Question 1

Loperamide is used for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal (antimotility) opioid-receptor agonist that acts primarily in the gut to reduce intestinal peristalsis and increase transit time. This decreases stool frequency and improves stool consistency in acute nonspecific diarrhea and some chronic diarrhea states. It is not an antimicrobial and does not treat infections such as pneumonia, typhoid fever, or malaria. Therefore, the best answer is diarrhea.

Question 2

Which of the following medicine is used for the treatment of Peptic ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that suppresses gastric acid secretion and promotes healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers, making it a standard therapy for peptic ulcer disease. Lornoxicam is an NSAID, which can worsen or precipitate peptic ulcers by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. The other listed options are not recognized as primary anti-ulcer therapies compared with a PPI.

Question 3

Which of the following medications improves myocardial contractility in CCF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin is a positive inotrope that increases myocardial contractility by inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, which raises intracellular calcium in cardiac myocytes. This can improve cardiac output and symptoms in some patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (heart failure), particularly with atrial fibrillation for rate control. Furosemide primarily reduces preload via diuresis, lisinopril reduces afterload/remodeling via ACE inhibition, and metoprolol decreases heart rate and contractility acutely (though beneficial long-term in HFrEF). Therefore, digoxin is the option that directly improves contractility.

Question 4

Which organ is responsible for detoxification of drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver is the primary organ for drug detoxification and metabolism via hepatic enzymes (notably the cytochrome P450 system) that biotransform many medications into more water-soluble compounds. These metabolites can then be excreted in bile or eliminated by the kidneys. While the kidneys are crucial for excretion, most detoxification (metabolic transformation) occurs in the liver. The lungs and heart are not primary sites of drug detoxification.

Question 5

Which of the following drug is used for Incontinence?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxybutynin is an antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) used to treat overactive bladder by decreasing detrusor muscle contractions, thereby reducing urgency and urge incontinence. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker for acid-related disorders, azithromycin is an antibiotic, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, muscle spasm, and seizures. Thus, oxybutynin is the only option directly indicated for urinary incontinence management (especially urge type).

Question 6

Which of these is an anticoagulant given by injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly administered parenterally (subcutaneous or intravenous) to prevent or treat venous thromboembolism. It works by potentiating antithrombin, inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa, thereby reducing clot formation. Atorvastatin is a lipid-lowering statin, aspirin is primarily an antiplatelet agent (usually oral), and paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, not an anticoagulant.

Question 7

__________ liquid is relieve pain and discomfort associated with teething, in children from 5 months of age ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anbesol is a topical oral anesthetic preparation (commonly benzocaine-based) that has been used to relieve localized gum pain associated with teething. The other options are not appropriate for teething discomfort: morphine is a systemic opioid with high risk and no indication for routine teething pain, and the remaining options are not standard teething analgesics. Management of teething discomfort is typically localized and conservative, making a topical anesthetic the best match among the listed choices. Therefore, Anbesol is the single best answer from the options provided.

Question 8

The process of drug movement from the site of administration to blood is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Absorption is the pharmacokinetic process by which a drug moves from its site of administration (e.g., GI tract, muscle, subcutaneous tissue) into the bloodstream. Distribution occurs after absorption and refers to movement of the drug from blood into tissues and body compartments. Metabolism is the biotransformation of drugs (primarily in the liver) into metabolites, and excretion is elimination (primarily via kidneys or bile). Therefore the movement from administration site to blood is absorption.

Question 9

Haloperidol is primarily used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic primarily indicated for treatment of schizophrenia and acute psychosis, and it is also commonly used for acute agitation. Its main mechanism is dopamine D2 receptor antagonism, which helps reduce positive psychotic symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions). It is not a primary therapy for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or asthma.

Question 10

The most important factor to be considered in drug prescription is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For many medications, especially in pediatrics and for drugs with narrow therapeutic windows, dosing is primarily determined by the patient’s body weight (e.g., mg/kg) to achieve appropriate drug exposure and avoid toxicity. Weight most directly reflects volume of distribution and influences dose requirements more reliably than age alone. “Body mass” is imprecise in prescribing unless specified as lean body weight or body surface area, and race is not a primary dosing determinant compared with measured patient size and organ function.

Question 11

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol belong to which class of drugs (2 Marks)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol are the classic first-line combination regimen used to treat active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. While they are antimicrobials, their specific pharmacologic class in standard nursing/pharmacology categorization is anti-tuberculosis (anti-TB) drugs. Antihelminthics target parasitic worms and antimalarials target Plasmodium species, so those do not apply. Therefore, the best answer is anti tuberculosis.

Question 12

Drug of choice for Typhoid fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, for which fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) have been classic effective therapy due to good intracellular penetration and activity against Salmonella. Rifampicin and ethambutol are primarily antitubercular drugs and are not standard treatment for typhoid. Acyclovir is an antiviral and has no activity against bacterial typhoid infections. While resistance patterns may alter preferred agents in some regions, among the given options ciprofloxacin is the best answer.

Question 13

Vermox tablet is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vermox is mebendazole, an anthelmintic medication used to treat intestinal helminth infections such as pinworm, roundworm, whipworm, and hookworm. It works by inhibiting microtubule formation and glucose uptake in the parasites, leading to their death. It is not a treatment for meningitis, hemorrhoids, or stroke, which have entirely different causes and therapies.

Question 14

Epinephrine causes decrease in which?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in peripheral vessels, producing vasoconstriction that decreases cutaneous (skin) blood flow. In contrast, it increases heart rate and contractility via beta-1 receptors. It also increases plasma glucose by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (beta-2 effects). Therefore the decrease most characteristic of epinephrine is reduced cutaneous blood flow.

Question 15

A nurse administers regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneously at 8:00 am. The nurse would most likely see signs of hypoglycemia at what time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Regular (short-acting) insulin given subcutaneously typically peaks about 2–4 hours after administration, which is when hypoglycemia is most likely. If given at 8:00 am, the highest risk window is approximately 10:00 am to 12:00 pm. The later time options correspond more to longer-acting insulins rather than regular insulin. Therefore, the earliest window provided best matches the expected peak effect.

Question 16

Which of the following is used to treat kidney cancer ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Afinitor (everolimus) is an mTOR inhibitor used as targeted therapy for certain cases of advanced renal cell carcinoma, particularly after progression on VEGF-targeted therapies. The other options are not anticancer treatments for kidney cancer: Adderall is a stimulant for ADHD, Advil (ibuprofen) is an NSAID analgesic, and Agamree (vamorolone) is a corticosteroid used for Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Therefore, Afinitor is the only option aligned with kidney cancer pharmacotherapy.

Question 17

Torsemide tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Torsemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+-K+-2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, promoting diuresis and natriuresis. Clinically it is used to reduce fluid overload, making it effective for treating edema, especially in conditions like heart failure, renal disease, or hepatic cirrhosis. It is not a treatment for allergies, cystitis (UTI), or mastitis (breast infection/inflammation).

Question 18

Fexofenadine tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fexofenadine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis and chronic idiopathic urticaria by blocking histamine-mediated symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and hives. It does not treat infectious diarrheal diseases like cholera, liver inflammation such as hepatitis, or general nausea (which is typically managed with antiemetics). Therefore the best answer is allergy.

Question 19

Which of the following drugs works as a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benserazide is a peripheral aromatic L-amino acid (dopa) decarboxylase inhibitor used with levodopa in Parkinson disease to prevent peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine. This increases the amount of levodopa reaching the CNS and reduces peripheral adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and hypotension. Cobicistat is a CYP3A inhibitor used as a pharmacokinetic booster in HIV therapy, levodopa is the dopamine precursor (not a decarboxylase inhibitor), and bumetanide is a loop diuretic.

Question 20

Loratidine is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loratadine is a second-generation H1 antihistamine used to treat allergic conditions such as allergic rhinitis and urticaria (hives). It reduces symptoms like sneezing, itching, and runny nose by blocking histamine receptors. It is not used to treat peptic ulcer disease, gout (which is treated with anti-inflammatories/urate-lowering drugs), or hemorrhage (which requires hemostatic interventions).

Question 21

Combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid drugs to form ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amoxicillin combined with clavulanic acid is the branded formulation known as Augmentin. Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that protects amoxicillin from enzymatic degradation by beta-lactamase–producing bacteria, thereby broadening antibacterial coverage. The other options (Metaglip, Avandaryl, Duetact) are antidiabetic combination products, not antibiotics.

Question 22

Which drug is a non-selective beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carvedilol is a nonselective beta-blocker (blocks β1 and β2 receptors) that also has alpha-1 blocking activity, producing additional peripheral vasodilation. In contrast, atenolol, metoprolol, and esmolol are primarily beta-1 selective blockers without clinically significant alpha-1 blockade. Therefore, carvedilol is the best match for a mixed alpha/beta blocker in the options.

Question 23

Morphine sulphate injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic primarily indicated for moderate to severe pain. While it may cause sedation and can reduce distress secondarily, it is not used chiefly to treat anxiety or insomnia due to risk of respiratory depression and dependence. Typical clinical uses include severe pain from cancer, postoperative states, and acute myocardial infarction pain, which supports option B as the most general and correct indication.

Question 24

The time taken for the concentration of drug in blood to reduce by half is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Half-life is defined as the time required for the plasma (blood) concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. It is a key pharmacokinetic parameter that helps determine dosing intervals and the time to reach steady state (typically about 4–5 half-lives). Bioavailability refers to the fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation, absorption time is how long it takes to be absorbed, and elimination rate is a rate constant rather than the time-to-half measure.

Question 25

Which of the following medicine is used toothache?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Toothache pain is commonly due to inflammation of dental tissues, and first-line symptomatic relief is an NSAID. Ibuprofen provides analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, reducing prostaglandin-mediated pain. Metformin (and its brand Glucopage) treat type 2 diabetes, and omeprazole treats acid-related gastrointestinal disorders, so they do not address dental pain directly.

Question 26

Alprazolam tablets is used to treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA in the central nervous system, producing anxiolytic (anti-anxiety) and sedative effects. It is commonly prescribed for anxiety disorders and panic disorder. It is not a treatment for stroke, malaria, or gonorrhea, which require different medication classes and disease-specific management.

Question 27

Drug use to treat Diabetes ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is a first-line oral antidiabetic for type 2 diabetes that improves insulin sensitivity and decreases hepatic glucose production. Glibenclamide (glyburide) and glipizide are sulfonylureas that stimulate pancreatic insulin secretion. Since all listed medications are used to treat diabetes (particularly type 2 diabetes), the best answer is "All of the Above.

Question 28

What is the most common treatment for bacterial infections in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bacterial infections are most commonly treated with antibiotics, which kill bacteria (bactericidal) or inhibit their growth (bacteriostatic). Aspirin is an analgesic/antipyretic and does not eradicate bacteria. Antibodies are part of the immune response and may be given as immunoglobulins in select situations but are not the routine primary treatment. An antigen is a substance that triggers an immune response and is not a treatment.

Question 29

Artesunate injection Used to treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Artesunate is an artemisinin derivative antimalarial used for treatment of malaria, especially severe Plasmodium falciparum infection, and can be given IV/IM. It acts rapidly on blood-stage parasites to reduce parasitemia. It is not an antibiotic for typhoid and is not indicated to treat symptoms like vomiting or conditions like bleeding. Therefore, malaria is the correct indication.

Question 30

Diclofenac is use for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects in conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, arthritis, and dysmenorrhea. It works primarily by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and thereby decreasing pain and inflammation. It is not indicated to treat allergy, cough, or to stimulate appetite. Therefore, the best answer is pain.

Question 31

Hydrocortisone cream is mainly used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Topical hydrocortisone is a low-potency corticosteroid used to reduce local inflammation, itching, and allergic-type skin reactions (e.g., dermatitis, eczema, insect bites). It works by suppressing inflammatory mediators in the skin. It is not indicated to treat systemic symptoms such as fever or cough, and it does not treat high blood pressure.

Question 32

Tegral tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tegral is carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant primarily used to treat focal (partial) seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. It stabilizes inactivated sodium channels, reducing neuronal firing and seizure propagation. The other options (stroke, meningitis, encephalitis) are not standard primary indications for carbamazepine in routine practice.

Question 33

Zinc tablet are given in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zinc supplementation is recommended as an adjunct treatment for acute diarrhea, especially in children, because it decreases the duration and severity of diarrheal episodes and helps reduce recurrence in subsequent months. It supports intestinal mucosal integrity and immune function, which are impaired during diarrheal illness. Zinc is not a standard treatment for diabetes, headache, or fever, where other targeted therapies are indicated.

Question 34

Salbutamol is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing rapid bronchodilation. It is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm in asthma and also in some cases of COPD. It does not treat fever, diabetes, or cancer.

Question 35

Artemether injection is used for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Artemether is an artemisinin derivative antimalarial used for treatment of malaria, particularly severe Plasmodium falciparum infection (often as part of artemisinin-based combination therapy). It acts rapidly on blood-stage parasites, reducing parasite burden and improving clinical outcomes. It is not an antibiotic for pneumonia or typhoid, and it is not indicated as an antiemetic for vomiting.

Question 36

Which medication increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione (TZD) that activates PPAR-γ, leading to increased insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues (especially adipose tissue and skeletal muscle) and decreased hepatic glucose output. Glipizide (a sulfonylurea) primarily increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells rather than improving sensitivity. Acarbose (an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor) reduces carbohydrate absorption in the gut, and insulin aspart is exogenous rapid-acting insulin, neither of which directly increase peripheral insulin sensitivity as their primary mechanism.

Question 37

The drug of choice in emergency contraception is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Levonorgestrel is a standard first-line oral emergency contraceptive used after unprotected intercourse and works primarily by delaying or inhibiting ovulation. Copper-T is a highly effective emergency contraceptive method but it is a device/procedure rather than a drug. Mifepristone is mainly used for medical abortion (and not the typical first-choice EC drug in many exam contexts). Progesterone alone is not used as an emergency contraception regimen.

Question 38

Initial drug of choice for bradycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For symptomatic bradycardia, atropine is the recommended first-line medication because it blocks muscarinic (parasympathetic) effects on the SA/AV nodes, increasing heart rate and AV conduction. Epinephrine is typically used as an infusion when atropine is ineffective or unavailable, and norepinephrine is primarily a vasopressor for hypotension/shock rather than first-line bradycardia treatment. Ivabradine lowers heart rate (If channel blocker) and would worsen bradycardia.

Question 39

Which electrolyte imbalance is common in eclampsia treatment with MgSO4?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Magnesium sulfate therapy increases serum magnesium levels, so the most common electrolyte abnormality related to treatment is hypermagnesemia. This is especially likely if renal clearance is reduced, allowing magnesium to accumulate. Clinically, rising magnesium can cause loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac conduction abnormalities, which is why close monitoring is required. The other listed electrolyte changes are not the typical primary imbalance caused directly by MgSO4 administration.

Question 40

Injection of a drug directly into joints is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An injection given directly into a joint space is termed an intra-articular injection ("articular" refers to joints). Intra-arterial refers to administration into an artery, which is not the joint space. Intra-ossicular implies into bone, and intramedullary refers to the bone marrow/medullary cavity—both distinct from a synovial joint cavity.

Question 41

Which medication is used to reduce brain swelling?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to lower intracranial pressure by drawing water out of edematous brain tissue into the intravascular space, reducing cerebral edema. This decreases brain swelling and can improve cerebral perfusion in conditions like traumatic brain injury or impending herniation. Furosemide may be used as an adjunct diuretic but is not the classic primary agent for rapid ICP reduction. Paracetamol treats pain/fever, and heparin is an anticoagulant that does not reduce brain swelling.

Question 42

Which drug type increases risk of peptic ulcer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAIDs increase peptic ulcer risk by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX), which decreases protective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa. Lower prostaglandins reduce mucus and bicarbonate secretion and impair mucosal blood flow, making the stomach/duodenum more susceptible to acid injury and bleeding. Antibiotics and vitamins are not typical causes of peptic ulcer formation, and antacids are used to relieve acid-related symptoms rather than cause ulcers.

Question 43

Which drug is preferably administered immediately after childbirth to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is the first-line uterotonic given immediately after delivery to promote uterine contraction and uterine involution, thereby reducing uterine atony—the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Active management of the third stage of labor includes prophylactic oxytocin to decrease blood loss. Morphine and diazepam do not prevent hemorrhage and can cause maternal/infant sedation, and insulin is unrelated to uterine tone or postpartum bleeding prevention.

Question 44

Which of the following is an example of Antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for serious gram-negative infections. Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used for skin/soft-tissue and some respiratory/urinary infections. Ketorolac is an NSAID analgesic (pain/inflammation) and is not an antibiotic. Therefore the correct choice is the option that includes both amikacin and cephalexin.

Question 45

Which of the following is useful in treating sinus bradycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is a muscarinic (M2) antagonist that blocks vagal effects on the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus node firing and AV conduction, making it first-line for symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Neostigmine increases acetylcholine and can worsen bradycardia unless paired with an antimuscarinic. Cisatracurium and succinylcholine are neuromuscular blockers and do not treat bradycardia; succinylcholine can even precipitate bradycardia, especially with repeat dosing.

Question 46

Dextop (Dexlansoprazole) capsule is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dexlansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that suppresses gastric acid secretion. It is used for acid-peptic disorders such as GERD/erosive esophagitis and as part of management for peptic ulcer disease. Among the options given, peptic ulcer is the correct indication, whereas epilepsy, bronchitis, and angina are unrelated to acid suppression therapy.

Question 47

All of the following medicine is used for H_pylori except ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard Helicobacter pylori eradication regimens use combinations of antibiotics such as amoxicillin and clarithromycin, and may include nitroimidazoles like tinidazole (or metronidazole), along with acid suppression and sometimes bismuth. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent primarily used for Candida and other fungal infections, not for H. pylori (a bacterium). Therefore, fluconazole is the exception.

Question 48

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard first-line eradication regimens for H. pylori classically include clarithromycin-based triple therapy (PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin or metronidazole) when local clarithromycin resistance is low and there is no prior macrolide exposure. The other listed options describe alternative components or salvage regimens rather than the traditional “drug of choice” framing. Levofloxacin-based therapy is typically reserved for rescue/salvage in many guidelines. Amoxicillin is part of triple therapy but the defining, named regimen is clarithromycin-based.

Question 49

Senexon tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Senexon is a brand commonly containing sennosides (senna), a stimulant laxative. Stimulant laxatives increase intestinal motility and promote bowel evacuation, so they are indicated for constipation. It is not used to treat diarrhea or dyspepsia, and cyanosis is a clinical sign rather than an indication for a laxative.

Question 50

What is the primary use of noradrenaline injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) is a first-line vasopressor for severe hypotension and septic shock because it increases systemic vascular resistance via strong alpha-1 adrenergic activity, raising mean arterial pressure. It may also increase contractility via beta-1 effects, supporting cardiac output. During CPR, epinephrine is the standard vasopressor; norepinephrine is not routinely recommended as the primary drug in cardiac arrest algorithms. Therefore, treating life-threatening hypotension is the best choice.

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