Question 1

The main purpose of combination chemotherapy is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combination chemotherapy uses drugs with different mechanisms of action to improve tumor cell kill compared with a single agent. Using multiple agents also helps delay or prevent the development of drug resistance by targeting cancer cells through different pathways. The primary goal is therefore greater therapeutic efficacy; reductions in nausea, alopecia, or cost are not the main purpose and may even worsen with more agents.
Category reason: This question tests the pharmacologic rationale for using multiple antineoplastic agents (mechanisms, resistance, and efficacy), which is core Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or safety actions.

Question 2

Piroxicam is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Piroxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to reduce pain and inflammation, commonly in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Its primary therapeutic effect is analgesic and anti-inflammatory via inhibition of cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin synthesis. It is not an antiallergic agent, antiepileptic drug, or antiemetic, making "pain relief" the best answer among the options.
Category reason: This question tests the medication’s indication (therapeutic use), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care decision or prioritization scenario.

Question 3

Omeprazole is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that irreversibly blocks the gastric H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. Lowering acid promotes healing of peptic ulcer disease, including gastric ulcers, and is also used for GERD and H. pylori eradication regimens. It is not indicated to treat hypertension, tuberculosis, or arthritis.
Category reason: This is a medication indication question focused on what omeprazole treats, which is pharmacologic knowledge rather than nursing judgment or care prioritization.

Question 4

The bioavailability of a drug refers to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bioavailability is the fraction (and speed) of an administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form, which is determined by absorption and first-pass metabolism. This is why IV administration has 100% bioavailability, whereas oral drugs often have lower bioavailability due to incomplete absorption and hepatic first-pass effect. Urinary excretion, protein binding, and tissue distribution are pharmacokinetic processes but do not define bioavailability.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational pharmacokinetics definition (bioavailability), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or clinical prioritization decision.

Question 5

Loperamide is used to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal that acts primarily on peripheral mu-opioid receptors in the gut to slow intestinal motility and increase fluid absorption. This reduces stool frequency and improves stool consistency in acute nonspecific diarrhea and some chronic diarrheal states. It is not used to treat constipation (it can cause constipation as an adverse effect), does not reduce gastric acidity, and is not a cough suppressant.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use of a specific medication (loperamide), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing prioritization or care-management decision-making.

Question 6

Which drug is the treatment of choice for acute migraine attack?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sumatriptan (a triptan, 5-HT1B/1D agonist) is a first-line abortive medication for acute migraine attacks because it rapidly relieves headache and associated symptoms by cranial vasoconstriction and inhibition of trigeminal neurotransmission. Propranolol and topiramate are primarily used for migraine prophylaxis rather than acute termination. Ergotamine can abort migraines but is less preferred due to more adverse effects, drug interactions, and contraindications compared with triptans.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of which medication is preferred for aborting an acute migraine, which is primarily a drug-selection and mechanism/indication concept in Pharmacology rather than a nursing care intervention scenario.

Question 7

Which medication can help dissolve uric acid stones?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Allopurinol decreases uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, which helps prevent formation and recurrence of uric acid stones and can aid management when hyperuricosuria contributes. Among the choices, the others (furosemide, captopril, spironolactone) do not target uric acid stone pathogenesis and may affect electrolytes or uric acid handling without dissolving stones. Clinically, the primary medication used to dissolve existing uric acid stones is urinary alkalinization (e.g., potassium citrate), but it is not an option here. Therefore, allopurinol is the best answer from the provided list.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a drug used in uric acid stone management (mechanism/indication), which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 8

Chemotherapy is a treatment for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chemotherapy refers to the use of cytotoxic/antineoplastic drugs intended to kill rapidly dividing malignant cells or inhibit their growth, so it is primarily a treatment modality for cancer. While the term "chemotherapy" can sometimes be used broadly (e.g., antimicrobial chemotherapy), in standard nursing/medical usage it most commonly denotes cancer drug therapy. Heart disease and kidney failure are not treated with chemotherapy, and AIDS is primarily treated with antiretroviral therapy rather than antineoplastic chemotherapy.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about what chemotherapy (a drug-based treatment modality) is used to treat, which is primarily pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing judgment or care prioritization scenario.

Question 9

Salbutamol is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing bronchodilation. It is used for rapid relief of bronchospasm in asthma and can also be used in other obstructive airway diseases. It does not treat fever, diabetes, or malaria, which require different drug classes and management approaches.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a specific medication (salbutamol) and its therapeutic indication, which is a core pharmacology topic rather than a nursing care prioritization scenario.

Question 10

Which Organ is most affected by ‘Paracetamol’ overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose primarily causes hepatotoxicity due to accumulation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI when normal conjugation pathways are saturated. Excess NAPQI depletes hepatic glutathione and leads to acute liver injury/necrosis, which can progress to acute liver failure. While kidney injury can occur, the liver is the main organ most affected and is the classic life-threatening target of toxicity.
Category reason: This item tests drug-toxicity knowledge and the principal organ damaged in an overdose, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing action or prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Which of the following drugs is used to prevent tuberculosis in high-risk individuals?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Isoniazid is the classic agent used for tuberculosis preventive therapy in high-risk individuals, particularly for latent TB infection, to reduce progression to active disease. Rifampicin is more commonly used as part of active TB treatment regimens, though it may be used in alternative preventive regimens depending on guidelines. Streptomycin and pyrazinamide are not standard single-agent prophylaxis for TB prevention due to toxicity and their role in active disease treatment. Therefore, isoniazid is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of which antimicrobial is indicated for TB prevention (chemoprophylaxis), which is a core pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 12

Which of the following serum theophylline levels is within the therapeutic range?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index, with a commonly accepted therapeutic serum range of about 10–20 mcg/mL for bronchodilation. A level of 13 mcg/mL falls within this therapeutic window. Levels below ~10 mcg/mL may be subtherapeutic (e.g., 5 mcg/mL), while levels above ~20 mcg/mL increase risk for toxicity such as nausea/vomiting, tachyarrhythmias, and seizures (e.g., 22 and 30 mcg/mL).
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic drug level (therapeutic range/toxicity threshold), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 13

Salbutamol is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing rapid bronchodilation. It is used for relief of acute bronchospasm in asthma (and also COPD), improving wheeze and shortness of breath. It is not an antimicrobial, so it does not treat typhoid or tuberculosis. It also does not directly treat fever, though respiratory symptoms from illness may improve if bronchospasm is present.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic use (salbutamol as a bronchodilator), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing judgment or care-management decision.

Question 14

Streptomycin is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic historically used as part of combination therapy for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. While its use is limited today due to toxicity (notably ototoxicity) and resistance, it remains a recognized anti-tubercular drug in certain regimens. It is not a standard treatment for malaria (antiprotozoals), diabetes (metabolic disease), or typhoid (typically treated with other antibiotics such as ceftriaxone or azithromycin depending on resistance patterns).
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of a medication’s indication (streptomycin) rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization, which places it in Pharmacology within NursingScience.

Question 15

Which of the following describes a possible adverse effect of long-term chronic treatment of schizophrenia with a phenothiazine such as fluphenazine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluphenazine is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic phenothiazine that blocks dopamine D2 receptors, and chronic exposure can cause tardive dyskinesia due to dopamine receptor supersensitivity in the nigrostriatal pathway. TD presents as involuntary, repetitive movements (e.g., lip smacking, tongue protrusion, choreoathetoid movements) and may be irreversible. Reduced prolactin is incorrect because D2 blockade increases prolactin. GI upset or weight loss are not the characteristic long-term serious adverse effects compared with TD.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a drug class (typical antipsychotics) and its long-term adverse effect profile, which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 16

Paracetamol is mainly used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is primarily an analgesic and antipyretic used to relieve mild-to-moderate pain and reduce fever. It does not have antimicrobial activity, so it is not an antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal. Its main mechanism is central inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis, producing pain and fever reduction with minimal anti-inflammatory effect compared with NSAIDs. Key safety concern is dose-related hepatotoxicity, especially with overdose or chronic alcohol use.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic class and primary clinical uses of a medication (paracetamol), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 17

Which of the following antibiotics is safe in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amoxicillin (a penicillin) is generally considered safe in pregnancy and is commonly used for infections such as UTIs and respiratory infections. Tetracyclines (including doxycycline) are avoided because they can cause fetal tooth discoloration and impaired bone growth. Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are typically avoided in pregnancy due to concern for fetal cartilage toxicity and limited safety data compared with beta-lactams. Therefore, amoxicillin is the best choice.
Category reason: This question tests medication safety/teratogenic risk of antibiotic classes during pregnancy, which is pharmacology knowledge.

Question 18

Which injection is given to treat severe malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe malaria (especially due to Plasmodium falciparum) requires prompt parenteral antimalarial therapy, and IV/IM artesunate is the recommended first-line treatment in most guidelines. Artesunate rapidly reduces parasite burden and improves survival compared with quinine. Vitamin K treats coagulopathy, insulin treats hyperglycemia/diabetes, and diclofenac is an NSAID analgesic—none address the malarial parasite.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of the appropriate medication (antimalarial drug choice and route) for a specific disease condition, which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing-process decision making.

Question 19

Morphine is used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Morphine is an opioid (narcotic) analgesic primarily used to treat moderate to severe pain, such as postoperative pain or pain related to myocardial infarction. It produces analgesia mainly through mu-opioid receptor agonism in the central nervous system, altering pain perception and response. It is not an antacid and has no antimicrobial activity, so it is not an antibiotic or antifungal.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a drug’s therapeutic class and clinical use, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing judgment/intervention scenario.

Question 20

Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used to close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in neonates?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Indomethacin is commonly used to promote closure of a PDA in neonates by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, which decreases prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins (especially PGE2) help keep the ductus arteriosus open; reducing them encourages ductal constriction and closure. Ketorolac, diclofenac, and etoricoxib are not standard agents for PDA closure in neonates. (Ibuprofen is also used clinically, but it is not listed among the options.).
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a specific medication used for a physiologic effect (pharmacologic closure of PDA via prostaglandin inhibition), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-care decision pathway.

Question 21

Which medicine is known as a “blood thinner”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant commonly referred to as a “blood thinner” because it reduces the blood’s ability to form clots. It works by inhibiting vitamin K–dependent clotting factor synthesis (II, VII, IX, and X), thereby decreasing coagulation. Metformin is an antidiabetic medication, while rifampicin and tetracycline are antibiotics, none of which are used primarily for anticoagulation.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a medication class and its common clinical label (“blood thinner”), which is pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 22

Loperamide is used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication that acts as a peripherally acting mu-opioid receptor agonist in the gastrointestinal tract. It decreases intestinal motility and increases fluid absorption, thereby reducing stool frequency and improving stool consistency. It is not used to treat fever, allergy, or cough. Clinically, it should be avoided in suspected infectious or inflammatory diarrhea with high fever or bloody stools due to risk of complications.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use of a specific drug (loperamide), which is a core pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 23

Which drug can cause tendon rupture as a rare adverse effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are associated with tendinitis and rare tendon rupture, classically involving the Achilles tendon, with higher risk in older adults, corticosteroid use, and transplant recipients. This is a recognized safety warning for the drug class and can occur even with short courses. Metronidazole is more associated with GI upset and neuropathy, furosemide with electrolyte disturbances/ototoxicity, and paracetamol primarily with hepatotoxicity in overdose. Therefore, ciprofloxacin is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a specific adverse drug effect and which medication class is linked to tendon rupture, which is pharmacology content rather than nursing care prioritization or intervention.

Question 24

A client gets NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. When is hypoglycemia most likely?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a typical peak effect about 4–12 hours after administration, which is when hypoglycemia is most likely. Given at 7:00 AM, the peak window falls late morning to early afternoon. Therefore, 11 AM–1 PM best matches the expected peak period. The other times correspond more to rapid-acting peaks (8–9 AM) or later in the day when NPH action is declining.
Category reason: This item primarily tests knowledge of insulin pharmacokinetics (onset/peak/duration) to predict when hypoglycemia risk is highest, which is pharmacology-focused rather than a nursing prioritization or care-management decision.

Question 25

Which of the following drug is more likely to cause aphthous ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac is an NSAID and can cause oral mucosal irritation and ulceration as an adverse effect, including aphthous-like ulcers or stomatitis. In contrast, topical corticosteroids such as dexamethasone and triamcinolone are commonly used to treat aphthous ulcers due to their anti-inflammatory effects. Benzocaine is a topical anesthetic used for symptomatic pain relief and is not a typical cause of aphthous ulcers (though it may rarely cause local irritation or hypersensitivity). Therefore, diclofenac is the most likely among the listed drugs to be associated with aphthous ulcers.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of medication adverse effects and therapeutic use (NSAID vs topical steroid/anesthetic), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or safety actions.

Question 26

Which medication is most likely to cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metronidazole is classically associated with a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, causing effects such as flushing, nausea/vomiting, tachycardia, and hypotension due to impaired acetaldehyde metabolism. Patients are advised to avoid alcohol during therapy and for at least 48–72 hours after the last dose. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and tetracycline are not the typical antibiotics tested for this reaction (though a few other cephalosporins can rarely cause similar effects).
Category reason: This question tests drug–alcohol interaction/adverse effect knowledge for a specific antibiotic, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing prioritization or a patient-care scenario.

Question 27

Which sign indicates a serious adverse effect of clozapine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clozapine can cause life-threatening agranulocytosis/neutropenia, which increases the risk of serious infection. A sore throat and fever are classic early warning signs of developing neutropenia and should prompt immediate evaluation and CBC/ANC monitoring. Weight gain, dizziness (often orthostatic), and constipation are common adverse effects but are not the hallmark signs of this dangerous hematologic complication.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a specific medication (clozapine) and recognition of its serious adverse effect (agranulocytosis) based on symptom presentation, which is primarily pharmacology.

Question 28

Antidote for Iron poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute iron poisoning is treated with the iron-chelating agent deferoxamine (desferrioxamine), which binds free iron to form ferrioxamine for renal excretion. EDTA primarily chelates lead and some other metals, not iron in standard acute poisoning management. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, and vitamin K reverses warfarin-related coagulopathy, so neither addresses iron toxicity. Therefore, desferrioxamine is the specific antidotal therapy among the options.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a specific antidote/chelation agent for a toxin exposure, which is a medication mechanism/indication topic in Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 29

What is the primary mechanism of metformin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin (a biguanide) primarily lowers blood glucose by decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, thereby reducing hepatic glucose output. It also improves peripheral insulin sensitivity and can modestly reduce intestinal glucose absorption, but these are secondary effects. It does not stimulate pancreatic insulin release (so it has low hypoglycemia risk when used alone) and it does not work by increasing renal glucose excretion (that is the mechanism of SGLT2 inhibitors).
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism of action of a specific antidiabetic medication (metformin), which is a foundational Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 30

Which of the following drug is contraindicated in a patient with thyroid storm?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin is contraindicated in thyroid storm because salicylates displace thyroid hormones (T3/T4) from protein-binding sites, increasing free hormone levels and potentially worsening thyrotoxicosis. In contrast, propylthiouracil and methimazole (Tapazole) reduce thyroid hormone synthesis (and PTU also decreases peripheral T4-to-T3 conversion). Propranolol (Inderal) is commonly used to control adrenergic symptoms such as tachycardia and tremor in thyroid storm.
Category reason: This question tests medication selection/contraindications in a specific endocrine emergency, which is primarily pharmacologic knowledge rather than nursing prioritization or care management.

Question 31

___ is a common symptom of opioid overdose.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Opioid overdose classically causes central nervous system depression leading to decreased level of consciousness that can progress to stupor and coma, along with respiratory depression and miosis. Among the listed options, coma is the only finding consistent with opioid toxicity. Weight gain, hunger, and focal joint/toe pain are not characteristic acute overdose symptoms. Therefore, coma is the best answer.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a drug toxicity manifestation (opioid overdose), which is a core pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 32

Dexamethasone belongs to which drug class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dexamethasone is a synthetic glucocorticoid, which is a type of corticosteroid. It exerts anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects through glucocorticoid receptor-mediated gene regulation. It is not an NSAID (which inhibits COX enzymes), not an antibiotic (antimicrobial), and not an antihistamine (H1 receptor blocker).
Category reason: The question tests drug classification of dexamethasone, which is core medication knowledge within Pharmacology rather than a nursing care decision or prioritization task.

Question 33

What type of drug is Succinylcholine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts as an acetylcholine receptor agonist at the neuromuscular junction, producing sustained depolarization. This causes transient fasciculations followed by flaccid paralysis and is commonly used for rapid sequence intubation due to its very fast onset and short duration. Non-depolarizing agents (e.g., rocuronium, vecuronium) are competitive antagonists and are therefore not the correct classification.
Category reason: This item tests foundational drug classification and mechanism of action of succinylcholine, which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing judgment or care-prioritization scenario.

Question 34

The reason for using the parenteral route to administer medications includes:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parenteral administration (e.g., IV, IM, SC) bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and first-pass metabolism, producing faster onset and more rapid systemic availability than oral dosing. This is especially true for IV medications, which enter circulation directly. The other options are incorrect because parenteral therapy is generally more expensive, does not inherently last longer than oral therapy, and accuracy of dose is not a primary reason to choose the route over oral in general practice.
Category reason: This question tests a foundational principle of medication routes and absorption/onset differences between parenteral and oral administration, which is core pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing judgment in a patient-care scenario.

Question 35

Which drug does not cross the placental barrier?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is a large, highly charged molecule and therefore does not cross the placenta in clinically significant amounts. In contrast, diazepam (a lipophilic benzodiazepine) and pethidine/meperidine (an opioid) readily cross the placenta and can affect the fetus/newborn. Dicoumarol (a coumarin anticoagulant, like warfarin) crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, which is why it is avoided in pregnancy.
Category reason: This item tests drug properties and placental transfer (pharmacokinetics) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it best fits Pharmacology.

Question 36

Which of the following medications is classified as an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Risperidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic commonly used to treat schizophrenia by modulating dopamine and serotonin receptor activity. Fluoxetine is an SSRI antidepressant, diazepam is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic/sedative, and atenolol is a beta-blocker used primarily for cardiovascular conditions. Therefore, risperidone is the only option that matches an atypical antipsychotic classification for schizophrenia.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of medication classes and indications (atypical antipsychotic vs SSRI, benzodiazepine, beta-blocker), which is core Pharmacology content rather than a nursing care decision-making scenario.

Question 37

Best IV fluid for burn shock initially:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the initial resuscitation of burn shock, Lactated Ringer’s (RL) is preferred because it is an isotonic crystalloid that best replaces extracellular fluid losses from capillary leak. RL’s electrolyte composition is closer to plasma than normal saline, reducing the risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis that can occur with large-volume NS. Dextrose-containing and hypotonic solutions (e.g., half NS) are not appropriate for initial burn shock resuscitation because they do not adequately expand intravascular volume and can worsen edema or hyponatremia.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of which IV crystalloid solution is indicated for initial burn shock fluid resuscitation, which is primarily a pharmacology/IV fluids concept rather than a nursing-priority or delegation scenario.

Question 38

Drug used to cure allergies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fexofenadine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis and urticaria by blocking histamine-mediated symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and rhinorrhea. Bupropio (bupropion) is an antidepressant/smoking-cessation aid, not an allergy treatment. Azithromycin is an antibiotic, and ketoconazole is an antifungal; neither treats allergies. Therefore, fexofenadine is the best choice among the options.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a medication and its therapeutic use for allergy symptom control, which is primarily a pharmacology knowledge question rather than a nursing-care decision.

Question 39

Which drug is used as an Anti-Anxiety drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used clinically as an anxiolytic due to its enhancement of GABA-A receptor activity, producing calming and sedative effects. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive vasodilator, latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog for glaucoma, and warfarin is an anticoagulant. Therefore, diazepam is the only option that is an anti-anxiety medication among the choices.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a medication class and its therapeutic use (anxiolytic vs antihypertensive/antiglaucoma/anticoagulant), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing care intervention scenario.

Question 40

Drug of choice for Tonsillitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute bacterial tonsillitis, most commonly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, is treated first-line with penicillin. Benzathine penicillin provides effective streptococcal eradication with sustained therapeutic levels. Azithromycin is reserved for penicillin-allergic patients, while chloramphenicol and benzyl penicillin are not standard first-line choices.
Category reason: This question tests antibiotic selection and mechanism within nursing pharmacology.

Question 41

Antidote for paracetamol overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose causes hepatotoxicity due to accumulation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI after glutathione depletion. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) replenishes glutathione stores and can also directly detoxify NAPQI, preventing or limiting liver injury. It is the specific antidote and is most effective when started early, but can still provide benefit even when given later.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the specific antidote used for a drug overdose, which is a core pharmacology concept (mechanism-based treatment of toxicity) rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 42

Prednisone taken while on insulin therapy can cause what drug-drug interaction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prednisone is a glucocorticoid that increases hepatic gluconeogenesis and causes peripheral insulin resistance, raising blood glucose levels. In a patient receiving insulin, this antagonizes insulin’s glucose-lowering effect and often requires higher insulin doses. Therefore the clinically significant interaction is steroid-induced hyperglycemia. The other options are not typical or primary interaction outcomes with concurrent prednisone and insulin therapy.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a pharmacologic interaction between a corticosteroid (prednisone) and insulin affecting blood glucose control, which is primarily Pharmacology.

Question 43

How is Pediclorly administered?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pediclorly is a brand of triclofos, which is supplied as an oral solution/syrup for pediatric sedation. The bottle label indicates it is a "Triclofos Oral Solution," confirming the oral liquid dosage form. Therefore, it is administered as a syrup rather than by inhalation, injection, or tablet.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s dosage form and route of administration (oral solution vs other routes), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 44

Which condition is Salbutamol primarily used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to rapidly relieve bronchospasm. It is primarily used as a rescue medication for acute symptoms in asthma and for prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm. It is not indicated to treat hypertension, constipation, or gastric ulcers, and tachycardia/tremor are more typical effects due to beta-agonism.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a medication’s primary therapeutic use and mechanism (a SABA bronchodilator), which is pharmacology rather than a nursing care priority/intervention scenario.

Question 45

Which injection is used as a blood thinner to prevent clot formation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) commonly administered by injection to prevent and treat thrombus formation. It works by enhancing antithrombin activity, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, reducing clot propagation. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine sedative, adrenaline is a sympathomimetic used in emergencies like anaphylaxis, and cefotaxime is an antibiotic—none are anticoagulants.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a medication class and its primary therapeutic use (anticoagulation), which is foundational drug knowledge under Pharmacology rather than a nursing management or prioritization scenario.

Question 46

Digoxin is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin is classified as a cardiac glycoside used primarily in heart failure and for rate control in certain supraventricular arrhythmias. It increases cardiac contractility by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase, raising intracellular calcium. It also increases vagal tone, which slows AV nodal conduction and decreases heart rate. Therefore, it is not a calcium channel blocker, beta-blocker, or sodium channel blocker.
Category reason: This question tests drug classification and mechanism (what class digoxin belongs to), which is core Pharmacology rather than a nursing prioritization or intervention scenario.

Question 47

What is one advantage of using a nasal spray?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intranasal administration delivers medication across the highly vascular nasal mucosa, allowing relatively rapid absorption and onset compared with many oral agents. It is noninvasive and generally easy for patients to self-administer, improving convenience and adherence. The other options describe disadvantages or incorrect limitations (nasal sprays are not restricted to hospital use and are not inherently slow acting).
Category reason: This item tests a medication administration route and its pharmacokinetic advantage (intranasal absorption), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing prioritization or safety intervention scenario.

Question 48

What is the usual pediatric dose of Pedicloryl?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pedicloryl is triclofos oral solution used for pediatric sedation, and the commonly cited usual dose is 50 mg/kg given orally. The other options (0.5 mg/kg, 1 mg/kg, 25 mg/kg) are not standard usual dosing for triclofos and are either far too low or represent a lower, less typical regimen. Therefore, 50 mg/kg best matches the usual pediatric dose used in practice.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a drug’s standard pediatric dosing (triclofos/Pedicloryl), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 49

Drugs which increase the action of sweat glands...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diaphoretics are drugs that promote sweating by stimulating sweat gland activity, increasing perspiration. In contrast, diuretics increase urine output via the kidneys, digestants aid digestion, and ecbolics stimulate uterine contractions. Therefore, the drug class that increases the action of sweat glands is diaphoretic.
Category reason: This item tests drug class terminology and pharmacologic effects (which drugs increase sweating), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 50

What is the full form of DPI in relation to Revolizer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In respiratory drug delivery, DPI is the standard abbreviation for Dry Powder Inhaler, which delivers medication as a powdered formulation that is inhaled with the patient’s inspiratory effort. Revolizer is a type of device used for DPI formulations (commonly for bronchodilators or inhaled corticosteroids). The other expansions are not accepted medical device terminology for inhalers.
Category reason: This is a medication/device terminology question about an inhaler delivery system abbreviation (DPI), which is primarily studied under Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or safety actions.

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