Question 1

Chloroquine is used in..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is used for treatment and prophylaxis of chloroquine-sensitive malaria (especially P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and sensitive P. falciparum). TB requires multi-drug antimycobacterial therapy (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin), not chloroquine. Typhoid is treated with appropriate antibiotics (e.g., ceftriaxone, azithromycin), and dengue management is supportive rather than chloroquine-based. Clinical relevance includes awareness of resistance patterns and key adverse effects such as retinopathy with prolonged exposure.

Question 2

Propranolol is commonly used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is widely used for hypertension and other cardiovascular indications (e.g., angina, certain tachyarrhythmias). Because it blocks beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, it can precipitate bronchospasm and therefore is generally avoided in patients with asthma. Analgesia is not a therapeutic class effect of beta-blockers, making pain relief an inappropriate indication here.

Question 3

Antimalarial drug is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a prototypical antimalarial historically used for treatment and prophylaxis in chloroquine-sensitive malaria. Penicillin and streptomycin are antibacterial antibiotics and do not target malaria parasites. Ibuprofen is an NSAID used for pain and inflammation and has no antimalarial activity.

Question 4

Drug used for cough is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antitussives act centrally (e.g., dextromethorphan, codeine) or peripherally to reduce the urge to cough and the frequency of coughing. Antacids primarily neutralize gastric acid and are not cough medicines except indirectly in reflux-related symptoms, and analgesics are for pain/fever control rather than cough suppression. Vaccines prevent specific infections and do not provide immediate symptomatic relief of an active cough.

Question 5

Clotrimazole Cream Used for..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is used topically for dermatophyte infections (tinea), cutaneous candidiasis, and related superficial mycoses. The other choices target bacteria or pain, which do not match clotrimazole’s antifungal mechanism or indications. While antifungals are a type of antimicrobial, the most accurate classification here is specifically antifungal rather than a general antibacterial/antibiotic label.

Question 6

The drug of choice for acute streptococcal pharyngitis in a non-allergic patient is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This choice has strong activity against Streptococcus pyogenes, good tolerability, and appropriate spectrum compared with broader agents. A macrolide is typically reserved for true beta-lactam allergy and has higher resistance rates in some settings. Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines are not recommended for routine GAS pharyngitis due to suboptimal stewardship/spectrum and lack of first-line guideline support.

Question 7

Hypertension is controlled by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker that relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle, reducing afterload and lowering blood pressure. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic and does not provide clinically meaningful BP control. Vitamin B12 treats deficiency states, and cetirizine is an H1-antihistamine for allergy symptoms, neither of which are indicated for hypertension management.

Question 8

Which drug is used as a muscle relaxant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a GABA-B receptor agonist that decreases release of excitatory neurotransmitters and reduces muscle tone in conditions like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord injury. The other choices are for different systems: one is a cardiac glycoside for heart failure/atrial fibrillation, another is an antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes, and the last is a beta-blocker for hypertension/arrhythmias. Therefore only the first option matches a true muscle relaxant indication and mechanism.

Question 9

Drug having high first pass metabolism:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propranolol is a classic high–hepatic-extraction beta blocker, so a large fraction of an oral dose is metabolized on the first pass through the liver. This is why oral doses are much higher than IV doses and why liver blood flow changes can markedly affect its levels. In contrast, paracetamol and aspirin are metabolized in the liver but are not typically the prototypical examples tested for very high first-pass extraction in this way.

Question 10

The drug of choice for prophylaxis of tb is ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It has strong activity against susceptible Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is widely used for preventive regimens (commonly 6–9 months) in exposed or LTBI patients. Rifampicin can be used as an alternative prophylaxis regimen when isoniazid is not suitable, but it is not classically the single “drug of choice” in many exam frameworks. Streptomycin and ethambutol are used in treatment combinations and are not preferred for prophylaxis because of toxicity/role and lack of standalone preventive regimen use.

Question 11

Route of inactived polio vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The oral formulation is the live attenuated oral polio vaccine (OPV), which is different from IPV and carries a small risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio. IV administration is not a standard route for routine immunization delivery. Therefore the injected route listed that matches IPV is intramuscular.

Question 12

Haloperidol is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This classification is the drug’s core therapeutic category and explains its key adverse-effect profile such as extrapyramidal symptoms and hyperprolactinemia. Anti-anxiety agents are typically benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants, not D2 antagonists. Although dopamine antagonism can provide antiemetic effects at the chemoreceptor trigger zone, that is a secondary/off-label use rather than the primary classification tested here.

Question 13

Chloroquine is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, it is used for treatment (and in some settings prophylaxis) of malaria caused by chloroquine-sensitive species, especially P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and sensitive P. falciparum. The other options are not standard primary indications; for example, diabetes and Alzheimer disease are not treated with this agent. While chloroquine/hydroxychloroquine have immunomodulatory uses (e.g., lupus/RA), that indication is not among the choices, making malaria the best answer.

Question 14

Typhoid fever is controlled by..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones have activity against Salmonella and have been used as definitive therapy in susceptible strains, thereby controlling the infection rather than only relieving symptoms. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are antipyretic/analgesic agents that may reduce fever and pain but do not treat the underlying bacterial cause. Amoxicillin can be used in some settings, but due to frequent resistance and lower reliability compared with recommended regimens, it is not the best choice among the listed options.

Question 15

The Drug used to reduce cholesterol is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly addresses hypercholesterolemia and is a first-line drug class for lowering LDL cholesterol and reducing atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk. Metformin is an antihyperglycemic primarily for type 2 diabetes, not a lipid-lowering agent. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for edema and hypertension, and amoxicillin is an antibiotic; neither targets cholesterol metabolism.

Question 16

DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore, the standard dosing interval is every 3 months to maintain ovulation suppression and endometrial effects needed for contraception. Shorter intervals like 3 weeks or 2 months are not the routine schedule and would represent unnecessary early re-dosing. A 2-year interval is far beyond the duration of contraceptive efficacy of a single DMPA injection.

Question 17

The drug of choice in mushroom poisoning is ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The antidotal principle is competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors to reverse life-threatening secretions and bronchospasm, which is achieved with antimuscarinic therapy. Neostigmine and physostigmine increase acetylcholine and would be expected to worsen a muscarinic toxidrome rather than treat it. Epinephrine may be used for anaphylaxis or refractory bronchospasm/shock but is not the specific antidote for cholinergic mushroom toxicity.

Question 18

At 6:00 a.m, the healthcare provider administers NPH insulin to a patient with diabetes. How soon may the patient show any signs of hypoglycemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 8:00 a.m NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with an onset typically around 1–2 hours after administration, so hypoglycemia can begin as the insulin first starts lowering blood glucose. Given a 6:00 a.m. dose, the earliest expected time window for symptoms is about 7:00–8:00 a.m., making 8:00 a.m. the best single choice. Later times (9:00–10:00 a.m.) align more with the approach to peak effect (often ~4–12 hours) rather than the earliest onset. Clinically, this timing guides early monitoring and ensuring carbohydrate intake is available soon after dosing to prevent early hypoglycemia.

Question 19

What is used for salbutamol inhaler?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to rapidly reverse bronchospasm. This makes it a rescue medication for acute wheeze, shortness of breath, and reversible airflow limitation seen in asthma and also used for symptom relief in COPD. It has no antibacterial activity and does not treat protozoal infections such as leishmaniasis, so those choices are incorrect. Because only the asthma/COPD indication fits the drug’s mechanism and standard clinical use, “All Of them” is false.

Question 20

Which medication belongs to the benzodiazepine class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lorazepam is a classic benzodiazepine (common stem: “-zepam” or “-zolam”). Sertraline is an SSRI antidepressant, haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic (D2 antagonist), and buspirone is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic (5-HT1A partial agonist) with delayed onset. Recognizing drug class helps anticipate key safety issues of benzodiazepines such as CNS depression, respiratory depression with co-sedatives, and dependence.

Question 21

Which of the following is true about parenteral iron therapy for iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parenteral iron bypasses intestinal regulation and can promote iron overload, so it is avoided in conditions associated with iron accumulation or impaired iron handling. Chronic liver disease is a common setting where excess iron deposition can worsen hepatic injury and increase risk from therapy, making avoidance the safest statement among the options. In pregnancy, IV iron is generally deferred in the first trimester unless exceptional circumstances, so that option is not reliably true. Routine test dosing/sensitivity testing is not mandatory for modern IV iron formulations, and giving IV iron alongside oral iron is usually unnecessary and may increase gastrointestinal side effects without improving efficacy.

Question 22

Regarding antianxiety drug benzodiazepines (BZD) which combination is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alprazolam is typically short-to-intermediate acting, and oxazepam is generally considered short acting (and notably lacks active metabolites), so labeling both as long acting is inaccurate. In contrast, diazepam and clonazepam are well-known longer-acting agents, and midazolam/triazolam are recognized for very short durations with rapid onset/offset. The incorrect pairing matters clinically because duration predicts risks like daytime sedation, accumulation in older adults, and withdrawal timing.

Question 23

Which of the following antihistamine is least sedative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: First-generation agents (e.g., diphenhydramine, pheniramine, chlorpheniramine) are more lipophilic and commonly cause marked drowsiness and anticholinergic effects. Second-generation agents have less CNS penetration and are therefore less sedating overall. Among the listed choices, the second-generation option fits this profile best, whereas the others are classic sedating first-generation drugs.

Question 24

Your female patient is in the last trimester of her pregnancy. She is suffering from severe pain related to separation of the symphysis. She asks you what over-the-counter analgesic she can safely take at this stage of her pregnancy to reduce her pain to a manageable level. Which of the following medications is safest to use in the last trimester?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acetaminophen is the preferred first-line OTC analgesic throughout pregnancy when used at recommended doses because it lacks clinically significant peripheral COX inhibition and does not cause ductal constriction. Ibuprofen and naproxen are NSAIDs and carry the third-trimester fetal circulation and renal risks. Aspirin also increases maternal and fetal bleeding risk (and at higher doses behaves as an NSAID), making it less suitable for routine analgesia in the third trimester.

Question 25

Which drug is used to treat insomnia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine “Z-drug” indicated for short-term management of insomnia, especially sleep-onset difficulty. Metoprolol (beta-blocker) and lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) are cardiovascular agents and do not treat sleep disorders. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can worsen nighttime awakenings by causing nocturia rather than improving sleep.

Question 26

Acidity is controlled by.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase, producing strong and sustained reduction in stomach acid, which directly controls acidity symptoms (e.g., GERD, peptic ulcer disease). Acyclovir is an antiviral for herpes viruses and does not affect acid secretion. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and ORS is for rehydration; neither is an acid-suppressing therapy.

Question 27

Which of the following drug combinations is associated with an increased risk of photosensitivity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracyclines (notably doxycycline) and fluoroquinolones are both well-known to increase sunburn risk, so combining these classes increases the likelihood of clinically significant photosensitivity. In contrast, macrolides such as azithromycin and clarithromycin are not classic high-risk photosensitizers compared with these groups. Therefore, the pairing that most clearly signals increased photosensitivity risk is the one containing both tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones.

Question 28

Which drug is used to treat asthma as a long-term controller?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inhaled corticosteroids are the first-line controller therapy, and they work by decreasing inflammatory mediator production and airway hyperresponsiveness over time. A short-acting beta2-agonist like albuterol provides rapid bronchodilation for acute relief but does not control underlying inflammation. Oral prednisone is generally reserved for short courses during exacerbations due to systemic adverse effects, and metoprolol (a beta-blocker) can worsen bronchospasm in susceptible patients.

Question 29

Antifungal drug is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is an azole that inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase, reducing ergosterol and disrupting fungal membrane integrity. Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin are antibacterial antibiotics (fluoroquinolone and beta-lactam, respectively), not antifungals. Metformin is an oral antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes and has no primary antifungal indication.

Question 30

Tetracycline inhibits which ribosomal subunit?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They bind to the 30S subunit and block attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, preventing elongation of the peptide chain. This mechanism is selective for bacteria because bacterial ribosomes are 70S (30S + 50S), differing from human 80S ribosomes. A common distractor is the 50S subunit, which is targeted by macrolides, clindamycin, chloramphenicol, and linezolid rather than tetracyclines.

Question 31

Drug of choice for status Epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam has a very fast onset (especially IV) and is an accepted first-line agent for acute seizure abortion, followed by a longer-acting antiseizure medication to prevent recurrence. Digoxin treats heart failure/arrhythmias, aspirin is an antiplatelet/analgesic, and naloxone reverses opioid toxicity—none address sustained seizure activity. Therefore, the benzodiazepine option is the best choice here.

Question 32

Vomiting is controlled by..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist widely used as an antiemetic for postoperative and chemotherapy-related nausea/vomiting. The other options are not antiemetics: calcium is an electrolyte, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and insulin regulates glucose metabolism. Therefore, the only option that directly acts to prevent nausea and vomiting is the 5-HT3 antagonist listed.

Question 33

Route of administration of MMR vaccine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The MMR vaccine is administered subcutaneously, which is the standard route in routine immunization schedules. Intravenous administration is unsafe and not used for vaccines, and intradermal administration is reserved for select vaccines/tests rather than MMR. Intramuscular injection is common for many other vaccines, which makes it a frequent distractor, but it is not the recommended route for MMR.

Question 34

A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain. He reports taking at least 3 acetaminophen tablets every three hours for the past week without relief. Which of the following symptoms suggests acetaminophen toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This patient’s repeated supratherapeutic dosing over a week places him at high risk for acute liver injury, which may present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and markedly elevated AST/ALT. The other options are less characteristic: tinnitus is associated with salicylate toxicity, and hypertension/diarrhea are not hallmark findings of acetaminophen poisoning. Recognizing hepatic injury is critical because timely N-acetylcysteine can prevent progression to liver failure.

Question 35

A patient taking dilantin (Phenytoin) for a seizure disorder is experiencing breakthrough seizures. A blood sample is taken to determine the serum drug level. Which of the following would indicate a sub-therapeutic level?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A value of 4 in the same unit system (mcg/mL) is clearly below the therapeutic window, making it sub-therapeutic. A common distractor is 15 mcg/mL, which lies within the therapeutic range and would not explain underdosing. Options listed in mcg/dL are in the wrong unit scale for the standard phenytoin therapeutic range and are not the best interpretation for this question.

Question 36

Shortest acting benzodiazepine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug is ultra–short acting due to rapid redistribution and relatively short half-life, making it preferred for induction and brief sedation. In contrast, diazepam is long-acting with active metabolites, and lorazepam is intermediate-acting. Alprazolam is generally short-to-intermediate acting for anxiety but is not the shortest among these choices for clinical sedation contexts.

Question 37

Ratio of dry glycerin/dry gelatin for hard gelatin capsule is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 0.4 : 1 Hard gelatin capsule shells contain gelatin plus a relatively small amount of plasticizer to provide controlled flexibility while maintaining rigidity. Glycerin acts as a plasticizer; too much would produce softer, more pliable shells typical of soft gelatin capsules rather than hard shells. Standard pharmaceutics references cite a lower glycerin-to-gelatin ratio for hard gelatin capsules compared with softgels, aligning with the 0.4:1 option. The higher ratios listed would shift mechanical properties toward softness and increased moisture sensitivity, making them less suitable for hard capsule manufacture.

Question 38

Which of the following is not an oral anticoagulant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warfarin, dicumarol, and phenindione are coumarin/indandione derivatives that act by inhibiting vitamin K–dependent clotting factor synthesis and are taken orally. Heparin is not orally bioavailable due to its large, highly charged structure and therefore must be given parenterally (IV or subcutaneous). This makes it the clear exception among the options when asked for a drug that is not an oral anticoagulant.

Question 39

Which of the following laboratory test must be monitored for pregnant patients receiving dexamethasone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Systemic corticosteroids increase hepatic gluconeogenesis and reduce peripheral glucose utilization, which can precipitate or worsen hyperglycemia. Pregnancy already increases insulin resistance, so steroid exposure further raises the risk of clinically significant glucose elevations (including gestational diabetes or transient marked hyperglycemia). Monitoring blood glucose detects this adverse effect early and guides dietary therapy or insulin if needed. In contrast, RBC count and uric acid are not primary, expected steroid-related toxicity markers in this setting, and calcium changes are less immediate/clinically targeted than glycemic effects.

Question 40

Prolonged use of isoniazid leads to deficiency of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is why patients on prolonged therapy are at risk for peripheral neuropathy and, less commonly, seizures. Prophylactic supplementation with vitamin B6 reduces neurotoxicity risk, especially in malnutrition, pregnancy, HIV, alcoholism, diabetes, and renal failure. The other listed vitamins are not the classic, high-yield deficiency caused by isoniazid use.

Question 41

Stage 1 of anaesthesia also known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stage I is the period from the beginning of anesthetic administration to loss of consciousness, characterized by analgesia and amnesia with preserved protective reflexes. Stage II (excitement/delirium) follows loss of consciousness and is marked by irregular respirations and increased reflex activity, so it cannot be Stage I. Stages III and IV correspond to surgical anesthesia and medullary paralysis (danger), representing deeper anesthesia than the initial analgesic phase.

Question 42

Drug of choice for polyhydramnios is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor lowers fetal renal blood flow and urine output, thereby reducing amniotic fluid. This medication is used short-term with careful gestational-age limits and fetal monitoring because of risks such as premature ductus arteriosus constriction and oligohydramnios. A diuretic would primarily affect maternal fluid balance and does not reliably treat excess amniotic fluid, while the other options do not address the underlying mechanism.

Question 43

Phenylephrine, an adrenergic agonist, has been prescribed as a topical application for a client as an aid to intraocular surgery. Although systemic toxicity is unlikely, which adverse physiologic response is the greatest concern?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Even with topical ophthalmic use, inadvertent systemic absorption can precipitate clinically important hypertension and trigger myocardial ischemia or malignant ventricular dysrhythmias in susceptible patients. These cardiovascular events are acute, potentially life-threatening, and therefore outweigh other organ-system effects listed. Urinary retention is more typical of alpha-1 effects but is usually less immediately dangerous than severe hypertension/arrhythmia in the perioperative setting.

Question 44

Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an acute psychotic episode?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a high-potency typical antipsychotic with established use for rapid control of acute psychotic episodes (including IM administration when needed). Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam) can sedate and reduce anxiety but do not treat core psychotic symptoms and are typically adjuncts when agitation is prominent. Ketamine is an anesthetic/dissociative agent and is not a standard treatment for psychosis and can worsen perceptual disturbances. Therefore the antipsychotic choice is the most beneficial for the episode itself.

Question 45

Best progesterone for the emergency contraception?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This agent has established efficacy and standardized dosing regimens for EC use compared with other listed progestins. Medroxyprogesterone is used mainly for long-acting contraception (e.g., depot injection) rather than postcoital EC. Norethisterone and desogestrel are progestins used in routine hormonal contraception but are not standard first-line single-agent EC options in typical exam contexts.

Question 46

The formula for calculation of dosage of parenteral iron is ........?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: [2.4 [target Hb-actual Hb] pre-pregnancy weight (kg)] + 50mg/kg Parenteral iron dose is calculated by estimating the total hemoglobin deficit and then adding iron to replete body stores. The factor 2.4 converts the hemoglobin gap (g/dL) and body weight (kg) into the approximate elemental iron requirement to restore circulating Hb mass. An additional fixed amount for stores is then included; in pregnancy-oriented formulas this is commonly represented as 50 mg/kg in simplified teaching keys. Options omitting the store component underdose total iron needs, and the option using “target Hb-target Hb” is internally incorrect because it yields zero deficit.

Question 47

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The option that matches this drug class is an SSRI used for depression, anxiety disorders, and related conditions. A key distractor is flurazepam, which is a benzodiazepine hypnotic acting via GABA-A receptors rather than serotonergic reuptake. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist (reversal agent), and flutamide is a nonsteroidal antiandrogen, so neither fits the SSRI mechanism.

Question 48

Mr. Smith is at his primary care office for a follow-up after receiving treatment for newly-diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis and hypertension. He expresses concerns to the RN that his blood sugars have been much higher since his last appointment. Which of Mr. Smith's medications would the nurse inform him could be the cause of his increased blood sugars?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This effect can produce new-onset hyperglycemia or worsen existing diabetes, and it is a common adverse effect patients notice after starting therapy for inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Spironolactone is more associated with hyperkalemia and endocrine effects, ibuprofen primarily affects GI/renal function, and metoprolol may mask hypoglycemia symptoms rather than directly raising glucose. Therefore the medication most likely responsible for the higher blood sugars is the corticosteroid.

Question 49

Albendazole is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically, it is used to treat intestinal nematodes (e.g., pinworm, roundworm, hookworm, whipworm) and some tissue helminth infections (e.g., neurocysticercosis, hydatid disease). The other options represent symptom treatments or chronic metabolic disease management, which do not match albendazole’s antiparasitic mechanism or indications. A common exam pitfall is confusing it with antipyretics or antihistamines; albendazole does not treat fever or allergy directly.

Question 50

Which antifungal is the drug of choice for vaginal candidiasis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This choice is preferred because it achieves reliable antifungal activity against Candida in vaginal tissues with convenient dosing and good efficacy. Ketoconazole is not preferred due to safety concerns (notably hepatotoxicity) and the availability of safer azoles. Amphotericin B is reserved for severe systemic fungal infections rather than routine vaginal candidiasis, and griseofulvin targets dermatophytes and is not effective for Candida.

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