Question 1

Metronidazole is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It also treats several protozoal infections such as Trichomonas vaginalis, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba histolytica. This mechanism does not target fungi or viruses, so those choices are inappropriate. Tuberculosis therapy requires specific antimycobacterial agents (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin), not this drug.

Question 2

Amphotericin B belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amphotericin B is classified by its chemical structure and mechanism as a polyene antifungal that binds ergosterol in fungal cell membranes and forms pores, causing leakage and cell death. This mechanism is distinct from azoles, which inhibit ergosterol synthesis by blocking fungal CYP450 14-α-demethylase rather than directly binding membrane sterols. While amphotericin B is sometimes historically described as an “antibiotic” because it is produced by Streptomyces, clinically it is categorized as an antifungal agent, not a general antibacterial antibiotic. It has no antiviral activity, so that option is clearly incorrect.

Question 3

Nystatin is used for –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is primarily used for superficial Candida infections such as oral thrush and cutaneous/vaginal candidiasis, often as a topical or oral suspension “swish and swallow.” Because bacteria and protozoa lack ergosterol-containing membranes, it has no meaningful activity against bacterial or protozoal infections. It also does not treat viral infections, which require agents targeting viral replication rather than fungal membranes.

Question 4

Griseofulvin is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it effective for dermatophyte infections such as tinea (ringworm). Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and requires antibiotics, while malaria requires antimalarials and tuberculosis requires multi-drug anti-TB therapy. Therefore the only option matching the drug’s established clinical indication is a dermatophyte infection.

Question 5

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism makes it effective for treatment and post-exposure prophylaxis of influenza, especially when started within 48 hours of symptom onset. It is not active against fungi, which require antifungal agents targeting ergosterol or fungal cell wall synthesis. It also does not treat bacterial infections like typhoid (Salmonella) or tuberculosis (Mycobacterium), which require antibiotic regimens.

Question 6

Drug that increases urine output is called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A drug designed to produce this effect is classified as a diuretic and is commonly used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension. The other choices describe medications aimed at gastric acid neutralization, pain relief, or nausea control, none of which primarily increase urine output. Therefore, the term that matches the pharmacologic action of increasing urine output is the diuretic class.

Question 7

Ketorolac is used as –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is commonly used postoperatively as an opioid-sparing agent, emphasizing its role as a strong analgesic rather than a mild one. It does not have antimicrobial activity, so it cannot be classified as an antibiotic. It also does not neutralize gastric acid; instead, like other NSAIDs, it can increase gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding risk, which is the opposite of an antacid’s purpose.

Question 8

Loperamide is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism directly treats symptomatic, noninfectious acute diarrhea and chronic diarrhea (e.g., some IBS-D cases) by reducing stool frequency and improving stool consistency. It is not an antiemetic, antitussive, or antipyretic, so it does not address vomiting, cough, or fever as primary indications. A key safety consideration is to avoid use in suspected infectious dysentery (bloody diarrhea, high fever) or C. difficile due to risk of toxic megacolon and worsening disease.

Question 9

Domperidone is mainly prescribed for –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Domperidone is a peripheral dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist with antiemetic and prokinetic effects. By blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (largely outside the blood–brain barrier) and enhancing gastric motility, it reduces nausea and vomiting, especially related to gastroparesis or medication-induced symptoms. It is not an antihistamine, so it does not treat allergic conditions. It also has no anthelmintic activity and is not an analgesic, making those options pharmacologically mismatched.

Question 10

Atropine is mainly used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In symptomatic bradycardia—especially when due to excessive vagal tone or AV nodal block—this mechanism directly targets the cause and is a first-line temporizing medication in emergency care. The other options are not primary indications: fever is not treated with antimuscarinics, hypoglycemia requires glucose or glucagon, and diarrhea treatment is not the main clinical use of this drug. Thus the best match to atropine’s core pharmacologic action is treatment of bradycardia.

Question 11

Drug of choice for allergic rhinitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A second-generation agent is preferred because it provides symptom relief with less sedation and anticholinergic burden than first-generation antihistamines. The other options do not target histamine-driven nasal symptoms: paracetamol and ibuprofen are analgesic/antipyretic agents, and metformin is an antidiabetic medication. Therefore the best choice among the listed options is the H1 antihistamine.

Question 12

Allergic sneezing is controlled with —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An oral second-generation H1 antihistamine reduces histamine-driven symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and rhinorrhea with relatively less sedation than first-generation agents. Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker for hypertension, not an anti-allergy medication. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker for gastric acid suppression, and ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic, so neither addresses histamine-mediated allergic rhinitis symptoms.

Question 13

Which drug is used to treat bipolar disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mood stabilizers are first-line maintenance therapies for bipolar disorder because they reduce recurrence of manic and depressive episodes and help control acute mania. Lithium is a classic mood stabilizer with strong evidence for bipolar I disorder, including anti-suicidal benefit in many patients. The other options do not treat bipolar disorder: ranitidine is an H2 blocker for acid-related disorders, while ibuprofen and paracetamol are analgesic/antipyretic agents without mood-stabilizing effects. Therefore the only option that directly targets bipolar mood dysregulation is the mood stabilizer listed.

Question 14

Fungal skin infections are treated with –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is an imidazole antifungal commonly used topically for dermatophyte and Candida skin infections. The other choices do not target fungi: one is an antibiotic for bacteria, one is an antihypertensive calcium-channel blocker, and one is an analgesic/antiplatelet drug. Therefore, the antifungal medication is the appropriate treatment.

Question 15

Which drug is used to treat psoriasis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and reduces T-cell–driven inflammation and epidermal turnover, making it a standard systemic option for moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. Antihistamines primarily relieve itch from allergic conditions and do not treat the underlying psoriatic inflammation. Antibiotics and simple analgesics are not disease-modifying for psoriasis unless treating an unrelated infection or pain.

Question 16

Migraine headache is treated with –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Triptans are selective 5‑HT1B/1D agonists that abort migraine attacks by constricting dilated intracranial vessels and inhibiting CGRP release from trigeminal nerve endings. The other choices are not migraine-specific abortive agents: cetirizine is an antihistamine and ranitidine is an H2 blocker. Paracetamol can help mild headache pain, but it lacks the targeted anti-migraine mechanism and is less effective than triptans for moderate-to-severe migraine attacks.

Question 17

Which drug is used for severe pain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is an opioid-like analgesic commonly used when non-opioids are inadequate, fitting the question’s intent for severe pain management. Metformin is an antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes, not a pain medicine. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor for acid-related disorders, and vitamin B complex is a supplement rather than an acute analgesic.

Question 18

For patients with systemic lupus erythematosus starting hydroxychloroquine therapy, what baseline assessment is advised?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydroxychloroquine can cause dose- and duration-related retinal toxicity (maculopathy) that may be irreversible, so vision protection relies on early detection through ophthalmologic screening. A baseline eye exam (including retinal assessment) helps document pre-treatment status and guides follow-up monitoring intervals. Hearing, skin, and routine liver assessments are not the key baseline safety priority uniquely associated with this medication compared with ocular screening. This baseline step reduces the risk of missed early retinal changes while patients benefit from lupus disease control.

Question 19

DOC for eclampsia is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It stabilizes neuromuscular excitability and reduces the risk of recurrent seizures more effectively than alternative agents. Diazepam and phenytoin may be used when magnesium is contraindicated or unavailable, but they are inferior for maternal outcomes and seizure prophylaxis in this setting. Oxytocin is a uterotonic used for labor induction or postpartum hemorrhage and does not treat eclamptic seizures.

Question 20

Which vaccine is given by intradermal route? –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: BCG (tuberculosis vaccine) is classically administered intradermally, producing a characteristic local wheal and later a small scar. DPT and hepatitis B vaccines are typically given intramuscularly, while OPV is administered orally. Therefore, only the intradermal route matches the vaccination practice for this option.

Question 21

Emergency contraceptive drug ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option directly matches the standard, widely used oral emergency contraceptive pill. In contrast, mifepristone and misoprostol are primarily used for medical abortion regimens rather than routine post-coital contraception. “Progesterone” is nonspecific and not used as a standard emergency contraception product in typical practice.

Question 22

Drug used for induction of labor —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is a uterotonic hormone (given IV infusion in obstetrics) that increases the frequency and strength of uterine contractions, making it a standard agent for labor induction and augmentation. Atropine is an antimuscarinic used for bradycardia and secretion control, not uterine stimulation. Insulin treats hyperglycemia, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine sedative—neither initiates labor and both could pose maternal/fetal risks if misused in this context.

Question 23

Salbutamol is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a first-line rescue medication for acute asthma symptoms and exercise-induced bronchoconstriction. It does not treat diabetes or fever because it has no glucose-lowering or antipyretic mechanism. While beta-2 agonists can cause tachycardia and mild tremor, they are not used to manage hypertension and can potentially worsen palpitations in susceptible patients.

Question 24

Clinical judgment in prescribe includes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Appropriate prescribing requires considering patient-specific factors, including cost and access, to ensure adherence and effectiveness. Automatically choosing the newest drug, relying on samples, or prescribing only generics without clinical consideration does not reflect sound clinical judgment.

Question 25

A nurse is providing teaching to a patient and their parents on somatropin. The parents ask how long this medication will be given to their child. What response should the nurse provide?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Somatropin (recombinant growth hormone) promotes linear growth only while the epiphyseal growth plates remain open. Once epiphyseal closure occurs, additional hormone cannot increase height, so therapy for pediatric growth failure is typically discontinued at or near closure and/or when satisfactory growth response is achieved. A single dose or a fixed one-month course does not match the chronic nature of growth hormone replacement during childhood. Lifelong therapy may be indicated for some patients with persistent adult GH deficiency, but the question asks about a child’s treatment duration for growth, which is limited by epiphyseal closure.

Question 26

The nurse comprehends that the therapeutic effects of typical antipsychotic medications are linked to alterations in which neurotransmitter?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics produce their primary therapeutic effect by antagonizing dopamine D2 receptors, especially in the mesolimbic pathway where dopamine hyperactivity contributes to positive psychotic symptoms. By reducing dopaminergic signaling, these drugs lessen hallucinations, delusions, and agitation. Changes in acetylcholine are more related to anticholinergic adverse effects and the dopamine–acetylcholine balance in the nigrostriatal tract rather than the main therapeutic mechanism. Serotonin modulation is more characteristic of atypical antipsychotics (5-HT2A antagonism), and GABA stimulation is the key mechanism of benzodiazepines, not typical antipsychotics.

Question 27

Amiodarone is used in the treatment of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is used to treat serious atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation (rhythm control) and ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. The other options represent conditions not treated by antiarrhythmic drugs; for example, asthma is managed with bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory therapies rather than agents that alter cardiac conduction. Clinically, its efficacy in difficult-to-control arrhythmias is balanced against notable toxicity risks (thyroid, pulmonary, hepatic), reinforcing that its indication is arrhythmia management rather than unrelated diseases.

Question 28

Dexamethasone belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glucocorticoids exert anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects by altering gene transcription and reducing cytokine-mediated inflammation. This mechanism explains its common uses (e.g., cerebral edema, severe allergic/inflammatory conditions, adjunct in some shock states), which are not consistent with antimicrobial classes. Antibiotics and antifungals directly target bacterial or fungal organisms, whereas dexamethasone does not have pathogen-killing activity. Analgesics primarily relieve pain via nociceptive pathway modulation; steroids may reduce pain only indirectly by reducing inflammation.

Question 29

Amoxicillin belongs to -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism and its typical spectrum (many streptococci and some gram-negative organisms) align with penicillins rather than macrolides (protein synthesis inhibitors) or tetracyclines (30S inhibitors). Cephalosporins are also beta-lactams but are a distinct class from penicillins with different core structures and generational groupings. Recognizing the class is clinically important because penicillin allergy considerations and cross-reactivity discussions hinge on amoxicillin being a penicillin.

Question 30

Enalapril belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism places it in the ACE inhibitor drug class and explains common clinical effects such as reduced blood pressure and afterload. A key way to distinguish it from an ARB is that ACE inhibition increases bradykinin levels, which contributes to cough and angioedema risk; ARBs do not. It is not a beta-blocker (which primarily reduces heart rate/contractility via beta-adrenergic blockade) and not a diuretic (which primarily promotes renal sodium and water excretion).

Question 31

Diazoxide is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used to treat recurrent or persistent hypoglycemia due to hyperinsulinemic states (e.g., insulinoma, congenital hyperinsulinism). This mechanism makes it inappropriate for treating hyperglycemia, since it would worsen elevated glucose. It also has no role as an antipyretic or bronchodilator, so fever and asthma are not indicated uses.

Question 32

Haloperidol is mainly used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets positive psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, agitation, and acute psychosis. It is not an antipyretic, bronchodilator, or antidiabetic agent, so fever, asthma, and diabetes are not its primary indications. A common exam distinction is that while it can also be used for acute agitation/delirium and Tourette syndrome, its main/classic use is psychotic disorders like schizophrenia.

Question 33

Phenytoin is used as –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that prevents and treats seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing repetitive firing through voltage-gated sodium channel blockade. This mechanism directly aligns with its clinical use in seizure disorders, including focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures and (historically) status epilepticus management. The other options describe drug classes with different primary targets and indications (mood disorders, pain control, fever reduction) and do not match phenytoin’s pharmacodynamic profile. A common exam distinction is that it is not a general analgesic/antipyretic like NSAIDs or acetaminophen. Therefore the best answer is the anticonvulsant category.

Question 34

Furosemide acts as —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pharmacologic profile distinguishes it from thiazides, which act in the distal convoluted tubule and are less potent. It is also not an osmotic diuretic (e.g., mannitol), which works by increasing tubular osmolarity rather than blocking a transporter. It is not potassium-sparing, since it tends to increase urinary potassium loss and can cause hypokalemia.

Question 35

Methyldopa is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It has a long track record of fetal safety and is considered a preferred antihypertensive in pregnancy, particularly for chronic hypertension and pregnancy-associated hypertension. The other options do not match its primary therapeutic indication: it is not used to treat hyperglycemia, bronchospasm, or depressive disorders. A key clinical consideration is monitoring for adverse effects such as sedation and, less commonly, hemolytic anemia or hepatotoxicity, rather than expecting metabolic or bronchodilator benefits.

Question 36

Streptomycin belongs to –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptomycin is a classic aminoglycoside that binds the 30S ribosomal subunit, causing misreading of mRNA and bactericidal protein synthesis inhibition. This class is associated with notable toxicities such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, which is consistent with streptomycin’s clinical profile. Macrolides and tetracyclines are primarily bacteriostatic and have different ribosomal targets (50S and 30S respectively) and structures, while fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase/topoisomerase rather than ribosomes.

Question 37

Chloramphenicol is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Historically, it was used to treat Salmonella typhi infection, especially in settings where other agents were not available, though its use is now limited by serious toxicity (e.g., aplastic anemia) and resistance. It is not a treatment for malaria (a protozoal infection), tuberculosis (requires specific multidrug antimycobacterial therapy), or viral infections (antibiotics are ineffective against viruses). Therefore, the best indicated use among the options is typhoid fever.

Question 38

Rifampicin is used in the treatment of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is routinely used in combination regimens (e.g., with isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol) to prevent resistance and achieve sterilizing activity. It does not treat malaria (protozoal) and is not an antifungal agent. Although rifampicin has some activity against select bacteria, it is not a treatment for viral infections.

Question 39

Allopurinol is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic hyperuricemia drives monosodium urate crystal deposition, which causes gout flares and tophi, so urate-lowering therapy targets the underlying mechanism. It is used for long-term prevention (and for tumor lysis syndrome–related hyperuricemia) rather than treating acute gout pain, which is managed with NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids. The other options are not indications because their pathophysiology is not primarily driven by uric acid overproduction.

Question 40

Vancomycin is mainly used for –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its large, hydrophilic structure prevents reliable penetration through the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, so routine Gram-negative coverage is poor. Clinically it is used for serious Gram-positive infections including MRSA and for susceptible enterococcal infections, and orally for C. difficile colitis. Antibacterials do not treat viral or parasitic diseases, making those options incorrect.

Question 41

Doxycycline is an example of –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism and class grouping are foundational pharmacology facts used to predict spectrum of activity and key adverse effects (e.g., photosensitivity, tooth discoloration in children). Macrolides instead bind the 50S subunit, while cephalosporins are beta-lactams that inhibit cell wall synthesis, and fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase/topoisomerase. Therefore, the drug’s correct class among the options is the tetracycline group.

Question 42

Ketoconazole acts by inhibiting –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of ergosterol disrupts membrane integrity and function, impairing fungal growth and viability. Ketoconazole is therefore categorized as a membrane synthesis inhibitor rather than a nucleic acid or protein synthesis inhibitor. Options describing RNA, DNA, or protein synthesis inhibition better match other antimicrobial classes (e.g., flucytosine, quinolones, or some antibiotics), not azoles.

Question 43

Itraconazole is used in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used for dermatophyte infections (e.g., tinea), mucocutaneous candidiasis, and certain systemic mycoses such as histoplasmosis and blastomycosis. The other options are caused by bacteria (tuberculosis, typhoid) or protozoa (malaria) and require antimycobacterial, antibacterial, or antimalarial therapy rather than an azole antifungal. Therefore, its indicated use best matches fungal disease treatment.

Question 44

Omeprazole is used mainly for –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly blocks the gastric H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells, producing profound suppression of gastric acid secretion. This directly treats acid-related disorders such as GERD and promotes healing of peptic ulcers, including those associated with NSAID use and as part of H. pylori eradication regimens. Fever and viral flu are not acid-mediated conditions and are treated with antipyretics/antivirals or supportive care rather than acid suppression. Tuberculosis requires multi-drug antimycobacterial therapy, and acid suppression does not address its infectious pathogenesis.

Question 45

Loratadine is commonly used for —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Allergic rhinitis is a classic indication because blocking peripheral H1 receptors reduces nasal mucosal itching and secretion. It is preferred over first-generation antihistamines due to less sedation and anticholinergic burden at usual doses. Diabetes, diarrhea, and arthritis are not conditions primarily driven by histamine release and are treated with different medication classes, making them poor matches.

Question 46

Ivermectin is mainly used to treat —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used for helminthic and ectoparasitic diseases such as onchocerciasis, strongyloidiasis, scabies, and lice. It is not an antipyretic or antiviral agent, so it is not used for routine viral fevers. It also has no primary role in treating chronic noninfectious conditions like hypertension or diabetes.

Question 47

Metformin belongs to which class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is the prototypical biguanide oral antihyperglycemic that lowers glucose mainly by decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving peripheral insulin sensitivity without directly stimulating insulin release. This explains its low risk of hypoglycemia when used alone compared with insulin secretagogues like sulfonylureas. Thiazolidinediones act via PPAR-γ to increase insulin sensitivity, and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors reduce intestinal carbohydrate absorption, so they do not match metformin’s class.

Question 48

Drug of choice in anaphylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine provides immediate alpha-1 vasoconstriction to restore blood pressure and reduce mucosal edema, plus beta-2 bronchodilation and mast-cell mediator suppression. This combination directly targets the primary mechanisms driving hypoxia and hypotension and is therefore first-line and time-critical. Corticosteroids and antihistamines are adjuncts with delayed onset and do not reverse acute airway compromise or shock, while atropine and dopamine do not address the core allergic mediator pathway as effectively.

Question 49

Albendazole is used to treat –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets helminths (e.g., intestinal nematodes and some cestodes), leading to immobilization and death of the parasite. It does not have antibacterial, antiviral, or antifungal activity because those pathogens lack the susceptible helminth-specific metabolic vulnerabilities being targeted. A common distractor is bacterial infection, but antibiotics are required there because the drug’s mechanism is not directed at prokaryotic cell structures or functions.

Question 50

Hypoglycemia is caused by –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excess insulin relative to carbohydrate intake, physical activity, or endogenous glucose output is a classic mechanism for hypoglycemia. This is particularly relevant with rapid-acting insulin, dosing errors, missed meals, renal impairment, or increased exercise. In contrast, acid-suppressing drugs like omeprazole or ranitidine and an antihistamine like loratadine are not typical direct causes of clinically significant hypoglycemia in standard exam contexts.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning