Question 1

The first-line treatment for Ascites

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For uncomplicated ascites (most commonly due to cirrhosis/portal hypertension), first-line therapy is sodium restriction plus diuretics—typically spironolactone, often combined with furosemide for better natriuresis and potassium balance. Beta-blockers are used to reduce variceal bleeding risk, not to directly treat fluid accumulation. Antibiotics are indicated for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis or prophylaxis in select high-risk patients, and antifungals are not standard ascites therapy.
Category reason: The item asks for the standard first-line medical treatment of ascites, emphasizing drug therapy selection rather than nursing actions or prioritization, which best fits Pharmacology within NursingScience.

Question 2

Aspirin is classified as.....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with three key therapeutic effects: analgesic (pain relief), antipyretic (fever reduction), and anti-inflammatory action. These effects occur primarily through inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and reduced prostaglandin synthesis. Therefore, it fits all listed classifications.
Category reason: The question tests drug classification and therapeutic effects of aspirin, which is foundational medication knowledge within Pharmacology rather than a nursing care decision scenario.

Question 3

Which drug is used to treat methanol poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methanol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into toxic metabolites (formaldehyde and formic acid) that cause severe metabolic acidosis and optic nerve injury. Ethanol competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, reducing formation of these toxic metabolites and allowing methanol to be eliminated unchanged. (Fomepizole is a preferred modern antidote but is not listed.) Acetylcysteine treats acetaminophen toxicity, atropine treats cholinergic toxicity/bradycardia, and flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the specific antidote mechanism for a toxin exposure (methanol), which is a foundational medication/toxicology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization scenario, fitting Pharmacology.

Question 4

Atropine Sulfate Injection is an antimuscarinic agent used to treat bradycardia, reduce salivation and bronchial secretions before surgery, as an antidote for overdose of cholinergic drugs. commonly available atropine 1 Ampule (1ml) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A commonly stocked concentration for atropine sulfate injection is 0.5 mg in 1 mL (0.5 mg/mL) in many clinical settings, especially for emergency use such as symptomatic bradycardia. The other options (0.6 mg, 1.5 mg, 6 mg per 1 mL) are not typical standard single-ampoule strengths for routine atropine injection. Therefore, the best answer for a commonly available 1 mL ampule is 0.5 mg.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of a standard drug formulation/strength of atropine injection, which is a medication-specific fact under Pharmacology rather than a nursing judgment or care prioritization scenario.

Question 5

The Nurse is caring for a patient with Hyperkalemia. Which medication is most likely causing this condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that decreases angiotensin II and thereby reduces aldosterone secretion; lower aldosterone reduces renal potassium excretion, predisposing to hyperkalemia. This effect is especially clinically relevant in patients with renal impairment, diabetes, or when combined with other potassium-retaining drugs/supplements. Losartan (an ARB) can also cause hyperkalemia, but among the options the classic high-yield association is ACE inhibitors like ramipril. Hydrochlorothiazide typically causes hypokalemia, and metoprolol is not a common primary cause of hyperkalemia.
Category reason: The question tests adverse drug effects and mechanism-based electrolyte changes (ACE inhibitor/ARB effects on aldosterone and potassium handling), which is primarily Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 6

A patient with asthma is prescribed a bronchodilator. What is its primary action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bronchodilators primarily relax bronchial smooth muscle, increasing airway caliber and improving airflow, which rapidly relieves bronchospasm in asthma. This is the direct therapeutic effect of beta-2 agonists and other bronchodilator classes. Reducing inflammation is primarily the role of inhaled corticosteroids, while cough suppression and decreased mucus production are not the main intended actions in asthma management.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism/primary therapeutic action of a medication class (bronchodilators), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization or safety decision.

Question 7

Q. 575: Drug of choice for partial seizures is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine is a classic first-line antiepileptic for focal (partial) seizures, reducing neuronal firing primarily via voltage-gated sodium channel blockade. Diazepam is mainly used acutely for status epilepticus rather than as long-term maintenance for focal seizures. Barbiturates (e.g., phenobarbital) are not preferred due to sedation and dependence risks. Lamotrigine is an effective option for focal seizures, but traditional “drug of choice” teaching most commonly identifies carbamazepine.
Category reason: The question asks for the preferred medication for a seizure type, which is core antiepileptic drug knowledge and therefore belongs to Pharmacology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 8

Antihistamines are used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antihistamines (especially H1-receptor antagonists) are primarily used to treat allergic symptoms such as sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and urticaria by blocking histamine’s effects. They do not treat the underlying cause of fever, pain, or diabetes, though some first-generation agents may have sedating or antiemetic effects. Fever is typically managed with antipyretics (e.g., acetaminophen/NSAIDs), pain with analgesics, and diabetes with glucose-lowering therapies. Therefore, the best answer is allergy.
Category reason: This item tests the therapeutic use/indication of a medication class (antihistamines), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing judgment or care-management decision.

Question 9

Which type of IV solution contains large molecules that stay in the bloodstream to help maintain blood pressure and volume?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Colloids contain large molecules (e.g., albumin, dextran, hetastarch) that largely remain in the intravascular space and increase oncotic pressure. This draws water into the bloodstream from the interstitial space, helping expand plasma volume and support blood pressure. In contrast, crystalloids (including normal saline) are small-solute solutions that distribute more readily into the interstitial space. Dextrose solutions are crystalloid fluids and do not provide sustained intravascular volume expansion once glucose is metabolized.
Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge of IV fluid types and their pharmacologic properties (distribution based on molecule size/oncotic effect), which fits Pharmacology rather than a nursing-judgment scenario.

Question 10

Which of the following vaccines go in the freezer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Live attenuated viral vaccines like varicella are commonly stored frozen to preserve potency prior to reconstitution and use. In contrast, toxoid vaccines such as diphtheria and tetanus, and recombinant vaccines such as hepatitis B, are typically refrigerated (2–8°C) and can be damaged by freezing. Therefore, among the options listed, varicella is the one that goes in the freezer. Correct storage is essential to maintain vaccine efficacy and prevent administration of an inactive product.
Category reason: The question tests vaccine storage requirements and handling characteristics of different vaccine types (live attenuated vs toxoid vs recombinant), which is a pharmacology/biologics knowledge topic rather than a nursing care prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Which one has more elemental iron?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anhydrous ferrous sulfate contains no water of crystallization, so a given tablet weight contains a higher proportion of iron compared with hydrated ferrous sulfate (commonly the heptahydrate form). Because elemental iron content depends on the salt’s molecular weight, removing water increases the percentage of iron per mg of compound. Clinically, this is why different iron salt formulations have different “elemental iron” values on labeling.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of drug salt formulations and how hydration state affects elemental iron content, which is a pharmacology/medication formulation concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 12

Which of the following drugs is effective against trichomonas vaginalis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan infection treated first-line with nitroimidazoles, most commonly metronidazole (or tinidazole). Penicillin and streptomycin are antibacterial agents and do not treat trichomoniasis. Pentamidine is used for specific protozoal infections such as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and is not the standard therapy for T. vaginalis. Therefore, metronidazole is the effective choice.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of the drug of choice for a specific infectious organism (T. vaginalis), which is primarily pharmacologic antimicrobial/protozoal therapy selection.

Question 13

Which of these medications is prescribed for pain management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly prescribed for mild to moderate pain, inflammation, and fever. It works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and thereby decreasing pain and inflammation. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used primarily for hypertension and heart failure, not pain control. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is also used for pain management, but with a single-best-answer format, ibuprofen is a clearly recognized analgesic/anti-inflammatory option.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of medication indications (analgesic vs antihypertensive), which is foundational drug knowledge and therefore best categorized under Pharmacology.

Question 14

What is the drug of choice for depression with insomnia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mirtazapine is an antidepressant with prominent sedating effects (via histamine H1 antagonism), making it particularly useful when major depressive disorder is accompanied by insomnia. In contrast, fluoxetine and escitalopram (SSRIs) can be activating and may worsen sleep initially. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine for anxiety/short-term insomnia but does not treat depression as a primary antidepressant and carries dependence risk.
Category reason: This question tests medication selection based on pharmacologic properties (sedation vs activation) and appropriate drug choice for a symptom cluster, which is pharmacology rather than a nursing-care intervention scenario.

Question 15

Artemether injection is used to treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Artemether is an artemisinin derivative antimalarial used for treatment of malaria, particularly severe Plasmodium falciparum infection (commonly as artemether-lumefantrine orally or parenteral artemisinin derivatives for severe cases). It acts rapidly against blood-stage parasites, reducing parasitemia and fever. It is not a treatment for bacterial infections like typhoid or pneumonia, nor for viral infections such as herpes.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic indication, which is a core topic in Pharmacology rather than nursing judgment or patient-care prioritization.

Question 16

Drug not to give in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracyclines are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cross the placenta and can deposit in fetal bones and teeth, leading to permanent tooth discoloration and impaired bone growth. This risk is especially relevant with exposure in the second and third trimesters. In contrast, paracetamol (acetaminophen) and amoxicillin are commonly used in pregnancy when clinically indicated, and iron supplementation is routinely recommended.
Category reason: This item tests medication safety/teratogenicity knowledge for a drug class (tetracyclines), which is primarily pharmacology rather than a nursing care-prioritization scenario.

Question 17

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nitrofurantoin is a commonly recommended first-line option for uncomplicated cystitis in pregnancy because it concentrates well in the urine and has an overall favorable fetal safety profile when used appropriately. Ciprofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) is generally avoided in pregnancy due to concerns about fetal cartilage/toxicity. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is avoided especially in the first trimester (folate antagonism) and near term (risk of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia/kernicterus). Amoxicillin-clavulanate can be used, but it is not typically the single “drug of choice” due to resistance patterns and broader spectrum than needed.
Category reason: The item tests medication selection and safety of antibiotics in pregnancy, which is primarily pharmacologic knowledge rather than nursing process or prioritization.

Question 18

Anthelmintics are chemicals used to eliminate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anthelmintics are drugs/chemicals used to treat helminth infections, which include nematodes (roundworms) and platyhelminths such as cestodes (tapeworms) and other flatworms. Therefore, their target organisms include all the listed worm types. While specific agents vary by parasite class, the general definition of anthelmintics encompasses treatment of these helminths. Hence, the best answer is that they eliminate all of the above.
Category reason: The item tests a foundational drug-therapy definition (what anthelmintics act against) rather than nursing actions or clinical prioritization, placing it in Pharmacology.

Question 19

Which of the following tablets is used to prevent pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Desogestrel is a progestin used in hormonal contraception (e.g., progestin-only pills or combined oral contraceptives) to prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and thickening cervical mucus. Sumatriptan is an abortive medication for migraine. Sildenafil treats erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Artemether is an antimalarial drug and has no contraceptive effect.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a drug used for contraception versus other medications, which is primarily pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 20

Morphine is used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Morphine is an opioid (narcotic) analgesic primarily used to treat moderate to severe pain by activating mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system. It does not have antimicrobial activity, so it is not an antibiotic or antifungal. It also does not neutralize gastric acid, so it is not an antacid.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of a drug’s therapeutic class and clinical use, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than nursing judgment or care prioritization.

Question 21

The science which is concerned with the study of mechanism of action of drug and pharmacological effects produced on the human body is known as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what a drug does to the body, including its mechanism of action and resulting physiological/pharmacological effects. It focuses on drug–receptor interactions, dose–response relationships, and therapeutic and adverse effects at target tissues. Pharmacokinetics, in contrast, is what the body does to the drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion). Toxicology is focused primarily on harmful effects of chemicals/drugs, and pharmacology is the broader discipline encompassing both pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational definition about mechanism of action and drug effects, which is a core concept within pharmacology (specifically pharmacodynamics) rather than a nursing decision-making scenario.

Question 22

Vomiting is treated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vomiting (emesis) is primarily managed symptomatically with antiemetic medications that act on the vomiting center and/or chemoreceptor trigger zone (e.g., ondansetron, metoclopramide). Antacids may help dyspepsia or reflux but do not directly stop vomiting. Antivirals treat specific viral infections and are not general therapy for emesis. Laxatives treat constipation and can worsen GI upset or dehydration in a vomiting patient.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of which drug class is used to treat a symptom (vomiting), which is a foundational medication/classification question in Pharmacology rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 23

Chloramphenicol is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic historically used to treat Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever), particularly in severe disease or when other antibiotics are not suitable. It is not a standard therapy for malaria (antiprotozoals are used), tuberculosis (requires multidrug anti-TB regimen), or influenza (a viral illness treated with antivirals/supportive care). Because of serious toxicity risks (e.g., aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome), its use is now limited but typhoid remains a classic indication in exam contexts.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a specific drug’s therapeutic indication, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision or priority-setting scenario.

Question 24

Which medication belongs to the class of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sertraline is an SSRI antidepressant that works primarily by inhibiting presynaptic serotonin reuptake, increasing serotonin availability in the synaptic cleft. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and lithium is a mood stabilizer used mainly for bipolar disorder. Therefore, sertraline is the only SSRI listed.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a drug class (SSRI) and classification of medications, which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 25

Anesthesia is an example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anesthesia refers to a medically induced state that produces loss of sensation, particularly loss of pain perception, and may also include loss of consciousness depending on the type (local, regional, or general). While some anesthetic agents can cause sedation, sedation alone does not define anesthesia. A pain reliever (analgesic) reduces pain without necessarily blocking sensation, and antibiotics treat infections rather than affecting sensation.
Category reason: This question tests the definition and pharmacologic concept of anesthesia and how it differs from analgesics, sedatives, and antibiotics, which is foundational drug/therapy knowledge rather than nursing decision-making.

Question 26

Tranexamic Acid Injection is used for......?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic that inhibits activation of plasminogen to plasmin, thereby preventing breakdown of fibrin clots. It is used to reduce or control bleeding in conditions such as heavy menstrual bleeding, surgical bleeding, trauma-related hemorrhage, and postpartum hemorrhage. It does not treat airway inflammation (bronchitis/asthma) or myocardial ischemia (angina), making “Bleeding” the single best answer.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a specific medication’s therapeutic use, which is a core pharmacology concept rather than nursing prioritization or patient-care decision-making.

Question 27

Dextromethorhane drugs is used as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dextromethorphan is a centrally acting cough suppressant that depresses the medullary cough center, reducing the frequency and intensity of coughing. It is commonly used for symptomatic relief of nonproductive cough in upper respiratory infections. It does not treat allergy symptoms (antiallergic), nausea/vomiting (antiemetic), or fever (antipyretic).
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use/classification of a medication (dextromethorphan), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 28

Doxycycline is under which CLASS of Antimalarial drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic and is used for malaria prophylaxis and as an adjunct treatment (e.g., with quinine) rather than as a primary antimalarial class like quinolines or artemisinins. In antimalarial classification schemes, doxycycline is grouped under antibiotics/antimicrobials used against malaria. Antifolates refer to drugs like pyrimethamine/proguanil, which doxycycline is not.
Category reason: This question tests drug classification of doxycycline within antimalarial therapy, which is a pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care decision or safety intervention.

Question 29

Drug of choice for community acquired pneumonia in inpatient patients?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For hospitalized (inpatient) community-acquired pneumonia, a respiratory fluoroquinolone such as levofloxacin is a recommended empiric monotherapy option because it covers typical pathogens (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae) and atypical organisms. Azithromycin alone is generally insufficient for inpatient CAP, and ceftriaxone is commonly used but typically combined with a macrolide rather than as sole therapy. Vancomycin is reserved for suspected MRSA and is not a standard drug of choice for routine CAP without MRSA risk factors.
Category reason: The question asks which antibiotic is the drug of choice for inpatient community-acquired pneumonia, testing antimicrobial selection and spectrum of activity, which is primarily Pharmacology.

Question 30

Q.91 - What is the other name of paracetamol..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol is commonly abbreviated as PCM in many clinical and pharmacy contexts, and it refers to the same drug (acetaminophen). The other options are unrelated abbreviations: CPM typically refers to chlorpheniramine, ACT is not a standard synonym for paracetamol, and SSRI refers to a class of antidepressants. Therefore, PCM is the correct alternative name/abbreviation for paracetamol.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a medication’s alternative name/abbreviation, which is a core pharmacology knowledge point rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 31

Which of the following is not an antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic used to treat pain and fever, not an antimicrobial agent. Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, amoxicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic, and streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic. Therefore, acetaminophen is the only option that is not an antibiotic.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of drug classes (antibiotics vs non-antibiotic analgesic/antipyretic), which is a core Pharmacology knowledge area rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 32

Loratadine is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loratadine is a second-generation H1 receptor antagonist (antihistamine) used to treat allergic rhinitis and urticaria by blocking histamine-mediated symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes. It is relatively non-sedating compared with first-generation antihistamines because it has limited penetration into the central nervous system. It is not an analgesic, antibiotic, or gastric acid–neutralizing agent.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a drug’s class and therapeutic category (what loratadine is), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 33

Acyclovir is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication primarily active against herpesviruses (e.g., HSV-1, HSV-2, and varicella-zoster virus). It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase after activation by viral thymidine kinase, thereby limiting viral replication. It is not effective for bacterial, fungal, or helminth (worm) infections, which require different antimicrobial classes.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of a specific medication’s therapeutic use and antimicrobial class, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision-making scenario.

Question 34

Which supplement is given with isoniazid to prevent neuropathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by increasing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) deficiency through interference with B6-dependent pathways. Supplementing pyridoxine prevents or treats this adverse effect, especially in higher-risk patients (e.g., malnutrition, pregnancy, diabetes, HIV, alcoholism). Vitamin C, folic acid, and iron do not prevent isoniazid-induced neuropathy.
Category reason: This item tests a medication-specific adverse effect (isoniazid-induced neuropathy) and the appropriate prophylactic supplement, which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing process or prioritization.

Question 35

Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bleomycin is classically associated with dose-limiting pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis that can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Lung tissue has relatively low levels of bleomycin hydrolase, increasing susceptibility to injury. Cisplatin is best known for nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity, doxorubicin for cardiomyopathy, and methotrexate more commonly for mucositis, myelosuppression, and hepatotoxicity (though it can rarely cause pneumonitis). Therefore, bleomycin is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of an adverse effect specific to a chemotherapy medication, which is core pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing care priority scenario.

Question 36

Which antibiotic produces severe allergic reactions in man?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillins are among the most common antibiotics associated with hypersensitivity reactions, ranging from rash and urticaria to anaphylaxis. Severe IgE-mediated allergy is classically linked to penicillin due to hapten formation after binding to host proteins. Neomycin more commonly causes contact dermatitis/topical hypersensitivity rather than classic severe systemic anaphylaxis. The other listed items are not standard antibiotics associated with severe allergic reactions in humans.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of an antibiotic’s adverse effect profile (risk of severe allergic/hypersensitivity reactions), which is a core concept in Pharmacology rather than nursing process or patient-care prioritization.

Question 37

One of the causes of decreased vaginal lubrication is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many antidepressants, particularly SSRIs/SNRIs and some TCAs, can cause sexual dysfunction, including reduced genital arousal and decreased vaginal lubrication. This effect is related to serotonergic modulation and autonomic changes that blunt sexual response. In contrast, high estrogen levels generally support vaginal mucosal health and lubrication, lubricants increase lubrication, and increased sexual arousal typically increases lubrication.
Category reason: The question tests a medication adverse effect (sexual side effects of antidepressants), which is primarily a pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 38

Which of the following is complication of Digoxin Toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In acute digoxin toxicity, inhibition of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump reduces intracellular potassium uptake, causing potassium to shift out of cells and leading to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is also a marker of severity in acute toxicity and correlates with higher risk of malignant dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia more commonly predisposes a patient to digoxin toxicity (e.g., from diuretics) but is not the typical complication once significant toxicity occurs. Hyperglycemia and hypercalcemia are not characteristic complications of digoxin toxicity.
Category reason: This item tests an adverse effect/complication of a specific medication (digoxin) and the associated electrolyte change, which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing process or care-prioritization scenario.

Question 39

Ciprofloxacin Tablet is used for -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic active against many gram-negative organisms commonly implicated in urinary tract infections. It is used to treat bacterial infections such as UTIs when appropriate based on local resistance patterns and patient factors. It does not treat malaria (a protozoal infection), heart attack (a cardiovascular emergency), or chickenpox (a viral illness).
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the clinical use/indication of a specific medication (ciprofloxacin), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than nursing care prioritization or safety actions.

Question 40

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-A receptor, increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening in response to GABA and thereby enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission. This produces anxiolytic, sedative-hypnotic, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant effects. Serotonin reuptake inhibition describes SSRIs, NMDA blockade describes drugs like ketamine/memantine, and dopamine inhibition is not the primary mechanism of benzodiazepines.
Category reason: The question tests the drug mechanism of action for benzodiazepines, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision or prioritization scenario.

Question 41

How Furosemide (Lasix) helps to control BP?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+-K+-2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased water excretion. This reduces intravascular volume and venous return (preload), which lowers blood pressure. It does not primarily lower BP by deactivating the sympathetic nervous system, and activating RAAS would generally oppose BP lowering. While loop diuretics can cause some renal vasodilation via prostaglandins, the main antihypertensive mechanism is natriuresis/diuresis.
Category reason: The question tests the mechanism of action of furosemide in controlling blood pressure, which is core medication (diuretic) pharmacology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 42

Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of diabetes type II.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is a first-line oral antihyperglycemic medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus; it lowers hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for edema and hypertension, not diabetes treatment. Tramadol is an opioid analgesic for pain, and ibuprofen is an NSAID for pain/inflammation; neither treats hyperglycemia.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of a medication indicated for type 2 diabetes, which is primarily drug knowledge and classification/indications—core Pharmacology content rather than nursing care actions.

Question 43

__________ is a drug administered intramuscularly to a woman after delivery of the placenta and membranes to prevent Haemorrhage (PPH).?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is a uterotonic medication routinely given after delivery of the placenta as part of active management of the third stage of labor to promote uterine contraction and reduce postpartum hemorrhage risk. A common prophylactic dose is oxytocin 10 IU intramuscularly. Acetaminophen is an analgesic/antipyretic, fluconazole is an antifungal, and pethidine (meperidine) is an opioid analgesic—none prevent PPH. Therefore, oxytocin 10 IU is the best answer.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of the correct medication and dose used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage (a uterotonic drug), which is primarily pharmacology content rather than nursing prioritization or care management.

Question 44

RIFAMPICIN is a group of what drug??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampicin (rifampin) is an antibiotic in the rifamycin class and is a first-line antitubercular medication used in standard TB treatment regimens. It works by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, making it effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is not a corticosteroid, anti-inflammatory, or anticonvulsant. Therefore the best match is the option describing an antibiotic/anti-TB drug.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a medication’s drug class and clinical use (rifampicin as an antitubercular antibiotic), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 45

Which drug is used as first-line therapy in stable angina to reduce chest pain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nitroglycerin (a nitrate) is first-line for rapid relief of chest pain in stable angina because it dilates veins and coronary arteries, decreasing preload and myocardial oxygen demand while improving coronary perfusion. It provides quick symptom relief when taken sublingually at the onset of angina. Nifedipine (a calcium channel blocker) can be used for prophylaxis or if beta-blockers are not tolerated, but it is not the primary immediate-relief first-line agent. Digoxin is for certain arrhythmias/heart failure, and atorvastatin is for long-term risk reduction rather than acute pain relief.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of which medication is first-line for symptom relief in stable angina, focusing on drug choice and therapeutic role, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing process or prioritization.

Question 46

In the treatment of tuberculosis, the therapeutic rationale for combination drug therapy is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tuberculosis treatment uses multiple drugs (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) primarily to prevent selection of resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis mutants. Because TB organisms replicate and mutate over long treatment periods, monotherapy rapidly leads to resistance and treatment failure. Combination therapy attacks the organism through different mechanisms, reducing the probability that resistant strains will survive and proliferate. Cost/compliance benefits may occur with fixed-dose combinations, but the key therapeutic rationale is resistance prevention.
Category reason: The question tests the pharmacologic principle behind using multi-drug regimens in TB—prevention of antimicrobial resistance—rather than a nursing care intervention or prioritization decision, so it best fits Pharmacology.

Question 47

Etomidate injection is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Etomidate is a short-acting intravenous sedative-hypnotic used primarily for induction of general anesthesia and procedural sedation, including rapid sequence intubation. It provides hypnosis with minimal cardiovascular depression compared with many other induction agents. It is not a treatment for trauma itself, epilepsy, or inflammation, though it may be used during airway management in critically ill or injured patients.
Category reason: The question tests the primary clinical use/indication of a specific drug (etomidate), which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care priority or intervention scenario.

Question 48

Which drug is used to treat digoxin toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The specific antidote for life-threatening or significant digoxin toxicity is digoxin-specific antibody (Fab) fragments (Digibind/DigiFab), which bind free digoxin and enhance its elimination. Protamine sulfate reverses heparin, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and naloxone reverses opioids. Therefore, Fab fragments are the only option that directly treats digoxin toxicity.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of drug antidotes and reversal agents, which is a core topic in Pharmacology rather than nursing-care prioritization or interventions.

Question 49

Which antibiotic is most commonly associated with brown-black tongue discoloration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brown-black tongue discoloration (black hairy tongue) is a known benign adverse effect associated with tetracyclines due to altered oral flora and elongation/pigmentation of filiform papillae. Tetracycline-class antibiotics can promote chromogenic organisms and keratin buildup on the tongue surface. Metronidazole more commonly causes a metallic taste, while amoxicillin and erythromycin are less classically linked to black hairy tongue. The condition is typically self-limited and improves with oral hygiene and stopping the offending agent if needed.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of an antibiotic adverse effect, which is primarily drug-related knowledge (mechanisms/side effects), fitting Pharmacology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.

Question 50

Which therapy uses drugs to kill cancer cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chemotherapy refers to the use of cytotoxic or cytostatic drugs to destroy cancer cells or inhibit their replication. Radiotherapy uses ionizing radiation rather than drugs, surgery removes tumors physically, and immunotherapy primarily enhances or directs the immune system to attack cancer cells. Therefore, the therapy that uses drugs to kill cancer cells is chemotherapy.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of cancer treatment modalities, specifically identifying the modality defined by the use of drugs, which is a core Pharmacology concept.

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