their primary or most characteristic clinical use.

Question 4

Which drug is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pramipexole is a non-ergot dopamine agonist (primarily D2/D3) that directly stimulates dopamine receptors and is commonly used for Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome. Ibuprofen and aspirin are NSAIDs used for pain/inflammation and do not have dopamine receptor agonist activity. Simvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used for hyperlipidemia, not for dopaminergic therapy.

Question 5

Which drug is an NSAID (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The correct choice fits this mechanism and is a common over-the-counter NSAID used for mild to moderate pain and inflammatory conditions. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not an anti-inflammatory analgesic. Simvastatin is a statin for hyperlipidemia, and metoprolol is a beta-blocker for cardiovascular indications, so neither matches the NSAID class.

Question 6

Drug of choice in pregnancy to treat hypertension ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication has a long track record for chronic hypertension in pregnancy and lowers blood pressure via central alpha-2 agonism without reducing uteroplacental perfusion in typical use. The other options are not standard antihypertensives for pregnancy: methylcobalamine is vitamin B12, metyrapone is used in adrenal testing/Cushing’s evaluation, and metolazone is a diuretic generally not first-line in pregnancy due to volume depletion concerns. Therefore it is the best choice among the listed options.

Question 7

What is the main therapeutic use of atorvastatin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug is primarily used to treat hyperlipidemia and to reduce atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk. Diabetes management is addressed with antidiabetic agents, not lipid-lowering therapy. Seizure control and hypertension treatment require anticonvulsants and antihypertensives, respectively, which are different pharmacologic classes with different targets.

Question 8

What is the primary side effect of beta-blockers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This effect is both expected and dose-limiting, so clinically significant slowing of the pulse is a primary adverse effect to monitor. Hypertension is opposite the intended therapeutic effect, and while sleep disturbance can occur with some agents, it is not the primary class effect. Hyperglycemia is not typical; more relevant is masking of hypoglycemia symptoms in diabetics.

Question 9

What is the primary side effect of levothyroxine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to increased metabolic and sympathetic activity, commonly causing symptoms like palpitations, tremor, heat intolerance, weight loss, and anxiety. Bradycardia and drowsiness are more consistent with untreated hypothyroidism rather than excessive thyroid hormone replacement. Hypertension can occur from increased adrenergic tone, but it is better captured as part of the broader primary adverse effect of hyperthyroid/overreplacement manifestations.

Question 10

Which drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is an aldosterone receptor antagonist, so it promotes sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium, creating a hyperkalemia risk. In contrast, loop diuretics increase potassium loss, and thiazide diuretics also commonly cause hypokalemia. Recognizing the diuretic class and its characteristic electrolyte effect is the key discriminator among the choices.

Question 11

A patient on rifampin notices orange discoloration of urine and tears. This is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a predictable, benign effect that should be anticipated and taught to support adherence. It is not an allergic reaction unless accompanied by symptoms like rash, wheeze, or angioedema. Hepatotoxicity is suggested instead by jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, dark urine with pale stools, or elevated liver enzymes, and renal failure would present with decreased urine output and rising creatinine rather than simple orange discoloration.

Question 12

What is the primary use of metformin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its main clinical purpose is glycemic control rather than direct treatment of microvascular complications. While better glucose control can help reduce risk or progression of complications over time, it does not treat established neuropathy, retinopathy, or nephropathy as a primary indication. Therefore the option that best reflects its primary use is control of elevated blood glucose.

Question 13

How do penicillins like amoxicillin function?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This weakens the wall and leads to osmotic lysis, making the effect bactericidal and most effective in actively dividing organisms. In contrast, DNA gyrase inhibition is a fluoroquinolone mechanism, not a penicillin mechanism. Calcium-channel blockade and beta-adrenergic activation are human cardiovascular/bronchodilator mechanisms and do not describe antibiotic action.

Question 14

What is the main therapeutic use of losartan?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly targets the pathophysiology of essential hypertension and is the primary labeled therapeutic use of this medication. Options involving glucose control/diabetes management refer to antidiabetic drug classes (e.g., insulin, metformin, GLP-1 agonists) rather than ARBs. Prevention of blood clots is the role of antiplatelets/anticoagulants (e.g., aspirin, heparin, DOACs), not ARBs.

Question 15

What is the potential risk of long-term use of CNS depressants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic use often leads to escalating doses to achieve the same sedative/anxiolytic effect, reinforcing misuse. Abrupt discontinuation after dependence can cause withdrawal (sometimes including seizures), but that is a consequence of dependence rather than the primary long-term risk being tested here. Hallucinations are not the typical hallmark risk, and while cognitive impairment can occur, the most classically emphasized long-term hazard is dependence/addiction.

Question 16

Dry mouth aur urinary retention kis wajah se hota hai?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decreased salivary gland secretion leads to xerostomia (dry mouth). In the urinary tract, reduced detrusor contraction and relatively increased sphincter tone impair bladder emptying, causing urinary retention. By contrast, H2 blockade mainly affects gastric acid secretion and does not typically produce this paired symptom cluster.

Question 17

Which chemotherapy agent causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This adverse effect is most strongly associated with cyclophosphamide (and ifosfamide) and is prevented/mitigated with aggressive hydration and mesna. Bleomycin is linked to pulmonary toxicity, vincristine to peripheral neuropathy/ileus, and methotrexate to mucositis and myelosuppression rather than bladder hemorrhage. Therefore the agent most directly implicated is the alkylator listed.

Question 18

Which of the following drugs is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most effective symptomatic therapy is to increase central dopamine signaling; levodopa is a dopamine precursor that crosses the blood–brain barrier and is converted to dopamine in the CNS. This directly improves core motor symptoms such as bradykinesia and rigidity. By contrast, ibuprofen and aspirin are NSAIDs for pain/inflammation, and metformin is an antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes, none of which target dopamine deficiency.

Question 19

Second generation antihistamines ka main advantage kya hai?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes them less likely to produce drowsiness and impaired psychomotor performance compared with first-generation agents. Sedation is therefore not an advantage of these drugs but a key drawback of older antihistamines. Their half-life is often longer (allowing once-daily dosing), and they are not restricted to IV-only use.

Question 20

Which antibiotic can cause tendon rupture?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The risk is higher in older adults, patients taking systemic corticosteroids, and transplant recipients, so new tendon pain/swelling warrants stopping the drug and avoiding exercise of the affected tendon. Macrolides more commonly cause QT prolongation and GI upset rather than tendon injury. Aminoglycosides are primarily linked to nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, and tetracyclines to teeth discoloration and photosensitivity.

Question 21

Which drug is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A direct dopamine agonist binds dopamine receptors (especially D2/D3) to mimic dopamine activity even when endogenous dopamine is low. Pramipexole fits this mechanism and is used as monotherapy in early disease or adjunct to levodopa in advanced disease. In contrast, ibuprofen and aspirin are NSAIDs and simvastatin is a statin; none act as dopamine receptor agonists.

Question 22

What is the primary side effect of NSAIDs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of mucosal protection predisposes to gastritis, ulceration, and clinically important upper GI hemorrhage, making this the key and most tested adverse effect. Risk increases with higher dose, longer duration, prior peptic ulcer disease, concurrent corticosteroids/anticoagulants, and older age. By contrast, drowsiness and bradycardia are not characteristic primary NSAID toxicities, and electrolyte issues like hypokalemia are not typical (renal effects more often involve sodium retention and hyperkalemia).

Question 23

The drug that can cause gray baby syndrome in neonates is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neonates have immature UDP-glucuronyl transferase activity, so serum levels can rise and cause vomiting, hypothermia, cyanosis/ashen-gray discoloration, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse. This classic toxicity is associated with chloramphenicol exposure in infants (and can occur from direct dosing or transplacental/breastmilk transfer). By contrast, gentamicin and vancomycin are primarily linked to nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity (and vancomycin can cause infusion-related reactions), not the gray baby presentation.

Question 24

Which drug is commonly used to treat Type 2 Diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Type 2 diabetes is primarily characterized by insulin resistance, so first-line therapy commonly targets improving insulin sensitivity and lowering hepatic glucose production. This medication reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity, helping lower fasting and postprandial glucose without routinely causing hypoglycemia when used alone. In contrast, an anticoagulant is used to prevent and treat thromboembolism, a cardiac glycoside is used for certain heart failure/arrhythmia indications, and a beta-2 agonist is used for bronchospasm. Therefore, the only option that directly treats type 2 diabetes is the selected one.

Question 25

What is the main use of beta-blockers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They also reduce renin release from the kidneys, further supporting antihypertensive effects. In contrast, nonselective agents can worsen bronchospasm, so they are not used to treat asthma and may be contraindicated in reactive airway disease. They are not primary therapies for diabetes or seizure control.

Question 26

Which antibiotic is most effective against Chlamydia trachomatis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A macrolide provides this coverage and is a standard first-line regimen for uncomplicated chlamydial infection. Beta-lactams like penicillin have poor efficacy because chlamydia lacks classic peptidoglycan targets for these drugs. Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin are not preferred treatments due to less reliable activity and guideline-based alternatives with superior effectiveness.

Question 27

A child is admitted to the emergency room following ingestion of a bottle of children's Tylenol. The nurse is aware that Tylenol (acetaminophen) overdose is treated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The antidote works by replenishing glutathione stores and enhancing detoxification, which is most effective when given early but can still be beneficial later in significant overdose. Deferoxamine is an iron chelator used for iron poisoning, not acetaminophen. Edetate calcium disodium chelates lead, and activated charcoal may reduce absorption if given soon after ingestion but is not the definitive antidote.

Question 28

Which drug is used as a bronchodilator in asthma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Theophylline (a methylxanthine) produces bronchodilation primarily via phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine receptor antagonism, increasing intracellular cAMP in airway smooth muscle. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for edema/heart failure, warfarin is an anticoagulant, and aspirin is an NSAID that can precipitate bronchospasm in aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. Therefore the only option that directly treats bronchoconstriction is the methylxanthine bronchodilator.

Question 29

Which of the following is a common side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of this protection predisposes to gastritis, dyspepsia, and peptic ulcer disease, and can progress to GI bleeding, making this a classic, high-yield adverse effect. While nausea or vomiting can occur, the more characteristic and clinically important toxicity is mucosal injury leading to pain and ulceration. Constipation is more typical of opioids, and diarrhea is not the hallmark adverse effect tested for this drug class.

Question 30

The nurse is caring for a client who started receiving chemotherapy 10 days ago. Today, the health care provider prescribes filgrastim. What is the desired outcome of this medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After chemotherapy, neutropenia commonly occurs around 7–14 days, increasing infection risk; the therapeutic goal is to shorten the duration and severity of neutropenia. This directly aligns with raising the absolute neutrophil count to reduce febrile neutropenia and related complications. It does not primarily treat anemia (erythropoietin-stimulating agents do) or thrombocytopenia (thrombopoietin receptor agonists/platelet transfusion), and lowering uric acid is targeted by agents like allopurinol/rasburicase in tumor lysis prophylaxis.

Question 31

The nurse teaches the wife of a client who is receiving levodopa/carbidopa to avoid pyridoxine medications. Which statement by the wife indicates an understanding of the instructions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) increases peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine, reducing the amount of levodopa that reaches the brain and thereby diminishing therapeutic benefit. Patients taking levodopa-containing therapy are taught to avoid supplemental B6 unless specifically prescribed, because it can blunt symptom control and may lead to a need for dose escalation. Dark urine/sweat is more characteristic of levodopa itself rather than a key B6 interaction teaching point. Competition for intestinal absorption and hypoglycemia are not clinically relevant interactions for levodopa/carbidopa with pyridoxine.

Question 32

A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3 to 4 hours as needed for pain. The combination of the two medications produces a/an?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meperidine provides analgesia via opioid receptor activity, while promethazine adds sedation and antiemetic benefit and can potentiate CNS depressant effects. This pairing is commonly used postoperatively to improve comfort by augmenting pain control and decreasing nausea. The main safety implication is increased risk of oversedation and respiratory depression, which is consistent with additive/synergistic pharmacodynamic effects rather than antagonism.

Question 33

Some medicines are given in the form of capsules. The capsules are made of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard hard and soft capsule shells are primarily made from gelatin (or similar gelling polymers) because it forms a stable, ingestible film that disintegrates appropriately after swallowing. Paper/viscose is not used as a conventional capsule shell material in pharmaceutical manufacturing. Starch may be used in tablets as a binder/disintegrant, but it is not the typical capsule shell composition.

Question 34

Which diuretic is associated with ototoxicity, especially at high doses?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This adverse effect is classically associated with loop agents, with higher risk in renal impairment and when combined with other ototoxic drugs (e.g., aminoglycosides). Potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone and amiloride are more associated with hyperkalemia rather than hearing toxicity. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide more commonly cause metabolic acidosis and paresthesias, not ototoxicity.

Question 35

Which of the following is the example of NSAIDs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor and is a classic example of an NSAID used for inflammatory pain conditions such as osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker for hypertension, not an anti-inflammatory analgesic. Methotrexate is an antimetabolite/immunosuppressant, and ertapenem is a carbapenem antibiotic, so neither fits the NSAID class.

Question 36

Which of the following drug combinations is associated with an increased risk of hypotension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pairing also increases risk of bradycardia and AV block, which can further precipitate symptomatic hypotension (e.g., dizziness, syncope). In contrast, common antihypertensive combinations like ACE inhibitor + dihydropyridine CCB or ARB + thiazide are standard regimens that typically have predictable, titratable BP-lowering rather than a high-risk conduction-depressant synergy. The key danger here is dual AV-node suppression plus decreased contractility, not simply combined vasodilation.

Question 37

What is the main use of beta-blockers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes them a standard medication class used to manage hypertension, especially when there are coexisting indications like ischemic heart disease or certain tachyarrhythmias. In contrast, they are not used to treat asthma because nonselective agents can precipitate bronchospasm by blocking beta-2 receptors. They also do not treat diabetes or seizures; in diabetes they may mask hypoglycemia symptoms rather than improve glycemic control.

Question 38

What is the primary use of insulin glargine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This supports glycemic control in diabetes by lowering fasting and between-meal blood glucose and helping prevent hyperglycemia. It is not an antihypertensive, anticonvulsant, or bronchodilator, so the other options do not match its mechanism or clinical indications. A common test point is that glargine is used for maintenance (basal) control rather than rapid correction of acute hyperglycemia.

Question 39

What is the primary use of lidocaine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism directly supports its use for acute ventricular arrhythmias (e.g., VT/VF in specific settings) and PVC suppression. While lidocaine is also widely used as a local anesthetic, that choice is not offered here, making the antiarrhythmic indication the best fit among the options. The other options are mismatched to its pharmacologic class: diabetes is treated with glucose-lowering agents, seizures with antiepileptics, and asthma with bronchodilators/anti-inflammatories.

Question 40

Which antifungal drug is used to treat sporotrichomycosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Itraconazole is the preferred first-line agent because it achieves effective tissue levels and has strong clinical efficacy for this infection. Fluconazole has less consistent activity and is generally not a first-choice treatment for Sporothrix. Echinocandins like caspofungin have limited utility for this organism, and griseofulvin is primarily for dermatophyte infections rather than sporotrichosis.

Question 41

Which of the following is an example of a commonly prescribed CNS stimulant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methylphenidate fits this mechanism and is a standard, commonly prescribed stimulant in clinical practice. Valium is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A activity and causes CNS depression rather than stimulation. Zoloft and Prozac are SSRIs used for depression/anxiety and are not classified as stimulants.

Question 42

Emergency contraception is not effective after?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Beyond that time frame, the probability of preventing ovulation and thus pregnancy declines substantially. While some newer methods (e.g., ulipristal or a copper IUD) can be used later, those are different options than the traditional timing being tested here. Therefore the best single cutoff in this question is the 72-hour limit.

Question 43

Which calcium channel blocker is more selective for the heart than for the blood vessels?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes them useful for rate control in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and for angina by reducing heart rate and contractility. Verapamil has stronger negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects than diltiazem, reflecting greater cardiac selectivity compared with vascular smooth muscle. In contrast, dihydropyridines like amlodipine and nifedipine are more vasoselective and primarily cause arteriolar vasodilation with reflex tachycardia.

Question 44

What is a key adverse effect of corticosteroids like hydrocortisone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They also have catabolic effects on protein and bone and reduce osteoblast activity while increasing bone resorption, increasing fracture risk over time. Chronic exposure leads to Cushingoid changes and fluid/weight gain. By contrast, hypoglycemia and weight loss are opposite of expected pharmacologic effects for systemic corticosteroids.

Question 45

How do sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole work?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism reduces tetrahydrofolate availability needed for thymidine and purine synthesis, impairing DNA replication and bacterial growth. Beta-adrenergic activation and calcium-channel blockade are mechanisms of bronchodilators and antihypertensives, not antibiotics. Direct inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis is characteristic of classes like macrolides, tetracyclines, and aminoglycosides rather than TMP-SMX.

Question 46

What is the primary use of fluoroquinolone antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism specifically targets bacteria, so their clinical role is treating susceptible bacterial infections (e.g., certain urinary, gastrointestinal, and respiratory infections depending on the drug and resistance patterns). They do not have activity against viruses because viruses lack these bacterial enzymes and replicate using host cellular machinery. They are also not primary therapies for fungal or parasitic pathogens, which require different drug classes and targets.

Question 47

How do proton pump inhibitors like esomeprazole function?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly decreases basal and stimulated acid output and supports healing of acid-related disorders such as GERD and peptic ulcer disease. Calcium-channel blockade and serotonin reuptake inhibition are mechanisms of cardiovascular and antidepressant drugs, not gastric acid suppressants. Muscarinic receptor activation would increase gastric secretions rather than suppress them.

Question 48

What is the primary use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes them first-line or commonly used agents for chronic blood pressure control, especially when comorbid diabetes or chronic kidney disease is present. While they also improve outcomes in heart failure by decreasing afterload/preload and limiting remodeling, that is a major secondary indication rather than the single most common primary use. They do not treat hypercholesterolemia, and angina management is more directly targeted with nitrates, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers.

Question 49

What is the primary mechanism of action of DPP-4 inhibitors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism directly corresponds to inhibiting the DPP-4 enzyme itself. In contrast, direct GLP-1 receptor stimulation describes GLP-1 receptor agonists, not DPP-4 inhibitors. SGLT-2 inhibition is a renal glucose reabsorption mechanism, and ATP-sensitive potassium channel blockade is the mechanism of sulfonylureas, both different drug classes.

Question 50

Antihistamines ka use urticaria me hota hai kyunki?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: H1-antihistamines work by blocking H1 receptors, reducing capillary permeability and sensory nerve stimulation, which directly improves itching and hives. This targets the main mediator of symptoms rather than treating an infectious cause. Antibiotics, antifungals, and antivirals do not address the histamine-driven pathophysiology unless a specific infection is the underlying trigger, which is not the typical mechanism of urticaria.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning

Which drug belongs to the aminoglycoside antibiotic class?

Which group of drugs is mainly used in COPD treatment?

What is the primary use of macrolide antibiotics?

Which drug is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson’s disease?

Which drug is an NSAID (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug)?

Drug of choice in pregnancy to treat hypertension ...?

What is the main therapeutic use of atorvastatin?

What is the primary side effect of beta-blockers?

What is the primary side effect of levothyroxine?

Which drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A patient on rifampin notices orange discoloration of urine and tears. This is?

What is the primary use of metformin?

How do penicillins like amoxicillin function?

What is the main therapeutic use of losartan?

What is the potential risk of long-term use of CNS depressants?

Dry mouth aur urinary retention kis wajah se hota hai?

Which chemotherapy agent causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

Which of the following drugs is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

Second generation antihistamines ka main advantage kya hai?

Which antibiotic can cause tendon rupture?

Which drug is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease?

What is the primary side effect of NSAIDs?

The drug that can cause gray baby syndrome in neonates is?

Which drug is commonly used to treat Type 2 Diabetes?

What is the main use of beta-blockers?

Which antibiotic is most effective against Chlamydia trachomatis?

A child is admitted to the emergency room following ingestion of a bottle of children's Tylenol. The nurse is aware that Tylenol (acetaminophen) overdose is treated with?

Which drug is used as a bronchodilator in asthma?

Which of the following is a common side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

The nurse is caring for a client who started receiving chemotherapy 10 days ago. Today, the health care provider prescribes filgrastim. What is the desired outcome of this medication?

The nurse teaches the wife of a client who is receiving levodopa/carbidopa to avoid pyridoxine medications. Which statement by the wife indicates an understanding of the instructions?

A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3 to 4 hours as needed for pain. The combination of the two medications produces a/an?

Some medicines are given in the form of capsules. The capsules are made of?

Which diuretic is associated with ototoxicity, especially at high doses?

Which of the following is the example of NSAIDs?

Which of the following drug combinations is associated with an increased risk of hypotension?

What is the main use of beta-blockers?

What is the primary use of insulin glargine?

What is the primary use of lidocaine?

Which antifungal drug is used to treat sporotrichomycosis?

Which of the following is an example of a commonly prescribed CNS stimulant?

Emergency contraception is not effective after?

Which calcium channel blocker is more selective for the heart than for the blood vessels?

What is a key adverse effect of corticosteroids like hydrocortisone?

How do sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole work?

What is the primary use of fluoroquinolone antibiotics?

How do proton pump inhibitors like esomeprazole function?

What is the primary use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

What is the primary mechanism of action of DPP-4 inhibitors?

Antihistamines ka use urticaria me hota hai kyunki?

Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?

Leave a Reply Cancel reply