Question 1

A man treated for atrial fibrillation develops visual halos and nausea. Which drug is likely responsible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Visual disturbances (classically yellow-green vision/halos) with gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea are hallmark features of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and has a narrow therapeutic index, making toxicity clinically important. Metoprolol and verapamil more typically cause bradycardia, hypotension, and fatigue/constipation rather than halos. Amiodarone has many adverse effects (thyroid, lung, liver, corneal deposits) but the classic halos plus nausea pattern most strongly indicates digoxin.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of an adverse drug effect and linking a symptom cluster to the responsible medication, which is a core Pharmacology task rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 2

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that inhibits L-type calcium channels, decreasing AV nodal conduction and myocardial contractility. It is used for conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atropine is an antimuscarinic, adenosine is an AV nodal blocking antiarrhythmic via adenosine receptors, and clonidine is a central alpha-2 agonist—none are calcium channel blockers.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of a medication class (calcium channel blocker) based on drug names and pharmacologic classification, which is core Pharmacology content rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 3

Which medication can lower a patient’s heart rate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propranolol (spelled “Propanolol” in the options) is a nonselective beta-blocker that lowers heart rate by blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, decreasing SA node firing and slowing AV conduction. Warfarin is an anticoagulant and does not directly reduce heart rate. Amlodipine (a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker) primarily causes vasodilation and can cause reflex tachycardia rather than reliably lowering heart rate. Losartan (an ARB) lowers blood pressure via RAAS blockade but does not directly slow heart rate.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of medication classes and their expected actions on heart rate, which is core pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 4

What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) is the first-line, life-saving treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses airway edema and bronchospasm (beta effects) and supports blood pressure by vasoconstriction (alpha effects). Antihistamines and corticosteroids have slower onset and are only adjuncts for symptom control and prevention of biphasic reactions. Oxygen is supportive but does not treat the underlying pathophysiology and should not delay epinephrine administration.
Category reason: The question tests medication choice and its role in emergency treatment (first-line drug for anaphylaxis), which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing workflow or prioritization.

Question 5

Which drug is not given for fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is a standard antipyretic NSAID and is commonly used to reduce fever. Diclofenac and mefenamic acid are also NSAIDs with antipyretic effects and may be used to treat fever (though some are less preferred than paracetamol/ibuprofen due to safety/tolerability considerations). Since all listed NSAIDs can reduce fever, none of them is categorically "not given" for fever. Therefore, the best answer is that none of the above is correct.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of which NSAIDs have antipyretic action and their typical indications, which is a pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision-making scenario.

Question 6

What is the best advice given to a 42-year-old male patient who takes 75 gm Clopidogrel ( Aspirin ) daily?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet drug, and combining it with NSAIDs like ibuprofen increases the risk of gastrointestinal and other bleeding due to additive platelet inhibition and mucosal injury. Therefore, advising the patient to avoid ibuprofen for pain is the safest counseling point among the options. Routine frequent blood tests are not generally required to monitor clopidogrel effect, but that advice is less critical than preventing a potentially serious drug interaction. Multivitamins and nonspecific “sleeping pills” are not universally contraindicated with clopidogrel without further details.
Category reason: This question tests medication counseling and drug–drug interaction risk (antiplatelet therapy with NSAIDs), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing prioritization or care-management decision.

Question 7

Omeprazole is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly blocks the gastric H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. This promotes healing of acid-related disorders such as peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers and is also used for GERD and in H. pylori eradication regimens. It is not a treatment for hypertension, tuberculosis, or arthritis.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a drug’s therapeutic use (indication) rather than a nursing care decision, which is a core Pharmacology concept.

Question 8

What is a common side effect of oral contraceptives?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combined oral contraceptives commonly cause gastrointestinal upset (e.g., nausea), mild weight change related to fluid retention/appetite effects, and mood changes due to hormonal influence on neurotransmitters. The other choices list effects more typical of unrelated medication classes (anticholinergic effects like dry mouth/constipation/sedation) or nonspecific systemic findings (fever, marked hyperglycemia/weight loss) that are not typical common OCP side effects. While serious risks like thromboembolism and hypertension can occur, they are not listed and are not considered common mild side effects.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of typical adverse effects of a medication class (oral contraceptives), which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing prioritization or intervention.

Question 9

What is the antidote for organophosphorus poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Organophosphorus compounds inhibit acetylcholinesterase, causing excess acetylcholine and a cholinergic toxidrome (bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, bradycardia, miosis, secretions). Atropine is the key antidote to reverse life-threatening muscarinic effects, particularly respiratory secretions and bronchoconstriction. While pralidoxime (2-PAM) is also used to regenerate acetylcholinesterase, it is not listed among the options, making atropine the best answer here. Naloxone treats opioid toxicity, flumazenil treats benzodiazepine toxicity, and protamine reverses heparin.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a specific toxicology antidote and drug mechanism, which is primarily a Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care judgment scenario.

Question 10

What is the drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amiodarone is a broad-spectrum antiarrhythmic effective for ventricular tachycardia and is commonly recommended in ACLS algorithms for shock-refractory VF/pulseless VT and for stable wide-complex tachycardias when appropriate. Lidocaine can be used for VT but is generally considered an alternative when amiodarone is unavailable or contraindicated. Digoxin is used primarily for rate control in atrial fibrillation and can worsen ventricular arrhythmias in toxicity. Propranolol (a beta-blocker) may help some arrhythmias but is not the primary drug of choice for acute VT management.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of antiarrhythmic medication selection for a specific cardiac rhythm (ventricular tachycardia), which is a pharmacology-focused foundational science question rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Listed below are some benefits of paracetamol, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic and antipyretic used to relieve mild-to-moderate pain (e.g., headache) and reduce fever. It does not have clinically meaningful effects on appetite, metabolism, or weight loss. Therefore, “Lose Weight” is not a benefit/indication of paracetamol.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic uses/indications (analgesic and antipyretic effects), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 12

In which of the following indications aspirin is contraindicated.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin (an NSAID) inhibits COX-1, decreasing protective gastric prostaglandins, which increases gastric acid injury and impairs mucosal defense. This raises the risk of gastrointestinal irritation, ulcer worsening, and GI bleeding, so active peptic ulcer disease is a contraindication/major precaution. Inflammation, arthritis, and pain management are common therapeutic indications for aspirin/NSAIDs rather than contraindications.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of aspirin’s contraindications and adverse effects, which is primarily pharmacology rather than a nursing prioritization or care-management decision.

Question 13

Which route has maximum bioavailability?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intravenous administration provides 100% bioavailability because the drug is delivered directly into the systemic circulation with no absorption step. This route avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism and variable gastrointestinal absorption that reduce bioavailability with oral dosing. Intramuscular and subcutaneous routes still require absorption from tissue into blood, so their bioavailability can be less than IV and more variable.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational pharmacology concept (bioavailability differences by route of administration), not a nursing judgment or care-prioritization scenario.

Question 14

Which drug is used in organophosphate poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Organophosphate poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, causing excess acetylcholine and a cholinergic toxidrome (e.g., bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, bradycardia, miosis). Atropine is a competitive muscarinic antagonist that rapidly reverses life-threatening muscarinic effects, especially excessive airway secretions and bronchoconstriction. Naloxone treats opioid toxicity, protamine reverses heparin, and digibind (digoxin immune Fab) treats digoxin toxicity. (Note: pralidoxime is also used to reactivate acetylcholinesterase, but it is not among the listed options.).
Category reason: This is a medication/antidote identification question focused on matching a toxin (organophosphate) with its pharmacologic antidote, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 15

Acetaminophen tablet is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is an analgesic and antipyretic, commonly used to relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce fever. It does not treat allergy symptoms (antihistamines) or cough (antitussives/expectorants). While it also lowers fever, the single best answer among the options is its analgesic use for pain.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic use (indications) rather than nursing actions or prioritization, which falls under Pharmacology.

Question 16

Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is a reversible, competitive antagonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, blocking parasympathetic effects (e.g., decreasing secretions and causing tachycardia). Neostigmine and physostigmine are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that increase acetylcholine at synapses rather than blocking receptors. Pilocarpine is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors, producing parasympathomimetic effects.
Category reason: This question tests a drug’s mechanism of action at cholinergic (muscarinic) receptors, which is core Pharmacology content rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.

Question 17

Ruling tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The image shows “Ruling 40 (omeprazole),” a proton pump inhibitor. Omeprazole reduces gastric acid secretion and is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, including gastric and duodenal ulcers, and related acid-peptic disorders. It is not a treatment for allergies or asthma, and it has no role in acute stroke management. Therefore, the best answer is stomach ulcer.
Category reason: This is a medication-identification and indication question (omeprazole and what it is used for), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 18

A 59-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg PO tid. She tells the nurse, “Milk is coming out of my breasts.” Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Galactorrhea can occur with haloperidol due to dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the tuberoinfundibular pathway, which increases prolactin levels (hyperprolactinemia). The best initial nursing response is to correctly recognize and educate that this is a medication side effect, validating the symptom as real and clinically explainable. Option A incorrectly frames it as hallucination; option B is non-therapeutic and dismissive; option D may be a later action if needed, but first the nurse should identify the likely adverse effect and then notify the prescriber as appropriate.
Category reason: The question primarily tests knowledge of an adverse drug effect (antipsychotic-induced hyperprolactinemia causing galactorrhea), which is core Pharmacology rather than a nursing prioritization or safety intervention scenario.

Question 19

A client with a new diagnosis of lupus (SLE) and joint pain asks why NSAIDs are prescribed. What is the nurse's best response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAIDs are used in SLE primarily for symptomatic relief of musculoskeletal manifestations, especially joint pain and inflammation. They provide anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects but do not alter the underlying autoimmune disease progression. Immunosuppression is more characteristic of drugs like corticosteroids or disease-modifying/immunosuppressive agents. NSAIDs also do not generally replace corticosteroids when systemic disease activity requires stronger anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive therapy.
Category reason: The item tests the mechanism/clinical purpose of NSAIDs in treating SLE-related symptoms, which is a medication (drug action/therapeutic use) knowledge focus best classified under Pharmacology.

Question 20

A pt is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. 2 shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the ACLS algorithm for shockable cardiac arrest rhythms (VF/pulseless VT), after CPR and defibrillation, epinephrine 1 mg is given and the next antiarrhythmic recommended is amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO bolus. Adenosine is for stable supraventricular tachycardia, not pulseless VT arrest. Epinephrine 3 mg is not an ACLS dose, and lidocaine dosing is typically 1–1.5 mg/kg as an alternative to amiodarone, making 0.5 mg/kg incorrect here.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of drug selection and dosing in the ACLS algorithm for pulseless VT, which is primarily pharmacologic management rather than broader nursing care prioritization.

Question 21

A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which lab result requires immediate attention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therapeutic lithium levels are typically about 0.6–1.2 mEq/L (depending on indication and timing), and levels above this increase risk of toxicity. A lithium level of 2.2 mEq/L is consistent with significant toxicity and warrants immediate clinical attention, assessment for neurologic/GI symptoms, and likely holding the medication with urgent provider notification. The other values listed (sodium 140 mEq/L, potassium 4.0 mEq/L, lithium 0.9 mEq/L) are within expected normal/therapeutic ranges and are not emergent by themselves.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of medication therapeutic ranges and recognition of toxic drug levels, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-prioritization scenario.

Question 22

Which drug relieves acidity and heartburn?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that suppresses gastric acid secretion by irreversibly inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells, thereby relieving symptoms of acid reflux and heartburn. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety/seizures and does not reduce stomach acid. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and is not used to treat acidity/heartburn. Aspirin (an NSAID) can worsen gastritis and heartburn by irritating gastric mucosa and decreasing protective prostaglandins.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of medication classes and their therapeutic uses for gastric acid-related symptoms, which is primarily pharmacology rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 23

Which drug is used in tuberculosis (TB)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampicin (rifampin) is a first-line antitubercular antibiotic used as part of standard combination therapy for active TB (e.g., with isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol). It works by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, making it effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine for anxiety/seizures, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and metformin treats type 2 diabetes—none treat TB infection.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of which medication is indicated to treat tuberculosis, focusing on drug identification and therapeutic use, which is primarily Pharmacology.

Question 24

What is the drug of choice for organophosphorus poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Organophosphorus compounds inhibit acetylcholinesterase, causing excess acetylcholine and a cholinergic toxidrome (e.g., bronchorrhea/bronchospasm, bradycardia, miosis, salivation). Atropine is the primary antidote used to counteract life-threatening muscarinic effects, especially respiratory secretions and bronchoconstriction, and is titrated until secretions dry and ventilation improves. Diazepam may be used as an adjunct for seizures/agitation, while naloxone and flumazenil are antidotes for opioid and benzodiazepine toxicity, respectively.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the specific antidote for a toxin exposure, focusing on drug selection and mechanism-based treatment, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization scenario.

Question 25

A drug used to treat brain disorders:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antidepressants are centrally acting medications used to treat brain-based disorders such as major depressive disorder and some anxiety disorders by modulating neurotransmitters (e.g., serotonin, norepinephrine). NSAIDs primarily treat pain and inflammation, antacids treat gastric acid–related conditions, and antibiotics treat bacterial infections. Among the options, only antidepressants are specifically indicated for disorders of the brain/central nervous system.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a medication class and its primary therapeutic use, which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care or safety decision.

Question 26

Medicine used to reduce fever is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an antipyretic that lowers fever by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system, reducing the hypothalamic temperature set point. Insulin treats hyperglycemia, not fever. Morphine is an opioid analgesic primarily used for pain control and can worsen respiratory status rather than treat fever. Penicillin is an antibiotic that treats susceptible bacterial infections but does not directly reduce fever acutely like an antipyretic.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a medication class and its therapeutic effect (antipyresis), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing judgment or prioritization.

Question 27

Omeprazole used for:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that suppresses gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells. It is used for acid-related conditions such as GERD, peptic ulcer disease, and dyspepsia/heartburn. Therefore, among the options given, it is used for acidity rather than treating cough, fever, or general pain.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a drug’s therapeutic use (omeprazole as a PPI for acid suppression), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 28

What is the main side effect of amphotericin B?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amphotericin B’s dose-limiting toxicity is nephrotoxicity due to renal vasoconstriction and direct tubular injury. This commonly presents as rising serum creatinine and electrolyte wasting, especially hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia. Infusion-related fever/chills are also common, but the most clinically important and “main” adverse effect tested is kidney toxicity. Lipid formulations reduce (but do not eliminate) nephrotoxicity compared with conventional amphotericin B deoxycholate.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a drug’s characteristic adverse effect (amphotericin B toxicity profile), which is core Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 29

Metronidazole is a drug of choice especially for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial with potent activity against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, including Entamoeba histolytica. It is a standard drug of choice for invasive intestinal amoebiasis and amoebic liver abscess (often followed by a luminal agent to eradicate intraluminal cysts). It is not used for candidiasis (treated with azoles/polyenes), trypanosomiasis (requires antitrypanosomal drugs), or coccidioidomycosis (requires antifungals such as azoles).
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of the therapeutic indication of a specific antimicrobial agent, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care prioritization or intervention scenario.

Question 30

Drug of choice in Legionella pneumonia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Legionella pneumophila is an atypical, intracellular pathogen, so effective therapy requires antibiotics with good intracellular penetration. Macrolides (historically erythromycin) and respiratory fluoroquinolones are standard treatments for Legionella pneumonia. Beta-lactams like ampicillin do not reliably cover Legionella due to its intracellular location and atypical features. Aminoglycosides such as amikacin or streptomycin are not first-line for Legionella pneumonia.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of the specific antibiotic drug of choice for a pathogen (Legionella), which is pharmacologic treatment selection rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 31

A patient using NSAIDs for chronic pain develops a bleeding ulcer. Which drug is designed to selectively treat ulcers of this type?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAID-induced ulcers result from inhibition of COX-1 and decreased protective gastric prostaglandins, leading to reduced mucus and bicarbonate secretion and impaired mucosal blood flow. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog specifically used to prevent and treat NSAID-induced gastric ulcers by restoring prostaglandin-mediated mucosal protection. Famotidine reduces acid but is not uniquely targeted to NSAID-prostaglandin depletion, and antacids/bismuth are nonspecific mucosal/acid therapies. Muscarinic antagonists reduce acid secretion but are not designed specifically for NSAID-associated ulcer prevention.
Category reason: This question tests drug mechanism and indication for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease, which is primarily pharmacology (prostaglandin analog therapy) rather than nursing judgment or care prioritization.

Question 32

Naproxen is used for..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used primarily for analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, such as musculoskeletal pain, arthritis pain, and dysmenorrhea. Vomiting and diarrhea are potential adverse effects of NSAIDs rather than indications. Naproxen is not used to treat diabetes.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use/indication of a specific medication (naproxen), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 33

Fluconazole is used to treat infections caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluconazole is an azole antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, commonly caused by Candida species (e.g., vulvovaginal candidiasis, oral/esophageal candidiasis) and some systemic mycoses. It works by inhibiting fungal ergosterol synthesis via blockade of 14-α-demethylase, disrupting the fungal cell membrane. It is not active against bacteria, viruses, or protozoa, making the fungal option the best answer.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s antimicrobial spectrum and mechanism/class (fluconazole as an azole antifungal), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 34

Nifedipine causes refectory hypotension when given with halothane due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nifedipine is an L-type calcium channel blocker that causes peripheral vasodilation and can lower blood pressure. Halothane also depresses cardiovascular function and reduces vascular tone and myocardial contractility, with effects that are mediated in part through calcium channel–dependent mechanisms. When combined, their calcium channel–related cardiovascular depressant/vasodilatory actions are additive or synergistic, producing marked (refractory) hypotension. The other options do not explain hypotension: vasoconstriction would raise BP, tachycardia is a compensatory response, and oral duration is irrelevant to the interaction mechanism.
Category reason: The question tests a drug–drug interaction and mechanism of hypotension involving nifedipine and halothane, which is core Pharmacology content rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 35

Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In pregnancy, tetracyclines (tetracycline and doxycycline) are contraindicated due to risks to fetal teeth and bone development. Recommended therapy for Chlamydia trachomatis in pregnancy includes azithromycin (commonly 1 g orally single dose) because it is effective and generally safe in pregnancy. Erythromycin is an alternative but is less preferred due to GI intolerance and more complex dosing regimens.
Category reason: The item tests selection of an appropriate antibiotic based on pregnancy safety and drug class contraindications, which is primarily pharmacology knowledge.

Question 36

Which medication is an osmotic diuretic that is used to treat cerebral edema?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases plasma osmolality, drawing water out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure in cerebral edema. HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic used mainly for hypertension and mild edema, not for acute ICP reduction. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic used for volume overload (e.g., heart failure), and phenytoin is an anticonvulsant rather than a diuretic. Therefore, mannitol is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a medication class (osmotic diuretic) and its therapeutic use in cerebral edema, which is core pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing action/priority scenario.

Question 37

Hydralazine is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydralazine is a direct-acting arterial vasodilator that lowers systemic vascular resistance, thereby reducing blood pressure. Clinically it is used to treat hypertension, including hypertensive emergencies (typically IV) and hypertension in pregnancy (e.g., preeclampsia). It is not an analgesic, antipyretic, or antihistamine, so options related to pain, fever, or allergy are incorrect.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a medication’s primary therapeutic use, which is a foundational Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-judgment scenario.

Question 38

A client with glaucoma is prescribed miotic eye drops. Nurse Jones understands that the therapeutic action of miotics in glaucoma management is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Miotic medications (e.g., pilocarpine) stimulate muscarinic receptors to constrict the pupil (miosis). This pulls the iris away from the trabecular meshwork, opening the anterior chamber angle and improving aqueous humor outflow. Increased outflow reduces intraocular pressure, which is the key therapeutic goal in glaucoma. The other options describe actions of anesthetics (corneal anesthesia), mydriatics (pupil dilation), or cycloplegics (paralysis of accommodation).
Category reason: The question tests the mechanism/therapeutic action of a drug class (miotic eye drops) used to treat glaucoma, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing care priority or intervention selection.

Question 39

Nurse Laura is caring for Mr. Thompson, a patient with leukemia who is receiving Trimetrexate. The physician has added Wellcovorin (leucovorin calcium) to his treatment plan. What is the reason for giving leucovorin calcium to a patient on Trimetrexate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leucovorin (folinic acid) is given as “rescue therapy” with antifolate drugs (e.g., trimetrexate/methotrexate) to bypass dihydrofolate reductase inhibition and replenish reduced folate in normal cells. This reduces antifolate toxicity such as mucositis, myelosuppression, and tissue injury without negating necessary therapeutic effect when appropriately timed. It is not used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, shorten chemotherapy duration, or directly increase neutrophils.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism and clinical purpose of administering leucovorin with an antifolate chemotherapy agent (leucovorin rescue), which is primarily pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 40

Heparin potentiate the action of :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by binding to and potentiating antithrombin III, markedly accelerating antithrombin’s inhibition of thrombin (factor IIa) and factor Xa. This prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and reduces clot propagation. Protein C and protein S are vitamin K–dependent anticoagulant proteins enhanced indirectly by warfarin’s mechanism, not by heparin.
Category reason: This is a foundational drug mechanism question asking which endogenous factor heparin potentiates, which falls under Pharmacology rather than nursing clinical decision-making.

Question 41

Which electrolyte imbalance is most associated with furosemide (Lasix) therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb, increasing urinary excretion of sodium and water. This mechanism also increases potassium loss in the urine, making hypokalemia a common and clinically important adverse effect. Patients on furosemide often require potassium monitoring and sometimes supplementation to prevent arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are not typical of loop diuretics (loops increase calcium excretion).
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a medication’s mechanism and expected adverse electrolyte effects, which is primarily a Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care prioritization scenario.

Question 42

Which of the following ART drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Efavirenz has historically been avoided/considered contraindicated during the first trimester due to concern for teratogenicity (notably neural tube defects) during early fetal organogenesis. In contrast, zidovudine and tenofovir are widely used in pregnancy as part of ART to treat HIV and reduce vertical transmission. Nevirapine is not absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy, though it requires caution because of hepatotoxicity and rash risk, especially in patients with higher CD4 counts.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of antiretroviral medication safety/contraindications in pregnancy, which is a pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 43

The drug administered during acute anaphylactic reaction is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In acute anaphylaxis, intramuscular epinephrine (adrenaline) is the first-line, life-saving medication because it rapidly reverses airway edema/bronchospasm (beta-2 effects) and supports blood pressure via vasoconstriction (alpha-1 effects). Aminophylline is not first-line and is rarely used for acute bronchospasm in this setting. Atropine treats bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning, not anaphylaxis. Frusemide is a diuretic and does not address the core pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of the appropriate medication for a specific emergency condition, focusing on drug choice and mechanism, which is pharmacology rather than nursing process or care management.

Question 44

Q. 3. The science which deals with the drug and their action on human body is called__________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pharmacology is the branch of science that studies drugs and their effects on the human body, including mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions. Physiology focuses on normal body function, pathology on disease processes, and microbiology on microorganisms. Therefore, the best term for drugs and their actions is pharmacology.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational definition about the study of drugs and their actions, which is core content in Pharmacology rather than a nursing judgment or intervention scenario.

Question 45

How does penicillin cross cell membranes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillins are weak acids and, like many small drug molecules, primarily cross biological membranes by passive diffusion in their non-ionized form down a concentration gradient. They do not generally require energy-dependent pumps (active transport) or vesicular uptake (endocytosis) to cross membranes. Facilitated diffusion implies a specific carrier-mediated process, which is not the typical mechanism described for penicillin membrane passage in standard pharmacology.
Category reason: This asks about a drug’s mechanism of membrane transport (how penicillin crosses cell membranes), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care intervention or clinical judgment scenario.

Question 46

Which medication is used to treat Athlete's foot?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Athlete's foot (tinea pedis) is a superficial dermatophyte fungal infection best treated first-line with topical antifungals. Clotrimazole is a topical azole effective against dermatophytes and is commonly used for tinea pedis. Acyclovir treats herpes viruses, metronidazole targets anaerobic bacteria/protozoa, and fluconazole is a systemic azole that may be used in refractory fungal infections but is not the typical first choice for uncomplicated athlete's foot.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of which drug class/agent treats a specific infection (tinea pedis), which is primarily medication knowledge rather than nursing judgment or care prioritization, fitting Pharmacology.

Question 47

A 25-year-old male with myasthenia gravis is undergoing appendectomy. Which neuromuscular blocker should be avoided?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis reduces the number of functional nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Because succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that requires binding to these receptors to produce paralysis, patients with myasthenia gravis can have an unpredictable/attenuated response and may require larger doses, increasing risk of prolonged apnea (especially if receiving anticholinesterase therapy that can also prolong succinylcholine metabolism). Therefore, succinylcholine is generally avoided, and if neuromuscular blockade is needed, a carefully titrated reduced dose of a nondepolarizing agent with monitoring is preferred.
Category reason: This question tests drug class effects and altered neuromuscular blocker responses in myasthenia gravis, which is primarily pharmacology (mechanism and clinical implications of neuromuscular blocking agents).

Question 48

Following Capsules is used For ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The image shows Benzonatate capsules (a non-narcotic antitussive). Benzonatate anesthetizes stretch receptors in the respiratory passages and pleura, suppressing the cough reflex. It is not used to treat infections such as AIDS or meningitis, and it is not used as a general anesthetic for procedures. Therefore, the best answer is cough.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a medication (benzonatate) and its therapeutic use, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization or intervention scenario.

Question 49

Tinidazole tablet is used to treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial active against protozoa (e.g., Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia) and anaerobic bacteria. It is commonly used for amoebiasis, including intestinal infection that can present as amoebic dysentery (bloody diarrhea with mucus). The other options describe symptoms or conditions not specifically treated by tinidazole (constipation, dyspepsia) or are too nonspecific (diarrhea) compared with dysentery due to protozoal infection.
Category reason: The item tests the therapeutic use/indication of a specific drug (tinidazole), which is a core pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization scenario.

Question 50

Clexane is used for..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clexane (enoxaparin) is a low-molecular-weight heparin used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism (blood clots), including DVT and pulmonary embolism. It works by enhancing antithrombin activity, primarily inhibiting factor Xa (and to a lesser extent thrombin), thereby reducing clot formation. It is also used in acute coronary syndromes to reduce thrombotic complications. It is not indicated for malaria, treating hypertension, or correcting anemia.
Category reason: The question asks the primary indication of a specific medication (Clexane/enoxaparin), which is pharmacology-focused rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning