Question 1

Aspirin causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the classic high-yield contraindication/caution tested with this medication class. The other choices are not characteristic adverse effects of aspirin; its more typical toxicities are GI bleeding, tinnitus/salicylism, and metabolic/respiratory acid–base disturbances. Therefore the option describing the well-known pediatric complication is the best answer.

Question 2

Ibuprofen is commonly used to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a common over-the-counter choice for musculoskeletal aches and minor inflammatory pain. While it can also help headaches, the broader and very typical indication emphasized in basic pharmacology is relief of muscle and joint pain. It is not used to treat acne (typically topical retinoids/benzoyl peroxide/antibiotics) or manage allergies (antihistamines/corticosteroids).

Question 3

True about oral polio vaccine - ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In rare cases, the attenuated virus can genetically revert toward neurovirulence and cause vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis in the vaccine recipient. This adverse effect is a defining risk unique to live oral polio vaccine and is why many programs switched to inactivated polio vaccine. Guillain-Barré syndrome is classically associated with influenza vaccine/infections rather than OPV, and mild fever/vomiting are nonspecific and not the key “true” distinguishing complication being tested here.

Question 4

Drug of choice to treat cardiogenic shock is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dopamine (at moderate to higher doses) increases myocardial contractility via β1 effects and can raise systemic vascular resistance via α1 effects, improving blood pressure and end-organ perfusion. Adrenaline is typically reserved for cardiac arrest/anaphylaxis and can markedly increase myocardial oxygen demand and provoke dysrhythmias, making it less suitable as a default choice. NTG reduces preload/afterload and can worsen hypotension in shock, while lidocaine treats ventricular arrhythmias and does not correct the low-output state.

Question 5

Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A rapidly acting alpha-1 effect increases peripheral vascular resistance and reduces mucosal edema, while beta-2 effect produces bronchodilation and decreases mediator release from mast cells. This medication works within minutes and directly addresses the core pathophysiology responsible for airway compromise and shock. Antihistamines and glucocorticoids are adjuncts with slower onset and do not reliably correct severe hypotension or airway obstruction in the first critical minutes.

Question 6

The drugs are calcium channel blockers except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., amlodipine) and non-dihydropyridines (verapamil, diltiazem). The exception must therefore be a medication from a different antihypertensive class. Ramaprill is an ACE inhibitor, which lowers blood pressure by reducing angiotensin II formation and aldosterone secretion rather than blocking calcium channels. A common trap is mixing up antihypertensive classes because several are used for the same indications (HTN, angina), but their mechanisms differ.

Question 7

The drug of choice in the management of alcohol withdrawal is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first-line pharmacologic strategy is to enhance GABA-A activity to prevent seizures and delirium tremens while controlling autonomic symptoms, which benzodiazepines reliably do (often using symptom-triggered dosing). Disulfiram and acamprosate are relapse-prevention agents used after detoxification rather than for acute withdrawal management. Antidepressants do not treat the acute neurophysiologic withdrawal syndrome and can delay appropriate stabilization.

Question 8

All are anti craving agent for alcohol except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., naltrexone) or modulation of glutamate/GABA balance (e.g., acamprosate; topiramate is used off-label with evidence for craving reduction). Benzodiazepines, in contrast, are primarily used for acute alcohol withdrawal symptom control and seizure prevention, not for relapse-prevention or craving reduction. This makes the benzodiazepine the odd one out among listed agents associated with craving/relapse management. Therefore the exception is the benzodiazepine option.

Question 9

Insulin is not administered through oral route because ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore, oral administration would result in minimal to no bioavailability and inadequate glucose-lowering effect. This is why insulin is typically given via subcutaneous injection (or IV in acute settings) rather than by mouth. GI bleeding or routine nausea/vomiting are not the fundamental pharmacologic reason insulin is not administered orally.

Question 10

All of the following are used as emergency contraceptive except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Copper IUD (Cu T) is an established emergency contraceptive method when inserted within about 5 days, and high-dose combined oral contraceptives (OCP; Yuzpe regimen) and progestin-only regimens (e.g., levonorgestrel) are also used for emergency contraception. Mifepristone is primarily an antiprogestin used for medical termination of an established intrauterine pregnancy (and for other indications), not a standard emergency contraceptive method in routine exam classifications. Therefore it is the exception among the listed options.

Question 11

A nurse is caring for a patient with swine flu and she has to give the drugs of choice for swine flu and it is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Influenza A (including H1N1 “swine flu”) is treated with neuraminidase inhibitors that block release of new virions from infected respiratory epithelial cells, shortening illness and reducing complications when started early (ideally within 48 hours). This option directly targets influenza virus replication and is a standard first-line therapy for uncomplicated H1N1. Acyclovir is primarily active against herpesviruses, not influenza. Adefovir and cidofovir are nucleotide analogs used for hepatitis B or severe DNA virus infections and do not cover influenza.

Question 12

The nurse is reviewing a new prescription for amphotericin. The nurse recognizes that this medication is prescribed to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amphotericin B is a systemic antifungal that binds ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, creating pores that lead to cell death. It is used for severe, invasive mycoses (e.g., disseminated candidiasis, cryptococcosis, aspergillosis, mucormycosis), which aligns with treating fungal pathogens. It has no clinically appropriate role as a primary therapy for viral or bacterial infections because those organisms lack the ergosterol target. “Autoimmune infections” is a distractor since autoimmune conditions are not infections and are treated with immunomodulatory therapy rather than antifungals.

Question 13

A 49-year-old African American male has been diagnosed with essential hypertension and started on amlodipine (Norvasc) 5 mg orally once daily and hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) 25 mg orally once daily. The patient should be cautioned that use of these medications may contribute to the development of which of the following complications?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thiazide diuretics are a classic cause of decreased libido and erectile dysfunction and patients should be counseled proactively to improve adherence. Amlodipine can also contribute (though less commonly than thiazides and some beta-blockers), so the combination increases the relevance of this adverse effect. By contrast, a dry hacking cough is characteristic of ACE inhibitors, not calcium-channel blockers or thiazides. Recognizing predictable adverse effects supports anticipatory guidance and timely medication adjustment rather than abrupt discontinuation.

Question 14

A patient on statins reports muscle pain and dark urine. What complication is suspected?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myoglobinuria causes tea- or cola-colored urine and can precipitate acute kidney injury, making the combination of myalgias and dark urine a classic red-flag presentation. This complication is supported by expected associated findings such as markedly elevated creatine kinase and possible hyperkalemia. Nephritis would more typically suggest hematuria/proteinuria with inflammatory urinary findings rather than myoglobin-driven dark urine after muscle injury.

Question 15

Which of the following is a lipid-lowering drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug name corresponds to the statin class and is commonly used for hyperlipidemia and cardiovascular risk reduction. In contrast, warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent/treat thromboembolism, not to lower lipid levels. The remaining option resembles a cardiac glycoside name (e.g., digoxin) and would be used for heart failure/arrhythmias rather than dyslipidemia.

Question 16

Chloroquine is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, it is used for treatment (and in some settings prophylaxis) of malaria caused by chloroquine-sensitive strains, especially Plasmodium vivax, ovale, and malariae, and some P. falciparum where sensitivity remains. Cold and cough are typically viral/self-limited conditions managed with supportive care rather than antimalarial therapy. Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection treated with appropriate antibiotics, not chloroquine.

Question 17

Hydrocortisone is a...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its primary actions are anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects through modulation of gene transcription and inhibition of inflammatory mediators. This distinguishes it from antimicrobials (antibiotics/antifungals), which directly target pathogens, and from antacids, which neutralize gastric acid. Clinically, hydrocortisone is used for conditions like dermatitis, asthma exacerbations, and adrenal insufficiency rather than for treating infections as a primary agent.

Question 18

Vancomycin is used in…?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the options, only “MRS” appears to represent this resistant staphylococcal infection target, whereas pain, fever, and cough are symptoms and not indications for a specific antibiotic. Clinically, vancomycin is reserved for suspected/confirmed resistant gram-positive infections to avoid unnecessary use and resistance. It is not a general antipyretic, analgesic, or antitussive.

Question 19

Salbutamol is used in...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a first-line rescue medication for acute wheeze and dyspnea in asthma. Its pharmacologic action is bronchodilation rather than altering gastric acid, treating fever, or managing blood glucose. A key nursing consideration is monitoring for expected adrenergic adverse effects such as tremor, tachycardia, and possible hypokalemia with frequent dosing.

Question 20

Which drug is commonly used to induce labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is the standard, titratable IV agent for inducing or augmenting labor when cervical and fetal conditions are appropriate. One key safety consideration is monitoring for uterine tachysystole and fetal heart rate changes, which can occur if dosing is excessive. By contrast, magnesium sulfate and terbutaline are primarily used as tocolytics/uterine relaxants in obstetric care, not for induction, while misoprostol is more often used for cervical ripening and induction but oxytocin remains the most commonly used induction agent overall.

Question 21

Which drug causes Stevens-Johnson syndrome most commonly?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe, immune-mediated mucocutaneous drug reaction classically associated with certain high-risk medications. Aromatic anticonvulsants are among the most common triggers, and this includes phenytoin via reactive metabolites and HLA-associated susceptibility in some populations. In contrast, diazepam and heparin are not typical SJS culprits, and acetaminophen is a far less common trigger compared with high-risk anticonvulsants. Clinically, the key association tested is “antiepileptics (especially aromatic) → SJS/TEN,” making this option the best match.

Question 22

Which beta-blocker has partial agonist activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This property tends to cause less resting bradycardia and smaller reductions in cardiac output compared with agents that are pure antagonists. Among the listed drugs, acebutolol is a classic beta-blocker with ISA (partial agonist activity). In contrast, propranolol, atenolol, and metoprolol are antagonists without ISA.

Question 23

Drug of choice for bacterial meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., pneumococcus, meningococcus, H. influenzae). A third-generation cephalosporin provides this CNS penetration and spectrum, making it a standard first-line backbone agent. The alternative oral cephalosporins listed are primarily used for less severe community infections and do not provide appropriate CSF levels for meningitis. Early use of a CNS-penetrating parenteral agent is critical to reduce mortality and neurologic sequelae.

Question 24

Which (Cephalosporins) generation has maximum gram-negative coverage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many third-generation drugs (e.g., ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime) have enhanced penetration and activity against Enterobacteriaceae compared with first/second generation agents. Fourth-generation cephalosporins broaden spectrum by adding better gram-positive activity while maintaining strong gram-negative activity (including Pseudomonas with cefepime), but the “maximum gram-negative coverage” teaching point most commonly maps to third generation. Therefore, among the listed choices, third generation best fits the pharmacology principle being tested.

Question 25

Major toxicities of aminoglycosides?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically this presents as rising creatinine/decreased urine concentrating ability and vestibular/cochlear injury (tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo), which may be irreversible. Risk increases with high trough levels, prolonged therapy, dehydration, older age, and concurrent nephrotoxic drugs (e.g., vancomycin, loop diuretics, amphotericin B). Hepatic and primary cardiac toxicity are not the classic major toxicities of this class, making the combined kidney/ear toxicity the best answer.

Question 26

Drug of choice for amoebiasis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tinidazole and metronidazole are both nitroimidazoles and are accepted first-line agents for symptomatic intestinal disease and amoebic liver abscess, with tinidazole often better tolerated and given for a shorter course. Albendazole primarily targets helminths and is not a standard therapy for protozoal amoebiasis. After a nitroimidazole, a luminal agent (e.g., paromomycin/diloxanide) is typically added to clear intraluminal cysts, which this question does not list.

Question 27

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The reaction presents with flushing/erythema of the face, neck, and upper torso, pruritus, and sometimes hypotension. Slowing the infusion rate and premedicating with an antihistamine can prevent or reduce symptoms, which is characteristic of this infusion-related effect. The other listed antibiotics are not the classic cause of this syndrome; a common distractor is confusing it with allergic reactions or other drug-specific adverse effects.

Question 28

Drug of choice for MRSA?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A key evidence-based first-line therapy for serious MRSA infections is a glycopeptide that inhibits cell wall synthesis. Ceftriaxone and amoxicillin are beta-lactams and are unreliable against MRSA. Gentamicin is not used as monotherapy for MRSA and carries notable nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity concerns, making it an inferior choice here.

Question 29

Fluoroquinolones inhibit?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones exert bactericidal activity by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and transcription through blockade of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and, in many organisms, topoisomerase IV. This prevents supercoiling and separation of bacterial DNA strands, halting chromosome duplication and leading to cell death. Cell wall synthesis inhibition is characteristic of beta-lactams and glycopeptides, not this class. RNA polymerase inhibition is the mechanism of rifamycins, while protein synthesis inhibition is associated with ribosomal-targeting antibiotics (e.g., macrolides, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides).

Question 30

Drug of choice for Mycoplasma pneumonia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 50S ribosomal subunit and are effective for atypical community-acquired pneumonias. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins are common distractors but do not work against organisms without a cell wall. Aminoglycosides mainly target aerobic gram-negative organisms and have limited utility for atypical respiratory pathogens, with higher toxicity concerns.

Question 31

Tetracycline causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a classic counseling point for patients taking doxycycline/tetracycline—use sun protection and avoid excessive sun exposure. Ototoxicity is more characteristic of aminoglycosides and loop diuretics, not tetracyclines. Nephrotoxicity is not a typical hallmark adverse effect of tetracyclines (aside from rare issues such as outdated tetracycline causing Fanconi-like syndrome), and hemolysis is not a standard class effect.

Question 32

Amlodipine tablets is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism makes it a first-line option for chronic hypertension management, including in many patients with isolated systolic hypertension. It does not treat diabetes because it has no glucose-lowering effect, and it is not an anxiolytic. It also is not an antiepileptic; while it affects calcium channels, it does not target neuronal excitability in the way seizure medications do.

Question 33

Aminoglycosides are ineffective against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anaerobes lack the aerobic electron transport mechanisms needed for this drug class to cross the cell membrane effectively. In contrast, aminoglycosides are classically active against aerobic gram-negative organisms and are often used for severe infections caused by organisms like Pseudomonas. This oxygen-requirement principle also explains reduced efficacy in acidic, hypoxic, or necrotic tissue even when the pathogen is not strictly anaerobic.

Question 34

Which is a fluoroquinolone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that characteristically include drugs ending in “-floxacin” and act by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV. Among the choices, ciprofloxacin is a prototypical fluoroquinolone with broad gram-negative coverage (including Pseudomonas) and some gram-positive activity. Doxycycline is a tetracycline, azithromycin is a macrolide, and vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic, so they do not belong to the fluoroquinolone class. Recognizing drug-class name patterns is a common pharmacology test skill that helps predict mechanism, spectrum, and key adverse effects.

Question 35

Example of macrolide?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The correct choice fits this antibiotic class used commonly for respiratory pathogens and atypicals by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis via the 50S ribosomal subunit. The other options are different antibiotic classes: doxycycline is a tetracycline (30S inhibitor), ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone (DNA gyrase/topoisomerase inhibitor), and linezolid is an oxazolidinone (50S initiation complex inhibitor). Therefore, only this option is a true macrolide.

Question 36

The nurse is aware that unused portions of propofol must be discarded how soon after the bottle was first opened?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard handling guidance is to discard any unused portion within 6 hours after the vial/bottle is first opened (and to use dedicated tubing and aseptic technique). Longer time frames increase the risk of bacterial proliferation and bloodstream infection. Shorter options are unnecessarily restrictive and not the commonly tested storage/discard standard for opened containers.

Question 37

A patient is prescribed Quetiapine (Seroquel). Which of the following best describes how this medication impacts neurotransmitters in the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Describing it as a dopamine antagonist best matches its core antipsychotic mechanism relevant to reducing positive psychotic symptoms. The serotonin-related choices are incorrect because quetiapine does affect serotonin receptors and is not best characterized as a serotonin agonist. The “no impact” distractors are unsafe because they ignore the key receptor targets that drive both efficacy and adverse effects (e.g., EPS risk is lower than typical antipsychotics but still tied to dopamine blockade).

Question 38

Amodex is used for…?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enteric fever (typhoid) is caused by Salmonella Typhi and requires appropriate antimicrobial therapy based on local resistance patterns and susceptibility. Diabetes and obesity are chronic metabolic disorders not treated with penicillin-class antibiotics, and “fever” is a symptom that may be treated with antipyretics while the underlying cause is addressed. Therefore, the option that best matches an antibiotic indication among the choices is bacterial typhoid infection.

Question 39

Epinephrine reacts with which of the receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Activation of these receptors explains its clinical actions such as increased heart rate/contractility (β1), bronchodilation (β2), and peripheral vasoconstriction (α1). Cholinergic, muscarinic, and nicotinic receptors are targets of acetylcholine rather than epinephrine. Therefore, the receptor class that epinephrine reacts with is the adrenergic receptor family.

Question 40

Antidepressant drug use in nocturnal enuresis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a classic, well-tested option for enuresis (though less preferred today than desmopressin or alarms due to safety concerns). SSRIs such as fluoxetine and sertraline are not standard treatments for bedwetting and may even contribute to urinary symptoms in some patients. Trazodone is primarily used for depression/insomnia and is not an established therapy for nocturnal enuresis. Because of cardiotoxicity and overdose risk, use requires careful dosing and monitoring, especially in children.

Question 41

Drugs or choice for the treatment of malaria in pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Quinine has historically been used in pregnancy for treatment of uncomplicated malaria (often combined with an antibiotic such as clindamycin, depending on guidelines and resistance patterns) and remains an accepted option, especially when artemisinin-based combinations are not suitable. Primaquine is avoided in pregnancy because it can trigger hemolysis in a potentially G6PD-deficient fetus and is generally contraindicated. Artemether (an artemisinin derivative) is typically avoided in the first trimester unless benefits clearly outweigh risks, and chloroquine is only appropriate where chloroquine-sensitive malaria is confirmed.

Question 42

Which of the following natural penicillin has longest duration of action-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzathine penicillin G is the most long-acting natural penicillin preparation because the benzathine salt is poorly soluble, creating a long-lasting IM depot (often effective for weeks). Procaine penicillin G is intermediate-acting, lasting roughly a day due to greater solubility and faster absorption. Benzyl penicillin G has a short half-life requiring frequent dosing, and phenoxy methyl penicillin is an oral agent with shorter duration that depends on repeated dosing rather than depot release.

Question 43

Vomiting is treated with...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Agents that neutralize gastric acid can help relieve associated nausea and vomiting when acid dyspepsia is the driver. Antibiotics and antivirals are inappropriate unless a confirmed bacterial or viral etiology requires causal therapy, and they do not provide primary antiemetic action. Laxatives would worsen fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance and are not a treatment for vomiting.

Question 44

Skin infection treated by;?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., dermatophytes leading to tinea) require agents that directly inhibit fungal growth or kill fungi. Antifungal medications target fungal cell membrane or cell wall components, resolving the infection rather than only supporting skin healing. Zinc and vitamins may help general immune/skin health but do not eradicate an active fungal infection. Calcium has no therapeutic role in treating infectious skin diseases.

Question 45

UTI is controlled by...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic with activity against many common urinary pathogens, so it can treat and control a bacterial UTI when indicated. Paracetamol may reduce fever/pain but does not eradicate bacteria, and ranitidine is an acid-suppressing drug unrelated to infection treatment. Amlodipine is an antihypertensive calcium-channel blocker and has no role in treating urinary infections.

Question 46

Linezolid is an...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is used clinically for serious gram-positive infections, including MRSA and VRE, which fits the definition of an antibiotic. The other choices describe non-antimicrobial drug classes (analgesics, gastric acid–neutralizing agents) or supplements rather than agents that treat bacterial infections. Recognizing drug class is essential for anticipating appropriate indications and key safety monitoring (e.g., myelosuppression and serotonergic interactions).

Question 47

Ulcer is treated with...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sucralfate works by forming a viscous protective barrier over the ulcer crater in an acidic environment, shielding it from acid, pepsin, and bile salts. This local cytoprotective action supports re-epithelialization and symptom improvement and is a recognized anti-ulcer medication. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can precipitate or worsen ulcers, and amlodipine and zinc are not standard treatments for peptic ulcer disease.

Question 48

Warfarin acts by inhibiting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reduces functional synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C and S), thereby impairing coagulation and prolonging PT/INR. In contrast, inhibition of platelet aggregation is the primary mechanism of antiplatelet agents such as aspirin or P2Y12 inhibitors. It also does not promote fibrinolysis; thrombolytics (e.g., alteplase) act by enhancing plasmin formation to break down fibrin.

Question 49

Malaria is treated with...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the choices, this option is the only medication with established antiprotozoal activity used to treat malaria (particularly chloroquine-sensitive strains). The other options are supportive or symptomatic treatments (acid suppression, antihistamine, antipyretic) and do not eradicate the parasite. Therefore, it best matches the core treatment principle of using a specific antimalarial agent.

Question 50

Cetirizine is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By blocking H1 receptors, it helps relieve symptoms such as sneezing, rhinorrhea, itchy/watery eyes, and urticaria. It is not an analgesic or antipyretic, so it does not directly treat headache or fever. It also has no role in glycemic control, making diabetes an inappropriate indication.

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