Pharmacology Practice Test 6
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 6th part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacology Practice Test 6
Statins: Identify the odd one out?
- Atorvastatin
- Cilastatin
- Simvastatin
- Rosuvastatin
Explanation: Answer reason: Cilastatin is not an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin); it is a dehydropeptidase I inhibitor used with imipenem. The others—atorvastatin, simvastatin, and rosuvastatin—are statins.
Odd One Out — Mu-Opioid Agonists - Bind to mu-opioid receptors and provide analgesia?
- Morphine
- Fentanyl
- Codeine
- Ibuprofen
Explanation: Answer reason: Ibuprofen is an NSAID that inhibits COX enzymes; it is not a mu-opioid receptor agonist. Morphine, fentanyl, and codeine are mu-opioid agonists providing analgesia.
Odd One Out: Opioid Antagonists - Block opioid receptors and reverse the effects of opioid agonists?
- Naloxone
- Nalmfefene
- Naltrexone
- Oxymorphone
Explanation: Answer reason: Naloxone, nalmefene (misspelled as nalmfefene), and naltrexone are opioid antagonists. Oxymorphone is an opioid agonist analgesic, making it the odd one out.
Odd One Out: Intravenous induction agents used to induce general anesthesia quickly?
- Propofol
- Thiopental
- Etomidate
- Desflurane
Explanation: Answer reason: Propofol, thiopental, and etomidate are intravenous induction agents; desflurane is an inhalational volatile anesthetic, not an IV induction agent.
Antibiotics: Identify the odd one out?
- Tetracyclines
- Penicillins
- Statins
- Cephalosporins
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetracyclines, penicillins, and cephalosporins are classes of antibiotics; statins are lipid-lowering agents, not antibiotics.
Odd One Out: Thyroid Hormone Receptor Agonists - Activate thyroid hormone receptors to treat hypothyroidism?
- Levothyroxine
- Liothyronine
- Methimazole
- Triiodothryronine
Explanation: Answer reason: Methimazole is an antithyroid drug that inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis (used for hyperthyroidism), whereas levothyroxine, liothyronine, and triiodothyronine are thyroid hormone receptor agonists used to treat hypothyroidism.
Antihistamines: Identify the odd one out?
- Loratadine
- Diphenhydramine
- Cetirizine
- Ranitidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used for acid suppression, whereas loratadine, diphenhydramine, and cetirizine are H1 antihistamines used for allergic symptoms.
Bronchodilators: Identify the odd one out?
- Albuterol
- Ipratropium
- Bromhexine
- Theophylline
Explanation: Answer reason: Bromhexine is a mucolytic/expectorant, not a bronchodilator. Albuterol (beta-2 agonist), ipratropium (anticholinergic), and theophylline (methylxanthine) are bronchodilators.
Anticonvulsants: Identify the odd one out?
- Carbamazepine
- Gabapentin
- Metformin
- Phenytoin
Explanation: Answer reason: Metformin is an antidiabetic agent, whereas carbamazepine, gabapentin, and phenytoin are anticonvulsants.
At normal pH, penicillin remains in?
- Aqueous phase
- Solvent phase
- Both (a) and (b)
- Precipitates
Explanation: Answer reason: Penicillins are weak acids (pKa ~2–3) and are ionized at physiologic pH, so they remain in the aqueous phase rather than the organic solvent or precipitating.
ADR'S like decrease in sperm count, gyncomestia, galactorrhea is related to?
- Amoxycillin
- Moxiflaxccin
- Antacids
- Cimetidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Cimetidine, an H2-receptor antagonist, has antiandrogenic effects and can increase prolactin, causing gynecomastia, galactorrhea, and decreased sperm count.
The mechanism of antidiarrheal agent is to?
- Increase solute absorption
- Decrease intestinal motility
- Decrease intestinal secretion
- All
Explanation: Answer reason: Antidiarrheals reduce diarrhea by increasing fluid/solute absorption, decreasing intestinal motility (e.g., opioids), and decreasing intestinal secretion (e.g., bismuth, somatostatin analogs). Thus, all listed mechanisms are correct.
Encircle emmolient laxative from the following?
- Bisacodyl
- Anthraguinine glycoside
- Ducosate sodium
- Polycarbapil
Explanation: Answer reason: Docusate sodium is an emollient (stool softener). Bisacodyl and anthraquinone glycosides are stimulant laxatives, while polycarbophil is a bulk-forming agent.
The antiviral action of which drug includes inhibition of both RNA and DNA synthesis?
- Ritonovar
- Indinirine
- Ribavirin
- Amanatdin
Explanation: Answer reason: Ribavirin is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral nucleic acid synthesis (affecting both RNA and DNA). Ritonavir and Indinavir are protease inhibitors, and Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel—neither inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
Identify the first line antimycobacterial drug?
- Pyrazinamide
- Cycloserine
- Ethionamide
- Caperomycin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pyrazinamide is a first-line antitubercular drug, whereas cycloserine, ethionamide, and capreomycin are second-line agents.
__________ has the same mode of action to that of penicillin?
- Cephalosporin
- Aminoglycoside
- Floroguinolones
- Tetracyclins
Explanation: Answer reason: Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillins and inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and blocking peptidoglycan cross-linking. The other classes act on ribosomes or DNA gyrase.
Identify the drug which has been without from the market due to its higher toxicities?
- Ticarcillin
- Carbenicillin
- Tigecycline
- Clindamycin
Explanation: Answer reason: Carbenicillin has significant toxicity (notably high sodium load and platelet dysfunction leading to bleeding) and has been largely withdrawn/replaced in many markets; the other listed antibiotics remain in common use.
Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration?
- Rectal
- Oral
- Sublingual
- Inhalation
Explanation: Answer reason: Parenteral refers to administration that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. Oral, sublingual, and rectal are enteral routes; inhalation bypasses the GI tract, so it is the best choice among the options.
Biological barriers include all except?
- Renal tubules
- Cell membranes
- Capillary walls
- Placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: Biological barriers in pharmacokinetics are membranes that limit drug movement such as cell membranes, capillary walls, and special barriers like the placenta. Renal tubules are part of excretion processes and are not typically classified as distribution barriers.
Tolerance develops because of?
- Diminished absorption
- Rapid excretion of a drug
- Both of the above
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Drug tolerance typically results from cellular/receptor adaptations or increased metabolism (enzyme induction), not from diminished absorption or rapid excretion per se.
Local anesthetics are?
- Weak bases
- Weak acids
- Salts
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Most local anesthetics are tertiary amines that behave as weak bases; they are often formulated as hydrochloride salts but the active drugs are weak bases.
A M-cholinimimetic agent is?
- Carbachol
- Pilocarpine
- Acetylcholine
- Bethanechol
Explanation: Answer reason: Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic (M) cholinergic agonist. Carbachol and acetylcholine stimulate both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, while bethanechol is muscarinic but the single best classical M-cholinomimetic choice here is pilocarpine.
Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block and recover more rapidly?
- Hand
- Leg
- Neck
- Diaphragm
Explanation: Answer reason: With neuromuscular blockers, centrally located muscles like the diaphragm are more resistant to paralysis and recover earlier than peripheral muscles (e.g., hand).
Indicate the alfa2-selective agonist?
- Xylometazoline
- Epinephrine
- Dobutamine
- Methoxamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Xylometazoline is an imidazoline nasal decongestant with alpha-adrenergic action showing alpha2-selectivity. Epinephrine is nonselective alpha/beta, Dobutamine is beta1-selective, and Methoxamine is alpha1-selective.
Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist?
- Tolazoline
- Labetalol
- Prazosin
- Phenoxybenzamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Phenoxybenzamine is a nonselective alpha blocker that irreversibly alkylates alpha receptors; tolazoline, labetalol, and prazosin are reversible antagonists.
Indicate the beta1-selective antagonist?
- Propranolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Sotalol
Explanation: Answer reason: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta1-adrenergic blocker. Propranolol and sotalol are nonselective beta blockers, and carvedilol blocks beta1, beta2, and alpha1 receptors.
Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug?
- Tolazoline
- Reserpine
- Carvedilol
- Prazosin
Explanation: Answer reason: Reserpine is an indirect-acting adrenergic blocker; it depletes norepinephrine from storage vesicles, reducing sympathetic activity. Tolazoline, Carvedilol, and Prazosin are direct adrenoceptor antagonists.
Hypnotic drugs are used to treat?
- Psychosis
- Sleep disorders
- Narcolepsy
- Parkinsonian disorders
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypnotics promote sleep and are primarily used for insomnia; they are not treatments for psychosis, narcolepsy (managed with stimulants like modafinil), or Parkinsonian disorders (managed with dopaminergic agents).
Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors?
- Flumazenil
- Picrotoxin
- Zolpidem
- Temazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine (BZ) site on the GABA-A receptor. Picrotoxin blocks the GABA-A chloride channel noncompetitively, and zolpidem and temazepam are agonists.
Zolpidem and zaleplon have effectiveness similar to that of hypnotic benzodiazepines in the management of sleep disorders?
- True
- False
Explanation: Answer reason: Z-drugs (zolpidem, zaleplon) act at GABA-A receptors and provide hypnotic effects with efficacy comparable to benzodiazepine hypnotics for insomnia.
Indicate an anti-absence drug?
- Valproate
- Phenobarbital
- Carbamazepin
- Phenytoin
Explanation: Answer reason: Valproate is effective for absence seizures (alternative to ethosuximide). Phenobarbital, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are not used for absence and may worsen it.
The drug of choice for partial seizures is?
- Carbamazepin
- Ethosuximide
- Diazepam
- Lamotrigine
Explanation: Answer reason: Carbamazepine is a first-line agent and classic drug of choice for focal (partial) seizures. Ethosuximide treats absence seizures; diazepam is for acute status epilepticus; lamotrigine is effective for focal seizures but traditionally not the single drug of choice.
Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of?
- Partial seizures
- Absence
- Myoclonic seizures
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Lamotrigine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic effective for focal seizures and several generalized seizure types, including absence and myoclonic seizures.
The drug of choice in the treatment of myoclonic seizures is?
- Valproate
- Phenobarbitol
- Phenytoin
- Felbamate
Explanation: Answer reason: Valproate is first-line for generalized myoclonic seizures; phenytoin may worsen them, and phenobarbital or felbamate are not preferred first-line agents.
Indicate the narcotic analgesic, which is a natural agonist?
- Meperidine
- Fentanyl
- Morphine
- Naloxone
Explanation: Answer reason: Morphine is a natural opioid agonist derived from opium; meperidine and fentanyl are synthetic opioids, and naloxone is an opioid antagonist.
Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of?
- Aspirin
- Paracetamol
- Analgin
- Ketorolac
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose can oxidize hemoglobin to methemoglobin via its toxic metabolite; the other listed NSAIDs are not typical causes.
Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent?
- Paracetamol
- Tramadol
- Sodium valproate
- Butorphanol
Explanation: Answer reason: Tramadol has dual mechanisms—weak μ-opioid receptor agonism plus inhibition of norepinephrine/serotonin reuptake—making it a mixed opioid/non-opioid analgesic.
Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug?
- Haloperidol
- Clozapine
- Thioridazine
- Thiothixene
Explanation: Answer reason: Clozapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic; haloperidol, thioridazine, and thiothixene are typical first-generation agents.
Indicate the second-generation heterocyclic drug?
- Maprotiline
- Imipramine
- Phenelzine
- Fluoxetine
Explanation: Answer reason: Maprotiline is a second-generation heterocyclic (tetracyclic) antidepressant; imipramine is a TCA, phenelzine is an MAOI, and fluoxetine is an SSRI.
Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors?
- Flumazenil
- Buspirone
- Picrotoxin
- Diazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on GABA-A receptors. Buspirone is a 5-HT1A partial agonist, picrotoxin is a noncompetitive GABA-A channel blocker, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine agonist.
Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors?
- Pirenzepine
- Ranitidine
- Omeprazole
- Trimethaphan
Explanation: Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor; ranitidine is an H2 blocker, pirenzepine is an M1 antagonist, and trimethaphan is a ganglionic blocker.
Most of drugs are antacids EXCEPT?
- Misoprostol
- Maalox
- Mylanta
- Almagel
Explanation: Answer reason: Maalox, Mylanta, and Almagel are antacid preparations; misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog used for ulcer prevention, not an antacid.
All of the following drugs stimulate appetite EXCEPT?
- Vitamins
- Bitters
- Fepranone
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: Bitters and insulin are known to increase appetite; vitamins are commonly used as appetite tonics. Fepranone is an anorectic (appetite suppressant), so it does not stimulate appetite.
Select the drug which inhibits peristalsis?
- Castor oil
- Bisacodyl
- Loperamide
- Sorbitol
Explanation: Answer reason: Loperamide is an antimotility opioid agonist that reduces intestinal motility and inhibits peristalsis; castor oil, bisacodyl, and sorbitol are laxatives that increase motility.
Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action?
- Aspirin
- Heparin
- Dicumarol
- Phenprocoumon
Explanation: Answer reason: Heparin is a directly acting anticoagulant (acts in the blood via antithrombin III). Dicumarol and phenprocoumon are indirect oral anticoagulants (vitamin K antagonists), and aspirin is an antiplatelet agent.
Tick the drug used as an oral anticoagulant?
- Heparin
- Daltreparin
- Dicumarol
- Enoxaparin
Explanation: Answer reason: Dicumarol (a vitamin K antagonist) is an oral anticoagulant. Heparin, dalteparin, and enoxaparin are parenteral anticoagulants (UFH/LMWH).
All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXCEPT?
- Aspirin
- Urokinase
- Ticlopidine
- Clopidogrel
Explanation: Answer reason: Urokinase is a fibrinolytic (thrombolytic) agent, not an antiplatelet. Aspirin, ticlopidine, and clopidogrel are antiplatelet drugs.
The non-glycoside positive inotropic drug is?
- Digoxin
- Strophanthin K
- Dobutamine
- Digitoxin
Explanation: Answer reason: Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist (catecholamine) that increases contractility but is not a cardiac glycoside; digoxin, digitoxin, and strophanthin K are glycosides.
Aglycone is essential for?
- Plasma protein binding
- Half-life
- Cardiotonic action
- Metabolism
Explanation: Answer reason: In cardiac glycosides, the aglycone (genin) steroid nucleus confers the cardiotonic activity, while the sugar moiety mainly affects pharmacokinetics such as protein binding and half-life.
This drug is a selective beta-1 agonist?
- Digoxin
- Dobutamine
- Amrinone
- Dopamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Dobutamine is a relatively selective beta-1 adrenergic agonist used to increase cardiac contractility. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside, amrinone is a PDE3 inhibitor, and dopamine has dose-dependent dopaminergic, beta-1, and alpha effects and is not beta-1 selective.
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