Question 1

Gaseous Anesthetic is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option fits that class and is administered by vaporizer with rapid titratability via end-tidal concentration monitoring. The other choices are intravenous anesthetics (ketamine, thiopental/pentothal, propofol) used for induction or sedation rather than being inhaled agents. Therefore, the best answer is the only volatile inhalational anesthetic listed.

Question 2

Chloroquine exhibit ____ action :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its key mechanism is inhibition of heme polymerization within the parasite’s food vacuole, leading to accumulation of toxic heme and parasite death. The other options describe different antimicrobial targets (fungi, amoebae, viruses) that are not the primary therapeutic indication or standard classification for chloroquine. While chloroquine has been studied for other effects, its established exam-relevant action remains antimalarial.

Question 3

Vaccine which should not be frozen include ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DPT and TT are classic examples of adsorbed toxoid vaccines that should be stored at 2–8°C and protected from freezing because freezing can cause flocculation and reduced immunogenicity. Many typhoid vaccine formulations used in immunization programs are also stored refrigerated and are not meant to be frozen, as freezing can damage the product and compromise effectiveness. Therefore, the most inclusive and exam-appropriate choice covering these listed vaccines is the combined option.

Question 4

An opiate narcotic is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is an opioid derived from morphine and is classified as an opiate/opioid narcotic. Bhang and charas are cannabis preparations (marijuana/hashish), which are cannabinoids rather than opioids. Nicotine is a stimulant acting on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and is not an opiate.

Question 5

Effect of vasodilator include :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most direct and expected physiologic effect is a drop in blood pressure, making hypotension a common therapeutic outcome and potential adverse effect. Hypertension is the opposite of the primary hemodynamic action. Sweating and diuresis may occur in specific contexts or as secondary effects, but they are not the core, defining effect of vasodilation compared with reduced blood pressure.

Question 6

Maximum dose of atropine can be given is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This maximum is set because increasing doses beyond the ceiling provide diminishing chronotropic benefit while increasing risk of anticholinergic toxicity (e.g., delirium, urinary retention, hyperthermia). The standard adult regimen is 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes up to a total of 3 mg. Options like 5 mg or 10 mg exceed this guideline for bradycardia treatment and are not the usual recommended ceiling for this indication.

Question 7

Drug of choice for acute Gout

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An NSAID provides fast symptom relief by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and reducing prostaglandin-mediated pain and swelling, making it an appropriate immediate treatment choice in typical acute attacks. Urate-lowering therapy is not started to treat an acute flare because altering urate levels can worsen or prolong symptoms. Antihistamines and opioids do not address the underlying inflammatory pathway and are not considered disease-specific first-line management for acute gout.

Question 8

Which first line antitubercular drugs not a hepatotoxic effects .?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The option that stands out as not primarily causing hepatotoxicity is ethambutol, whose major dose-limiting toxicity is optic neuritis (decreased visual acuity and red–green color discrimination). Therefore, among the listed first-line agents, it is the best choice for “not a hepatotoxic” effect. A common distractor is rifampicin, which can cause hepatitis/cholestasis even though it is also known for orange discoloration of body fluids.

Question 9

Infantile spasms often respond to use of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects the syndrome’s responsiveness to hormonal/immunomodulatory mechanisms rather than typical sodium-channel antiepileptics. Standard seizure drugs like phenytoin and carbamazepine are often ineffective and can even worsen some epileptic encephalopathies. Benzodiazepines such as diazepam may abort acute seizures but are not the typical definitive therapy for infantile spasms. Therefore, a steroid option best matches the evidence-based management of this seizure type.

Question 10

Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DPT formulations (especially those containing diphtheria and tetanus toxoids) are classically adsorbed onto aluminum salts (e.g., aluminum phosphate/hydroxide), which serve as the adjuvant. Formaldehyde is used during manufacture to inactivate toxins (toxoid production) rather than functioning as the adjuvant in the final product. Zinc and protein are not the standard adjuvant identified for DPT in routine exam context.

Question 11

The side-effect of nitroglycerin is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This vasodilation commonly produces a throbbing headache and facial flushing, especially early in therapy or with dose increases. It can also cause hypotension and dizziness, but those are not listed here. GI effects like diarrhea or constipation are not characteristic primary adverse effects of nitrates, making them less likely distractors.

Question 12

All are crystalloid except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal saline, Ringer’s lactate, and 5% dextrose are classic crystalloid IV fluids used for volume or free-water-related therapy depending on tonicity and metabolism. Hydroxyethyl starch is a colloid (synthetic starch) composed of large molecules designed to remain primarily intravascular to expand plasma volume. A common pitfall is assuming any IV “fluid” is a crystalloid; colloids like starches and albumin are the key exceptions.

Question 13

VVM (Vaccine vial monitor) Image of polio vaccine is given below. VVM indicates?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When the inner square is lighter than the outer circle, the vaccine is still considered potent and usable. The image shows a pale inner square relative to the darker outer ring, matching the “usable” stage. The vaccine should only be discarded when the inner square becomes the same color as or darker than the outer circle, indicating excessive heat exposure.

Question 14

Digoxin is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This improves symptoms and can reduce hospitalizations in selected patients with systolic heart failure, especially when atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is also present due to its AV-nodal slowing effects. It is not an antipyretic and therefore does not treat fever, and it does not lower glucose to treat hyperglycemia. It is also not a primary antihypertensive agent; its main clinical roles are in heart failure and rate control in atrial fibrillation.

Question 15

Drug of choice for alcohol detoxification :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A long-acting agent is preferred for “detox” since it provides smoother symptom control and reduces risk of withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens. This option fits that role and is widely used in symptom-triggered or fixed-dose regimens. Methadone is for opioid withdrawal/maintenance, not alcohol withdrawal, and baclofen is not the standard first-line detox medication.

Question 16

Which is the following Anti-tubercular drug is bacteriostatic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ethambutol is classically bacteriostatic, acting by inhibiting arabinosyl transferase and impairing cell wall synthesis, which slows bacterial proliferation. In contrast, rifampicin and INH are considered bactericidal against actively dividing organisms, making them stronger “killing” agents in standard therapy. Streptomycin is also bactericidal (aminoglycoside) and used mainly for severe or resistant disease, not as the typical bacteriostatic choice here.

Question 17

K Bind is given for patients with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., sodium polystyrene sulfonate or newer binders) lower serum potassium by exchanging ions in the gastrointestinal tract and promoting fecal potassium elimination. Therefore they are used when potassium is elevated to reduce the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. They do not treat sodium disorders (hypo/hypernatremia), and giving a potassium binder in hypokalemia would worsen the deficiency. A key nursing implication is monitoring ECG and repeat potassium levels while also addressing the underlying cause of the elevated potassium.

Question 18

Phosphorus binders are administered?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Taking them with meals (and snacks) maximizes contact with ingested phosphate and therefore provides the greatest reduction in serum phosphate, especially in chronic kidney disease. Administering them before or after meals reduces binding efficiency because less phosphate is present in the gut when the drug is available. This is a key administration-timing concept for effective therapy and prevention of renal osteodystrophy and vascular calcification.

Question 19

Is the drug of choice for Attention Deficit Disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches methylphenidate, a prototypical stimulant used as a standard initial option in many patients. Aspirin is an analgesic/antiplatelet and has no therapeutic role in attention disorders. Haloperidol (antipsychotic) and lithium (mood stabilizer) target psychosis and bipolar disorder, not core ADHD symptoms, and would expose the patient to unnecessary adverse-effect risks.

Question 20

Which of the following is the example of inhalant Anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is a gaseous anesthetic/analgesic administered by inhalation, commonly used for procedural sedation and as an adjunct to general anesthesia. The other choices are intravenous medications: opioids (morphine, fentanyl) provide analgesia and sedation but are not inhalational anesthetics, and midazolam is a benzodiazepine sedative given IV/IM/oral/intranasal rather than as an inhaled anesthetic gas. Therefore, it best matches the definition of an inhalant anesthetic among the listed options.

Question 21

Route of administration of BCG vaccine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard immunization practice administers it intradermally (commonly over the left deltoid) to produce the characteristic small wheal and later local scar formation. Using subcutaneous or intramuscular routes increases the risk of improper deposition and complications such as deeper tissue abscess and reduced expected local reaction. Oral administration is not used for routine BCG immunization programs.

Question 22

Antirabies vaccine is administered through ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The standard, widely taught route is intramuscular (typically deltoid in adults; anterolateral thigh in small children), which provides consistent absorption and immunogenicity. Intravenous delivery is not an accepted route for rabies vaccine and would increase risk without benefit. Oral administration is used for wildlife bait vaccination programs, not for routine human clinical vaccination.

Question 23

Sucralfate is useful in the treatment of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets mucosal injury rather than altering fluid balance or treating systemic infection. It is therefore indicated for duodenal (and sometimes gastric) ulcer disease and stress-related mucosal damage prophylaxis in selected settings. Options involving fluid deficit/overload are unrelated to its pharmacologic action, and peritonitis requires antimicrobial and source-control management rather than a mucosal protectant.

Question 24

Antihistamine used in motion Sickness is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meclizine is a classic agent specifically used for prevention and treatment of motion sickness and vertigo. Second-generation antihistamines like cetirizine and fexofenadine have minimal CNS penetration and are much less effective for motion sickness. While diphenhydramine can also work, it is typically more sedating, and meclizine is commonly preferred for this indication.

Question 25

Gray baby syndrome is caused by ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication can build up and cause cardiovascular collapse with ashen-gray skin discoloration, hypothermia, vomiting, and cyanosis (classic “gray baby syndrome”). The other listed antimicrobials have different hallmark toxicities (e.g., aminoglycosides are more associated with ototoxicity/nephrotoxicity) rather than this neonatal syndrome. Therefore, identifying the causative drug centers on recognizing a distinctive adverse drug reaction in infants.

Question 26

BCG vaccine is administered to children ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore it is given via the intradermal route (commonly over the deltoid region) to produce the characteristic local reaction and subsequent scar. Giving it subcutaneously or intramuscularly increases the risk of improper immune response and local complications (e.g., deeper injection with abscess). Oral administration is used for vaccines like OPV, not BCG.

Question 27

Which of the following insulin has the most rapid action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes the onset within minutes and best suited for mealtime glucose control. In contrast, NPH (Humulin N) is intermediate-acting due to protamine delaying absorption, and lente/ultralente are longer-acting suspensions with slower onset and prolonged duration. Therefore, the option with the most rapid action is the rapid-acting analog.

Question 28

Spray of oxymethazoline 0.5% is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A 0.5% spray is a common intranasal decongestant strength used for symptomatic relief of nasal obstruction from rhinitis or colds. It is not used to treat ear discharge (which typically suggests infection requiring appropriate antimicrobial/ENT management). A key safety point is limiting use to a few days to avoid rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa).

Question 29

Nitroglycerine is administered by which route?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces quick venodilation and coronary vasodilation, reducing myocardial oxygen demand and relieving ischemic chest pain. Inhalation is not a standard delivery method for nitroglycerin in angina management, and while IV forms exist, the common exam-tested route for immediate relief is sublingual. Rectal insertion is used for topical nitroglycerin in anal fissures, not for typical angina administration.

Question 30

Drug of choice in mushroom poisoning is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The appropriate antidotal strategy is to block muscarinic receptors to reverse these life-threatening secretory and bronchial/cardiac effects. Adrenaline is reserved for anaphylaxis/shock rather than muscarinic toxidromes, and carbachol would worsen symptoms as a cholinergic agonist. Physostigmine increases acetylcholine and is used for anticholinergic toxicity, so it would aggravate cholinergic mushroom poisoning.

Question 31

Symptoms of severe toxicity of lithium include:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CNS involvement can progress from confusion to delirium and then to severe neurologic instability including seizures. Lithium can also disturb cardiac electrophysiology, leading to dysrhythmias (e.g., bradyarrhythmias or QT/T-wave changes), especially with dehydration or renal impairment that raises serum levels. Because each listed manifestation is a recognized feature of severe toxicity, the combined option best fits.

Question 32

In rickettsial infection which is the drug of choice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracyclines (classically doxycycline) inhibit protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit and are first-line therapy for most rickettsial diseases. Chloramphenicol is an alternative when tetracyclines are contraindicated, but it is not preferred due to toxicity and generally inferior risk–benefit. Ornidazole targets anaerobes/protozoa, and ofloxacin is not the standard first-line choice for rickettsial infections.

Question 33

Carbidopa is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This increases the amount of levodopa that reaches the brain and reduces peripheral adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and orthostatic hypotension. It does not have meaningful central activity because it does not cross the blood–brain barrier. COMT inhibitors (e.g., entacapone) and MAO inhibitors are different adjunct classes, while levodopa—not carbidopa—is the dopamine precursor.

Question 34

The antidote for magnesium sulphate eclampsia

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intravenous calcium counteracts magnesium’s physiologic effects at the neuromuscular junction and myocardium, rapidly reversing life-threatening depression. Calcium gluconate is the standard, readily available IV preparation used as the antidote in this setting. Sodium bicarbonate is used for specific acid–base or toxin-related indications, and sodium chloride does not reverse magnesium’s pharmacodynamic effects.

Question 35

Immediate treatment of Anaphylaxis is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine provides alpha-1 vasoconstriction to raise blood pressure and reduce mucosal edema, and beta-2 bronchodilation to relieve wheeze, making it the first-line emergent drug. Corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone have delayed onset and are adjuncts for preventing biphasic or protracted reactions rather than initial stabilization. Atropine targets vagal-mediated bradycardia and does not treat the core pathophysiology of anaphylactic airway compromise and vasodilation.

Question 36

Antibiotics are the drugs used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They do not directly treat inflammation, pain, or itching; those are symptoms or physiologic responses that may occur with many conditions. While antibiotics can reduce inflammation indirectly by eliminating the pathogen, anti-inflammatory drugs are the primary agents for inflammation itself. Using antibiotics for noninfectious complaints promotes adverse effects and antimicrobial resistance.

Question 37

The drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication has an ultra-short half-life and is given as a rapid IV push (with flush) to transiently block conduction through the AV node, often restoring sinus rhythm within seconds. A beta-blocker like carvedilol is not the acute drug of choice for termination and is mainly for rate control and chronic management. Amiodarone is generally reserved for other tachyarrhythmias or refractory cases rather than being first-line for typical SVT.

Question 38

Adrenaline used for dental anesthesia is -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The typical concentration used with lidocaine for dental procedures is 1:100000, which provides effective vasoconstriction with an acceptable safety margin. More concentrated solutions like 1:10000 are primarily used for emergencies (e.g., anaphylaxis/cardiac arrest) and would increase risk of tachycardia and hypertension if used routinely in dental blocks. A very dilute concentration like 1:200000 can be used in some settings but is less classically cited as the standard for routine dental anesthesia compared with 1:100000.

Question 39

A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following of the patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many medications can change urine color via pigmented metabolites or dyes and this effect is typically benign. Sulfasalazine can cause orange-yellow urine due to its azo metabolites, and phenolphthalein (a laxative dye) can turn urine pink/red. Levodopa can darken urine (brown/black) from catechol metabolites, especially after standing/oxidation. Aspirin is not classically associated with predictable urine discoloration; if dark urine occurs with salicylates, it suggests pathology (e.g., hematuria, myoglobin) rather than a normal drug pigment effect.

Question 40

Intravenous iron preparation among the following is ........?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option corresponds to a standard IV iron formulation used when oral iron is ineffective, not tolerated, or rapid repletion is needed. By contrast, ferrous ascorbate is an oral ferrous salt preparation, and iron polymaltose is most commonly encountered as an oral complex in basic exam contexts. Iron sorbitol is classically associated with intramuscular iron preparations rather than being the typical first-identified IV choice in MCQs.

Question 41

Which drug is used for the management of menorrhagia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antifibrinolytics like tranexamic acid decrease menstrual blood loss by inhibiting plasmin-mediated fibrin breakdown. NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels, which can decrease uterine bleeding and help with dysmenorrhea that often coexists. Combined oral contraceptives regulate cycles and thin the endometrium, thereby lowering menstrual flow compared with no hormonal therapy.

Question 42

Which of the following vaccines is kept in freezer compartment of the refrigerator ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: OPV is a live-attenuated vaccine that is highly heat sensitive, so it is stored frozen in the freezer compartment to preserve potency. In contrast, adsorbed toxoid/inactivated vaccines like DPT and Hep.B are freeze-sensitive and can be damaged by freezing, so they are kept in the main refrigerator (about 2–8°C). Measles vaccine is stored refrigerated after reconstitution and is generally not the freezer-compartment answer in this type of cold-chain MCQ.

Question 43

Which is the following drug is a skeletal muscle relaxant ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic (NMDA receptor antagonist) that provides anesthesia and analgesia while generally preserving airway reflexes, but it does not produce true skeletal muscle relaxation and may even increase muscle tone. Pentothal sodium is an IV anesthetic (barbiturate), atropine is an antimuscarinic, and fentanyl is an opioid analgesic—none are skeletal muscle relaxants. Therefore, none of the listed options is actually a skeletal muscle relaxant; the keyed choice is inconsistent with standard pharmacology.

Question 44

In which poisoning the Digibind is used as an effective antidote ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is used for life-threatening digoxin toxicity such as malignant ventricular dysrhythmias, significant bradyarrhythmias/AV block, severe hyperkalemia from overdose, or large acute ingestions. None of the other listed poisonings are treated with this antibody fragment: benzodiazepine toxicity is reversed by flumazenil, and atropine/cholinergic toxidromes involve different receptor mechanisms. Therefore, the only option that matches the drug-specific neutralizing antidote is the cardiac glycoside listed here.

Question 45

Which among the following drug is obtained from leaves ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vinca alkaloids are isolated from the leaves of Catharanthus roseus (periwinkle), making this option the best match. In contrast, emetine is obtained from ipecac root, and tubocurarine is derived from curare preparations from plant bark/wood rather than leaves. Digitoxin is a cardiac glycoside from Digitalis leaves, but in standard exam pairing of these options, the prototypical leaf-derived anticancer alkaloid is the vinca agent.

Question 46

First antihypertensive drug of choice in obstetrics is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug has a well-established safety record for chronic hypertension in pregnancy and works centrally to reduce sympathetic outflow without known teratogenic effects. ACE inhibitors are avoided due to fetopathy (renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, skull hypoplasia), especially in the 2nd/3rd trimesters. Atenolol is associated with fetal growth restriction, and amlodipine is not traditionally considered first-line compared with agents with stronger obstetric safety data.

Question 47

Which one of the following is not a neurotransmitter ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine and norepinephrine are catecholamines that function as neurotransmitters in the sympathetic nervous system (with epinephrine also acting prominently as a hormone). Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction and many autonomic synapses. Cortisone is a glucocorticoid steroid hormone related to cortisol and does not serve as a classic synaptic neurotransmitter.

Question 48

Which therapeutic agent is called the universal antidote ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This agent works by adsorbing a wide variety of drugs/chemicals in the gastrointestinal tract, lowering systemic uptake when given early after ingestion and when the airway is protected. In contrast, protamine sulfate and physostigmine are specific antidotes (for heparin and anticholinergic toxicity, respectively), and glucose only treats hypoglycemia rather than poisoning broadly. It is not truly universal because it is ineffective for some ingestions (e.g., alcohols, strong acids/alkalis, metals), but it is the best match among the options.

Question 49

Drug which is contraindicated in head injury?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They also cause sedation and miosis, which can mask or confound serial neurologic assessments needed to detect deterioration. In addition, morphine-related hypotension (histamine release/vasodilation) can reduce cerebral perfusion pressure, increasing risk of secondary brain injury. By contrast, oxygen and IV fluids are commonly used supportive measures to optimize oxygenation and perfusion, and antibiotics are only used when infection is suspected or for specific indications rather than being intrinsically contraindicated.

Question 50

Which drug is used to prevent bradycardia during surgery ??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication provides that anticholinergic effect rapidly, making it a standard agent used perioperatively for vagal bradycardia. A common distractor is succinylcholine, which can actually trigger bradycardia (especially with repeated dosing) rather than prevent it. Nitrous oxide does not reliably counter vagal bradycardia, and amiodarone is used for tachyarrhythmias and may worsen bradycardia due to AV nodal depression.

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