Question 1

Drug for hypertension is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that causes peripheral arterial vasodilation, making it a standard option for chronic hypertension. Insulin is used for glycemic control in diabetes, not for reducing blood pressure. Salbutamol is a beta-2 agonist bronchodilator for asthma/COPD, and cetirizine is an H1 antihistamine for allergic symptoms, so neither addresses hypertension.

Question 2

Drug causing gray baby syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This toxicity classically occurs with chloramphenicol, leading to vomiting, abdominal distension, hypothermia, cyanosis, and ashen-gray discoloration with cardiovascular collapse. The syndrome is therefore most strongly linked to impaired drug metabolism in newborns rather than an allergic mechanism. A common confusion is sulfonamides, which are instead associated with kernicterus risk from bilirubin displacement.

Question 3

Paracetamol is known as..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The drug is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic commonly used for pain and fever, and this name equivalence is a core pharmacology fact. Ibuprofen, aspirin, and diclofenac are NSAIDs with different mechanisms and adverse-effect profiles (e.g., GI bleeding risk with aspirin/NSAIDs) and are not alternate names for paracetamol. Therefore, the only option that correctly identifies what paracetamol is known as is the listed synonym.

Question 4

Which medication is used to treat hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug is an ACE inhibitor that decreases angiotensin II formation and aldosterone secretion, leading to vasodilation and reduced fluid retention. The other options are not primary antihypertensives: paracetamol and ibuprofen are analgesics (and NSAIDs can worsen blood pressure control), while loratadine is an antihistamine for allergies. Therefore it best matches a standard medication used to treat hypertension.

Question 5

Fluoroquinolones Important adverse effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones are associated with tendinitis and tendon rupture due to adverse effects on connective tissue collagen turnover, with higher risk in older adults, corticosteroid use, and transplant patients. This is a well-tested “black box”-type safety concern and is classically linked to agents like ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. Bone marrow suppression is more characteristic of drugs such as chloramphenicol/linezolid rather than this class. Red man syndrome is an infusion-related histamine reaction classically tied to vancomycin, while dysglycemia (including hypoglycemia) can occur with some fluoroquinolones but is not the hallmark adverse effect compared with tendon injury.

Question 6

Drug of choice for most anaerobic infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metronidazole is highly active against many clinically important anaerobes (e.g., Bacteroides spp.) and is commonly used for intra-abdominal, pelvic, dental, and CNS anaerobic infections, often in combination regimens. Ciprofloxacin and gentamicin primarily target aerobic gram-negative organisms and have poor anaerobic activity. Amoxicillin alone is not reliably sufficient for many beta-lactamase–producing anaerobes, making it a less consistent first-choice across “most” anaerobic infections.

Question 7

Side effect of erythromycin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This occurs because the drug acts as a motilin receptor agonist, increasing peristalsis. Bone marrow suppression is more characteristic of chloramphenicol, not erythromycin. Nephrotoxicity is classically associated with agents like aminoglycosides or amphotericin B, while ototoxicity is not a typical primary adverse effect for erythromycin in standard exam framing.

Question 8

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tinidazole is more slowly eliminated, giving it a longer half-life that supports less frequent dosing and sometimes shorter treatment courses. Efficacy is generally comparable for susceptible anaerobes and protozoa, making reduced efficacy an unlikely distinguishing feature. Toxicity profiles overlap, and spectrum is not meaningfully narrower than metronidazole for typical clinical indications.

Question 9

Which drug is most commonly used to treat cardiogenic shock?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An inotrope/vasopressor that increases myocardial contractility and can raise systemic vascular resistance helps restore perfusion while definitive management (e.g., revascularization, mechanical support) is pursued. ACE inhibitors can worsen acute shock by decreasing afterload too abruptly and lowering blood pressure further, and beta-blockers reduce contractility/heart rate, which is harmful in decompensated shock. Diuretics may be used for pulmonary congestion but do not directly correct the low-output state and can worsen hypotension if overdiuresed.

Question 10

Which of the following is used to treat shingles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acyclovir is active against herpesviruses and, when started early, helps shorten lesion duration and reduce acute neuritic pain and risk of complications. Penicillin and sulfonamides are antibacterials and do not treat viral VZV infection. A fungicide is for fungal pathogens, and trifluridine is primarily used topically for herpes simplex keratitis rather than systemic shingles.

Question 11

A client who was recently hospitalized has a nursing diagnosis of constipation related to medical regimen. Which medication may contribute to this problem?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a frequent medication-related contributor when a patient develops new constipation during or after hospitalization. In contrast, folic acid and vitamin E are not typical causes of constipation at usual doses. Potassium supplements more often cause nausea or GI irritation (and can cause diarrhea with some formulations) rather than constipation.

Question 12

Which medication is most likely to be prescribed for a client with gonorrhea?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug reliably achieves bactericidal levels and is recommended as standard therapy in most guidelines. Azithromycin is not adequate monotherapy for gonorrhea and is more commonly used for chlamydial coverage when coinfection is a concern. Penicillin G benzathine is primarily used for syphilis, and trichloroacetic acid is a topical caustic agent used for genital warts, not a systemic antibiotic for gonorrhea.

Question 13

What is the class of medications that protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug class antagonizes beta-1 adrenergic receptors, reducing chronotropy and inotropy and prolonging diastole, which improves coronary perfusion while decreasing oxygen consumption. They also blunt catecholamine-driven arrhythmias during ischemia, providing additional myocardial protection. By contrast, nitrates primarily reduce preload and relieve angina via venodilation but do not directly block sympathetic catecholamine effects.

Question 14

Which antiparkinsonian drug can cause drug tolerance or toxicity if taken for too long at one time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, patients may report that symptom relief diminishes after weeks to months, prompting reassessment of therapy. In contrast, levodopa-carbidopa is more associated with wearing-off and dyskinesias related to disease progression and dopaminergic fluctuations rather than classic rapid tolerance from continuous use. Therefore, the drug most classically linked to tolerance with extended continuous dosing is this agent.

Question 15

A client recovering from a spinal cord injury has a great deal of spasticity. Which medication may be used to control spasticity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Baclofen is a GABA-B agonist that decreases reflex activity and muscle tone, making it a standard agent for neurogenic spasticity (including oral or intrathecal use in severe cases). Hydralazine is an antihypertensive vasodilator and does not treat muscle spasm. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic/antiarrhythmic, and methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid more associated with acute inflammation management rather than ongoing spasticity control.

Question 16

What is the most common adverse reaction a nurse might observe after administering enteric-coated erythromycin (Ery-tab)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, and sometimes diarrhea, even with enteric-coated formulations (which mainly reduce stomach irritation but do not eliminate GI effects). The other options are not typical adverse effects associated with erythromycin. Clinically, monitoring for GI intolerance is important because it can reduce adherence and contribute to dehydration risk in children.

Question 17

The parents of a child with lead poisoning ask the nurse which procedure is the main treatment for lead poisoning. What is the best response by the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the standard definitive medical therapy for clinically significant elevations in blood lead levels, alongside removal from the exposure source and supportive care. Exchange transfusion and dialysis are not routine first-line treatments for lead because lead is largely intracellular/bone-bound and not efficiently cleared by these methods in typical cases. Bone marrow transplant has no role in treating lead poisoning.

Question 18

Cholinergic agents are also known as parasympathomimetics. Why is this type of medication useful in the treatment of glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parasympathomimetics stimulate muscarinic receptors in the eye, contracting the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscle. This leads to pupillary constriction and increased outflow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork/Schlemm canal, helping lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma. Options describing decreased lacrimation or anhidrosis reflect anticholinergic effects (reduced secretions), not cholinergic activity. Mydriasis is opposite of the desired effect and can worsen angle closure by narrowing the anterior chamber angle.

Question 19

After a diagnosis of CRF, the client was started on epoetin alfa. Which finding indicates that the medication has been effective?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When effective, it raises hemoglobin/hematocrit over time as reticulocytes mature into circulating erythrocytes. It does not directly improve kidney filtration, so serum creatinine would not be expected to fall from this therapy. WBC count is unrelated to its primary mechanism, and blood pressure may actually increase as a notable adverse effect rather than reliably decrease.

Question 20

Atropine is being administered to a child with sinus bradycardia. Which statement is the most accurate about the administration of this medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic that blocks vagal (parasympathetic) influence at the SA and AV nodes, which is a primary driver of sinus bradycardia. By inhibiting muscarinic receptors, it increases SA node firing and improves AV nodal conduction, leading to a higher heart rate. Blood pressure may change secondarily if cardiac output rises, but that is not the most accurate core effect being tested. Bronchodilation can occur due to anticholinergic effects, but it is not the key indication in treating symptomatic bradycardia, and the opposite heart-rate effect is incorrect.

Question 21

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is suspected of having cardiovascular disease. The nurse is aware that which classification of medication may be used safely in a pregnant client with cardiovascular disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, has longstanding use in pregnancy for certain maternal cardiac conditions and fetal arrhythmias, and is generally considered compatible when clinically indicated and monitored. Warfarin is a known teratogen (especially in the first trimester) and increases risk of fetal bleeding, making it unsafe in most pregnancies. Diuretics can reduce plasma volume and uteroplacental perfusion and are used cautiously rather than broadly considered “safe” for pregnant clients with cardiovascular disease.

Question 22

A 56-year-old client with heart failure is allergic to sulfa-based medications. Which type of diuretic should be used cautiously?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics contain a sulfonamide moiety, so they are traditionally flagged to be used with caution in patients reporting sulfa allergy, especially if the prior reaction was severe (e.g., SJS/TEN, anaphylaxis). By contrast, osmotic diuretics and most potassium-sparing diuretics (notably spironolactone, eplerenone, amiloride, triamterene) are not sulfonamides. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can also be sulfonamides, but among the provided choices, thiazides are a common heart-failure-related diuretic class where this precaution is routinely tested.

Question 23

Teaching children with leukemia and their families should include potential adverse effects of treatments. Which of the following is an adverse effect of prednisone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prednisone therefore can raise capillary blood glucose even in patients without preexisting diabetes, and monitoring is an important teaching point during therapy. Steroids are also immunosuppressive, so they increase (not decrease) infection risk, making that option incorrect. Appetite is more often increased with prednisone, and alopecia is not a typical prednisone adverse effect compared with many chemotherapeutic agents.

Question 24

A medication is said to have inotropic, chronotropic, or dromotropic effects on cardiac tissue. The nurse knows medications that have a chronotropic effect can cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronotropy refers to the effect of a drug on the rate of impulse generation at the sinoatrial node, which directly changes heart rate. Positive chronotropes increase heart rate (e.g., beta-agonists), while negative chronotropes decrease it (e.g., beta-blockers, some calcium channel blockers). In contrast, inotropy describes changes in myocardial contractility and dromotropy describes changes in conduction velocity through the AV node/His-Purkinje system. Valvular strength is not a recognized pharmacodynamic cardiac effect in this framework.

Question 25

A client with an overactive neurogenic bladder is complaining of a dry mouth from his medication oxybutynin (Ditropan). The nurse is aware that this adverse effect is commonly found with which of the following drug classifications?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anticholinergic effects reduce salivary gland secretion, making dry mouth a common and expected adverse effect. This same mechanism also explains other frequent effects such as constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention risk. In contrast, anti-infectives or urinary antiseptics primarily target microorganisms and are not characteristically associated with prominent anticholinergic xerostomia.

Question 26

The nurse is assessing the client using desoximetasone topical cream for an abdominal rash. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a known side effect from the medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypertrichosis is a recognized local effect and would be a concerning but expected medication-related finding on assessment. In contrast, corticosteroids typically cause skin atrophy and thinning rather than thickening, and they can contribute to striae formation rather than reducing it. Pigment changes can occur with some topical therapies, but hypertrichosis is the more classic adverse effect among the choices for a potent topical steroid like desoximetasone.

Question 27

Bronchodilators are classified as adrenergic drugs. In addition to this classification, bronchodilators work by stimulating which receptor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adrenergic bronchodilators primarily target beta2 receptors on bronchial smooth muscle to increase intracellular cAMP, leading to smooth muscle relaxation and airway dilation. This mechanism directly improves airflow and relieves acute bronchospasm in conditions like asthma or COPD. Beta1 stimulation would predominantly affect the heart (increasing rate and contractility) and is not the desired selective effect for bronchodilation. Alpha receptor stimulation is more associated with vasoconstriction and does not produce the primary therapeutic bronchodilator response.

Question 28

Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of why furosemide (Lasix) is administered to treat hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that lowers blood pressure primarily by promoting natriuresis and diuresis, which decreases intravascular volume and reduces cardiac preload and overall blood pressure. Its main site of action is the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle where it blocks sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased water excretion. Vasodilation is more characteristic of other antihypertensive classes, and ACE inhibition specifically describes ACE inhibitors rather than loop diuretics. Decreasing sympathetic cardioacceleration is the mechanism of beta-blockers, not furosemide.

Question 29

Which statement is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chemotherapy primarily targets processes required for cell division (e.g., DNA synthesis and mitosis), so cells cycling rapidly spend more time in vulnerable phases. Tumors with high growth fractions tend to respond better because a larger proportion of malignant cells are actively dividing when exposed to cytotoxic agents. This same principle explains common toxicities in normal high-turnover tissues like bone marrow, GI mucosa, and hair follicles. In contrast, nondividing or slowly cycling cells are relatively less affected, contributing to residual disease and potential relapse.

Question 30

A male client brings a list of his prescribed medications to the clinic.During the initial assessment, he tells the nurse that he has been experiencing delayed ejaculation. Which of the following drug classes would most likely be associated with this condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drugs used for blood pressure control—particularly beta-blockers and some centrally acting agents—can impair orgasm and contribute to delayed ejaculation. In contrast, anticoagulants and most antibiotics are not typical causes of ejaculatory delay as a primary side effect. While steroids can alter libido and hormonal balance, delayed ejaculation is more classically associated with antihypertensive therapy in general medication-side-effect questions.

Question 31

An albuterol nebulizer treatment is ordered for the 6-month-old infant hospitalized with LTB. The nurse understands that albuterol, when used as a nebulizer treatment, does what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly improves airflow when bronchospasm is contributing to wheeze or increased work of breathing. It does not act as a diuretic to remove lung fluid, and it is not a mucolytic/expectorant medication. Reduction of airway inflammation is primarily achieved with corticosteroids, not albuterol.

Question 32

The client is prescribed varenicline for smoking cessation. The nurse concludes that varenicline is being prescribed primarily for its antagonistic effect. Which statement describes this effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Varenicline targets nicotinic acetylcholine receptors involved in nicotine reinforcement; its clinically important “antagonist” contribution is limiting nicotine’s ability to activate these receptors and trigger dopamine-mediated reward. This reduces the pleasurable effects of smoking and helps prevent reinforcement and relapse when a client smokes while on therapy. By contrast, receptor “attractiveness” describes affinity (binding tendency) rather than antagonism, and rapid absorption is a pharmacokinetic property rather than a receptor-blocking effect.

Question 33

The nurse administers a usual morning dose of 4 units of regular insulin and 8 units of NPH insulin at 7:30 am. to the client with a blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL. Which statements regarding the client's insulin are correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The onset of the regular insulin will be at 8:00 am. and the peak at 10:00 am. Regular insulin is short-acting with an onset of about 30 minutes and a peak around 2–4 hours after subcutaneous administration. Given administration at 7:30 am, an onset near 8:00 am and a peak near 10:00 am align with these expected pharmacokinetics. NPH insulin is intermediate-acting and typically has a later onset (about 1–2 hours) with a much later peak (about 4–12 hours), so options assigning an early 10:00 am peak for NPH are inconsistent. This question is testing recognition of expected onset/peak timing to anticipate hypoglycemia risk periods after dosing.

Question 34

Which of the following Drugs is a Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac is a classic NSAID used for inflammatory conditions such as arthritis and musculoskeletal pain. Paracetamol is mainly analgesic/antipyretic with minimal anti-inflammatory effect and is not classified as an NSAID in standard pharmacology. Metronidazole is an antimicrobial, atenolol is a beta-blocker, and morphine is an opioid analgesic, so none fit the NSAID class.

Question 35

Chronic use of which deug cause bone marrow depression?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces megaloblastic changes and can progress to bone marrow suppression with cytopenias. The other anesthetics listed are not classically associated with this B12-dependent myelosuppressive mechanism; halothane is more linked to hepatotoxicity, and propofol to cardiovascular/respiratory depression and propofol infusion syndrome. Therefore, the option that best matches bone marrow depression with chronic use is nitrous oxide.

Question 36

The technique of administering the smallpox vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is done via scarification/multiple punctures with a bifurcated needle, essentially an intradermal scratch technique, rather than a deep parenteral route. Intravenous and subcutaneous injection would not produce the intended localized cutaneous replication and characteristic lesion. Z-track is a technique for irritating intramuscular medications and is unrelated to smallpox vaccine administration.

Question 37

What is alprazolam primarily used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is primarily indicated for anxiety disorders and panic disorder, where rapid symptom relief is desired. Hypertension and diabetes are not primary indications because alprazolam does not target blood pressure regulation or glucose metabolism. A key exam safety point is that benzodiazepines can cause CNS depression, dependence, and withdrawal, so they are used short-term or with careful monitoring.

Question 38

Which of the antibiotics class is associated with tendinitis/ tendon rupture?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The risk increases in older adults, patients on systemic corticosteroids, and transplant recipients, and symptoms can begin soon after starting therapy. Because this is a distinctive class adverse effect with FDA boxed warnings, it is a high-yield pharmacology association. Other listed antibiotic classes have different hallmark toxicities (e.g., aminoglycosides ototoxicity/nephrotoxicity), making them less consistent with tendon injury.

Question 39

Which of the following drug is used For Hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a direct arteriolar vasodilator that decreases afterload and lowers systemic blood pressure, so it is used in hypertension (including severe hypertension and in pregnancy when appropriate). Diazepam is a benzodiazepine for anxiety/seizures, not a BP-lowering agent. Artemether is an antimalarial, and ibuprofen is an NSAID that can worsen blood pressure control via sodium and water retention.

Question 40

Allergic rhinitis is controlled by...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blocking H1 receptors reduces these core symptoms and is a standard first-line pharmacologic approach for symptom control. Antibiotics do not help because the condition is not bacterial. Intranasal steroids are also effective (especially for congestion) but the single best general answer for “controlled by” in a basic MCQ is H1 blockade.

Question 41

Irreversible inhibitor of platelet aggregation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It acetylates and irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, blocking thromboxane A2 synthesis and thereby reducing platelet aggregation until new platelets are produced. Heparin and warfarin are anticoagulants that primarily reduce clotting factor activity rather than directly inhibiting platelet aggregation. A common distractor is clopidogrel, which also irreversibly inhibits platelet function via P2Y12 receptors, but the classic single best answer for irreversible inhibition of platelet aggregation in basic pharmacology is aspirin.

Question 42

Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly counteracts sedation and respiratory depression due to benzodiazepine effect. Naloxone is used for opioid toxicity, not benzodiazepines. Vitamin K reverses warfarin-associated anticoagulation, and protamine reverses heparin—neither addresses GABAergic drug effects. Clinically, use requires caution because it can precipitate seizures in chronic benzodiazepine users or mixed overdoses (e.g., with tricyclic antidepressants).

Question 43

Vaccine NOT given orally?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral polio vaccine and rotavirus vaccine are classically administered by mouth in routine immunization schedules, and typhoid also has an oral vaccine formulation (live attenuated Ty21a). Hepatitis B vaccine, however, is administered intramuscularly (typically in the anterolateral thigh in infants or deltoid in older children/adults) to generate an adequate systemic immune response. Therefore, it is the best choice as the vaccine not given orally.

Question 44

Metformin tablet is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets insulin resistance, the core pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, making it a first-line pharmacologic option when lifestyle measures are insufficient. It is not used to treat hypoglycemia, since it does not raise glucose and can worsen symptoms if taken without adequate intake. It is also not appropriate for acute DKA, which requires insulin and fluid/electrolyte resuscitation, and it is not a substitute for insulin in type 1 diabetes due to absolute insulin deficiency.

Question 45

Gentamicin toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aminoglycosides concentrate in the renal proximal tubule and can cause dose-related nephrotoxicity. Gentamicin classically presents with rising creatinine and reduced urine output, especially with prolonged therapy, high trough levels, or concomitant nephrotoxins. This makes renal injury the primary organ toxicity tested for gentamicin. A common paired toxicity is ototoxicity (not listed), which further supports that lung, bone, and skin are not the hallmark targets.

Question 46

Which condition is best treated with Omeprazole?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly promotes healing of peptic ulcers and relieves gastroesophageal reflux symptoms by reducing acid exposure to the mucosa and esophagus. It is also a key component of H. pylori eradication regimens when combined with antibiotics. In contrast, diabetes mellitus and seizure disorders require agents that target glucose regulation or neuronal excitability rather than acid secretion, and iron-deficiency anemia requires iron replacement with evaluation of the bleeding source rather than acid suppression.

Question 47

The drug of choice for initial management of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is generally weight-neutral or associated with modest weight loss and has long-standing evidence for efficacy, safety, and cost-effectiveness. Sulfonylureas (e.g., glimepiride) can cause hypoglycemia and weight gain, making them less ideal as initial monotherapy in many patients. Thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone) and DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin) may be used when metformin is not tolerated or as add-on therapy, but they are not the standard initial drug of choice in typical guidelines.

Question 48

Clindamycin is useful in treating?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It penetrates well into tissues and is commonly used for aspiration-related lung infection, dental infections, and deep neck space infections where anaerobes are prominent. It is not a reliable choice for aerobic gram-negative pathogens because it lacks consistent coverage for organisms like Enterobacterales and Pseudomonas. It has no activity against viruses or fungi, which require antivirals or antifungals rather than antibacterial agents.

Question 49

Medullary paralysis is occurred in which stage of anaesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Medullary paralysis corresponds to overdose/Stage IV, where respiratory and vasomotor centers become profoundly suppressed, leading to apnea, severe hypotension, and possible cardiovascular collapse. Earlier stages involve analgesia (Stage I), delirium/excitement (Stage II), and surgical anesthesia (Stage III) without complete failure of medullary control. Therefore, the stage associated with medullary paralysis is the fourth stage.

Question 50

True or False: Loop diuretics can cause ototoxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This risk increases with rapid IV administration, high doses, renal impairment, and concurrent ototoxic drugs such as aminoglycosides. Clinically, patients may report tinnitus or hearing loss, which can be reversible but may become permanent in severe exposures. Therefore, the statement is accurate and reflects a key adverse effect nurses monitor for when administering agents like furosemide or bumetanide.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning