Pharmacology Practice Test 31
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 31st part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacology Practice Test 31
Ziprasidone capsule is typically used as ?
- Antipsychotic
- Antiacid
- Antihistamine
- Antiviral
Explanation: Answer reason: Ziprasidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic medication used primarily for schizophrenia and for acute mania/mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. Its therapeutic effect is mainly through dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism. It is not an antacid, antihistamine, or antiviral, and it carries important safety considerations such as QT-interval prolongation risk.
Atropine sulphate injection?
- Used in bradycardia.ONES
- Used during surgery.
- Used to decrease mucus secretion.
Explanation: Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic (parasympatholytic) drug that blocks vagal effects on the SA/AV nodes, increasing heart rate and improving conduction, so it is classically used for symptomatic bradycardia. It is also used perioperatively to reduce secretions and treat vagal bradycardia, but the most direct, primary therapeutic indication among the listed options is bradycardia. Therefore option A is the best answer.
Tranexamic acid injection is used to treat ?
- Bronchitis
- Asthma
- Bleeding
- Angina
Explanation: Answer reason: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic that inhibits plasminogen activation, helping stabilize formed clots and reduce ongoing bleeding. It is used for conditions such as heavy menstrual bleeding, trauma-related hemorrhage, and perioperative bleeding. It does not treat airway inflammation/bronchospasm (bronchitis, asthma) or myocardial ischemia (angina).
Drug of Choice for sore throat is ?
- Metformin
- Amoxicillin
- Lamictal
- Senexon
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the listed choices, amoxicillin is the only medication used to treat a common medical cause of sore throat—bacterial pharyngitis (e.g., Group A streptococcal infection). Metformin is an antidiabetic drug, lamotrigine (Lamictal) is an anticonvulsant/mood stabilizer, and senna (Senexon) is a stimulant laxative, none of which treat infectious pharyngitis. While many sore throats are viral and managed symptomatically, when an antibiotic is indicated for streptococcal pharyngitis, amoxicillin is an appropriate first-line option.
Lamotrigine is used for?
- Depression
- Hypertension
- Epilepsy
- Eczema
Explanation: Answer reason: Lamotrigine is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure disorders (e.g., focal seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures) and is also used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder. Among the listed options, epilepsy is the correct indicated use. It is not a treatment for hypertension or eczema, and it is not primarily indicated for unipolar depression. Therefore, the best answer is epilepsy.
Salbutamol, is primarily used for ...?
- Flu
- Cough
- Asthma
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to rapidly relieve bronchospasm. It is primarily used as a rescue medication for acute asthma symptoms and reversible airway obstruction. It is not a primary treatment for viral flu, fever, or nonspecific cough without bronchospasm. Therefore, "Asthma" is the best answer.
Tenofovir is used for ...?
- Hepatitis
- Diarrhea
- Malaria
- Diabetes
Explanation: Answer reason: Tenofovir (tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor used as antiviral therapy for chronic hepatitis B and for HIV treatment/pre-exposure prophylaxis. Among the options, only hepatitis represents an approved therapeutic use. Diarrhea is more consistent with a potential adverse effect, not an indication. Malaria and diabetes are unrelated to tenofovir’s antiviral mechanism and clinical indications.
Which of the following is NOT an antiretroviral drug class?
- NRTIs
- NNRTIs
- Protease inhibitors
- Beta-blockers
Explanation: Answer reason: Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV includes drug classes such as NRTIs, NNRTIs, and protease inhibitors, which directly inhibit viral replication steps. Beta-blockers are cardiovascular medications that reduce heart rate and blood pressure by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. They have no role as an antiretroviral drug class, making them the correct choice.
The drug commonly used in chloroquine-resistant malaria is?
- Quinine
- Tetracycline
- Penicillin
- Rifampicin
Explanation: Answer reason: Chloroquine-resistant (typically P. falciparum) malaria is treated with non-chloroquine antimalarials; quinine is a classic and commonly used option, often combined with an antibiotic to improve efficacy and reduce resistance. Tetracycline can be used only as an adjunct with quinine, not typically as monotherapy. Penicillin and rifampicin are antibacterial/antitubercular agents and are not standard treatments for malaria.
What is the main action of beta blockers?
- Decrease heart rate
- Increase heart rate
- Increase blood sugar
- Increase BP
Explanation: Answer reason: Beta blockers antagonize beta-adrenergic receptors (especially β1 in the heart), leading to negative chronotropic effects and a decreased heart rate. They also reduce myocardial contractility and suppress renin release, which contributes to lower blood pressure and reduced myocardial oxygen demand. Therefore, the primary action among the options is decreasing heart rate, not increasing HR, blood sugar, or BP.
Antidote for paracetamol toxicity is ...?
- Atropine
- Acetylcysteine
- Deferoxamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose depletes hepatic glutathione, allowing accumulation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI that causes liver injury. N-acetylcysteine (acetylcysteine) is the specific antidote because it replenishes glutathione stores and enhances non-toxic metabolism of NAPQI. Atropine is used for organophosphate poisoning/bradycardia, and deferoxamine is an iron chelator for iron toxicity, so they are not appropriate here.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce?
- Pain and fever
- Appetite
- Sleep
- Digestion
Explanation: Answer reason: NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX-1/COX-2), decreasing prostaglandin synthesis. Lower prostaglandins reduce peripheral sensitization and inflammation, producing analgesic effects, and they also lower the hypothalamic set point to reduce fever (antipyresis). They do not therapeutically reduce appetite, sleep, or digestion; in fact, they may cause GI irritation rather than improve digestion.
Clarithromycin tablets is used for?
- Diarrhea
- H pylori
- Syphilis
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used as part of combination therapy for Helicobacter pylori eradication (e.g., with a proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin or metronidazole). It is not a primary treatment for nonspecific diarrhea, and syphilis is treated first-line with penicillin. Malaria is treated with antimalarial agents (e.g., artemisinin-based combinations), not clarithromycin.
Which drug helps prevent stroke in heart patients?
- Aspirin
- Paracetamol
- Dextromethorphan
- Ranitidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Aspirin helps prevent ischemic stroke in many cardiac patients because it irreversibly inhibits platelet COX-1, reducing thromboxane A2–mediated platelet aggregation and arterial thrombosis risk. This antiplatelet effect is beneficial for secondary prevention in atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and post–myocardial infarction settings. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic without meaningful antiplatelet benefit, dextromethorphan is an antitussive, and ranitidine is an H2 blocker—none prevent thrombotic stroke.
The medicine used to lower blood pressure is called?
- Antihypertensive
- Antidiabetic
- Antipyretic
- Antibiotic
Explanation: Answer reason: Medications intended to lower elevated blood pressure are termed antihypertensives and include classes such as ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers, diuretics, and beta-blockers. Antidiabetics target blood glucose control, not blood pressure. Antipyretics reduce fever, and antibiotics treat bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct term for a BP-lowering medication is antihypertensive.
Lithium is primarily used for?
- Schizophrenia
- Bipolar disorder
- Depression
- Anxiety
Explanation: Answer reason: Lithium is a mood stabilizer used as a first-line medication for bipolar disorder, particularly for acute mania and long-term maintenance to prevent relapse. It reduces manic symptoms and helps stabilize mood fluctuations over time. Schizophrenia is primarily treated with antipsychotics, anxiety with anxiolytics/SSRIs, and depression mainly with antidepressants (with lithium only sometimes used as augmentation, not primary therapy).
Haloperidol injection is used for which of the following Disorder?
- Blood
- Lungs
- Heart
- Mental
Explanation: Answer reason: Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that blocks dopamine D2 receptors and is primarily used to treat psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and acute agitation/psychosis. The injectable form is commonly used for rapid control of severe agitation, delirium-related agitation, or psychotic episodes. It is not a treatment for primary blood, lung, or heart disorders, though it has important cardiac adverse effects (e.g., QT prolongation) that require monitoring.
Drug of choice in hypovolemic shock?
- Atropine
- Naloxone
- Dopamine
- Lasix
Explanation: Answer reason: In hypovolemic shock, first-line management is rapid volume replacement with isotonic crystalloids and blood products as indicated; vasopressors are considered only after adequate fluid resuscitation if hypotension persists. Among the listed options, dopamine is the only agent that can provide vasoactive support (inotropy/vasoconstriction) to improve perfusion in refractory shock. Atropine is for symptomatic bradycardia, naloxone reverses opioid toxicity, and furosemide (Lasix) would worsen hypovolemia by promoting diuresis. Therefore, the best answer from the given choices is dopamine.
Which of the following is most appropriate for the treatment of neuropathic pain?
- Ibuprofen
- Amitriptyline
- Acetaminophen
- Tramadol
Explanation: Answer reason: Neuropathic pain typically responds best to adjuvant analgesics such as tricyclic antidepressants, SNRIs, and gabapentinoids rather than simple analgesics. Amitriptyline (a TCA) modulates descending inhibitory pathways by increasing serotonin and norepinephrine activity and is commonly used as a first-line option for many neuropathic pain syndromes. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen are more effective for nociceptive/inflammatory pain and are usually inadequate alone for neuropathic pain. Tramadol may provide some benefit but is generally not first-line due to opioid-related risks and dependence potential.
Diazepam is used as the ...?
- Sedative
- Antibiotics
- Antiseptic
- Antacid
Explanation: Answer reason: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA in the central nervous system, producing anxiolytic, sedative-hypnotic, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant effects. It is commonly used for acute anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, procedural sedation, and status epilepticus. It is not an antibiotic, antiseptic, or antacid, which are different drug classes with different indications.
The antimalarial drug prophylaxis commonly used is?
- Chloroquine
- Aspirin
- Rifampicin
- Metronidazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the options, chloroquine is an established antimalarial agent historically used for chemoprophylaxis in areas with chloroquine-sensitive Plasmodium species. Aspirin is an analgesic/antiplatelet drug and does not prevent malaria. Rifampicin is primarily an anti-tubercular antibiotic, and metronidazole treats anaerobic/protozoal infections but is not used for malaria prophylaxis. Therefore, chloroquine is the single best answer from the listed choices.
Salbutamol is used to treat?
- Fever
- Asthma
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing bronchodilation. It is used for rapid relief of bronchospasm in asthma and other reversible obstructive airway conditions. It does not treat fever (antipyretics do) and has no role in treating malaria (antimalarial agents are required).
The normal osmolarity of WHO recommended ORS (new formula) is?
- 245 mOsm/L
- 311 mOsm/L
- 500 mOsm/L
- 100 mOsm/L
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO’s reduced-osmolarity ("new formula") oral rehydration solution is designed to improve water absorption and reduce stool output and vomiting compared with the older higher-osmolarity ORS. The standard reduced-osmolarity ORS has a total osmolarity of about 245 mOsm/L. The older formulation was approximately 311 mOsm/L, which corresponds to option B and is not the current WHO recommendation.
Route of administration of Rota vaccine?
- Oral
- IM
- IV
- Subcutaneous
Explanation: Answer reason: Rotavirus (Rota) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine administered by the oral route to induce mucosal immunity in the gastrointestinal tract, where rotavirus causes disease. It is not given intramuscularly, intravenously, or subcutaneously. Knowing the correct route is essential because administering it by injection would be inappropriate and would not follow vaccine guidelines.
Most important comportant of oral contraceptive agent is?
- Thyroxine
- LH
- Progesterone
- GH
Explanation: Answer reason: The key active hormonal component responsible for the contraceptive effect in oral contraceptives is a progestin (progesterone-like hormone). Progestins primarily prevent pregnancy by suppressing the LH surge to inhibit ovulation and by thickening cervical mucus, making sperm penetration difficult; they also alter the endometrium. Thyroxine and growth hormone are unrelated to contraception, and LH is a pituitary gonadotropin that is suppressed rather than administered as the main contraceptive agent.
A drug addict patient presented with agitation and ulceration on skin. The patient had severe itching and scratch marks on the body. On examination there is presence of tachycardia, mydriasis and hypertension. Likely substance responsible for these symptoms is?
- Cocaine
- Cannabis
- LSD
- Heroin
Explanation: Answer reason: The triad of tachycardia, mydriasis, and hypertension with agitation is classic for sympathomimetic stimulant intoxication. Cocaine increases synaptic norepinephrine/dopamine by blocking reuptake, producing marked autonomic hyperactivity. Pruritus with excoriations/ulcerations can occur in stimulant users due to formication and compulsive scratching. Heroin typically causes miosis and respiratory/CNS depression, while cannabis and LSD do not usually produce prominent hypertension with this sympathomimetic pattern.
Which drug reduces preload and afterload in heart failure?
- Nitroglycerin
- Paracetamol
- Omeprazole
- Diclofenac
Explanation: Answer reason: Nitroglycerin is a nitrate that primarily causes venodilation, reducing venous return to the heart and thereby decreasing preload. At higher doses it also produces arterial dilation, which lowers systemic vascular resistance and decreases afterload. This combined reduction in preload and afterload can improve symptoms of congestion and reduce myocardial oxygen demand in heart failure. The other options (paracetamol, omeprazole, diclofenac) do not act as hemodynamic vasodilators to reduce preload/afterload.
What is the normal INR for patients on warfarin therapy?
- 1.0–1.5
- 1.5–2.0
- 2.0–3.0
- 3.5–4.5
Explanation: Answer reason: For most common indications treated with warfarin (e.g., atrial fibrillation, DVT/PE), the therapeutic target INR is 2.0–3.0. Values below this range increase thromboembolic risk, while values above it increase bleeding risk. Higher targets (e.g., 2.5–3.5) may be used for certain mechanical heart valves, but that is not listed here. Therefore, 2.0–3.0 is the best answer among the options.
Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
- Piroxicam
- Celecoxib
- Ibuprofen
- Aspirin
Explanation: Answer reason: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor (a “coxib”), designed to reduce prostaglandin synthesis via COX-2 while relatively sparing COX-1. This selectivity generally lowers the risk of GI mucosal injury compared with nonselective NSAIDs. Piroxicam and ibuprofen are nonselective COX inhibitors, and aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 (not COX-2 selective).
Site for rabies vaccine intradermal injection is usually?
- Thigh
- Abdomen
- Upper arm (deltoid region)
- Scapular region
Explanation: Answer reason: Intradermal rabies vaccination is typically administered in the deltoid area of the upper arm because it provides consistent dermal thickness and reliable immunogenicity. The gluteal region is avoided and the thigh is more commonly used for intramuscular injections in small children, not routine intradermal dosing. The abdomen and scapular region are not standard recommended sites for intradermal rabies vaccine administration.
Amoxicillin is use for ...?
- Bacterial infection.
- Stomach
- Skin infection
- Meningitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Amoxicillin is an aminopenicillin antibiotic used to treat infections caused by susceptible bacteria (e.g., certain respiratory, ear, urinary, and skin pathogens). It works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, so its clinical indication is bacterial infection rather than nonspecific “stomach” conditions. While some cases of meningitis can be bacterial, amoxicillin is not a standard empiric choice for meningitis due to resistance and CSF penetration considerations. Therefore, the best general answer is bacterial infection.
Metformin is used in the treatment of ...?
- Diabetes
- Fever
- Acidity
- Tetany
Explanation: Answer reason: Metformin is an oral antihyperglycemic medication used primarily for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It lowers blood glucose mainly by decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving peripheral insulin sensitivity. It is not a treatment for fever (antipyretics), acidity (antacids/PPIs), or tetany (often related to hypocalcemia requiring calcium replacement).
The study of drugs obtained from natural sources is?
- Pharmacognosy
- Pharmacology
- Pathology
- Physiology
Explanation: Answer reason: Pharmacognosy is the branch of pharmaceutical science that specifically studies drugs and medicinal substances derived from natural sources such as plants, animals, and minerals. Pharmacology is broader and focuses on drug actions, mechanisms, therapeutic uses, and adverse effects regardless of origin. Pathology studies disease processes, and physiology studies normal body function, so neither fits the stem.
Administration of drug into the spinal cavity is termed as route?
- Intraarticular
- Intra medullary
- Intra osseous
- Intrathecal
Explanation: Answer reason: Administration of a drug into the spinal (subarachnoid) space containing cerebrospinal fluid is called the intrathecal route. This route is used for spinal anesthesia and for certain medications (e.g., some analgesics, antibiotics, or chemotherapy) that need direct CSF access. Intraarticular is into a joint, intraosseous is into bone marrow, and intramedullary typically refers to within the medullary cavity (e.g., bone) rather than the spinal CSF space.
Which of the following is commonly associated with discoloration of the tongue as a side effect?
- Amoxicillin
- Omeprazole
- Bismuth subsalicylate
- Lubiprostone
Explanation: Answer reason: Bismuth subsalicylate commonly causes dark discoloration of the tongue (and stools) due to formation of bismuth sulfide when bismuth interacts with sulfur in saliva and the GI tract. This effect is benign, dose-related, and reversible after stopping the medication. The other listed medications are not classically associated with a predictable black tongue discoloration as a common adverse effect.
Dose of the T.T Injection?
- 1.5 ml
- 2.0 ml
- 2.5 ml
- 0.5 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: T.T injection refers to tetanus toxoid vaccination, which is administered as a standard intramuscular dose of 0.5 mL in routine immunization schedules. This fixed-volume dosing is consistent across common TT/Td/Tdap toxoid-containing vaccines for adolescents and adults. The larger volumes listed (1.5–2.5 mL) are not used for tetanus toxoid immunization and would risk improper dosing and increased adverse effects.
Imodium tablets is used for?
- Headache
- Leukorrhea
- Anesthesia
- Diarrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: Imodium contains loperamide, an antidiarrheal opioid-receptor agonist that acts primarily on the intestinal wall to reduce gut motility and increase fluid absorption. This decreases stool frequency and improves stool consistency in acute non-infectious diarrhea and some chronic diarrhea conditions. It is not used to treat headache, leukorrhea, or provide anesthesia.
What is a common term for diuretics?
- Blood thinners
- Water pill
- Muscle relaxants
- Antibiotics
Explanation: Answer reason: Diuretics increase urine output by promoting renal excretion of sodium and water, so they are commonly referred to as “water pills.” Blood thinners are anticoagulants/antiplatelets, which reduce clotting rather than increase urination. Muscle relaxants act on skeletal muscle tone, and antibiotics treat infections—neither is a diuretic effect. Category reason: This question tests medication terminology and the common name for a drug class (diuretics), which is core Pharmacology rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
Which drug is used in schizophrenia?
- Chlorpromazine
- Diazepam
- Paracetamol
- Aspirin
Explanation: Answer reason: Schizophrenia is primarily treated with antipsychotic medications that reduce dopaminergic activity to control positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic historically used for schizophrenia. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine for anxiety/seizures, while paracetamol and aspirin are analgesic/antipyretic agents and do not treat psychosis.
Ciprofloxacin tablets is ?
- Antibiotic
- Antiacid
- Anti viral
- Anti fungal
Explanation: Answer reason: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibacterial medication used to treat susceptible bacterial infections (e.g., certain UTIs, gastrointestinal and respiratory infections). It works by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing bacterial DNA replication. It is not an antacid and has no activity against viruses or fungi, so those options are incorrect.
Ditropan tablets is used for the treatment of?
- Typhoid
- Cancer
- Overactive bladder
- Premature Ejaculation
Explanation: Answer reason: Ditropan is oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) medication that decreases involuntary detrusor muscle contractions. This reduces urinary urgency, frequency, and urge incontinence, which are hallmark symptoms of overactive bladder. It is not an antimicrobial for typhoid, not an anticancer drug, and it is not a standard therapy for premature ejaculation.
Route of administration of Rota vaccine ...?
- Oral
- IV
- IM
- Subcutaneous
Explanation: Answer reason: Rotavirus vaccines (e.g., Rotarix, RotaTeq) are live attenuated vaccines administered by mouth as oral drops. They are not given by injection (IM or subcutaneous) and are never administered intravenously. The oral route targets mucosal immunity in the gastrointestinal tract where rotavirus infection occurs.
Which of the following is Antidote of Warfarin?
- Protamine sulfate
- Glucagon
- N-acetylcysteine
- Vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, decreasing activation of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). Administering vitamin K (phytonadione) replenishes vitamin K and reverses warfarin’s anticoagulant effect over hours. Protamine sulfate reverses heparin, glucagon is used for beta-blocker toxicity/hypoglycemia support, and N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity.
Which drug is used as a tocolytic in preterm labour?
- Oxytocin
- Nifedipine
- Methylergometrine
- Prostaglandin
Explanation: Answer reason: Tocolytics suppress uterine contractions to delay preterm birth, and nifedipine (a calcium channel blocker) relaxes uterine smooth muscle by reducing calcium influx. Oxytocin and prostaglandins are uterotonics used to induce or augment labor, not stop it. Methylergometrine is an ergot alkaloid used for postpartum hemorrhage by increasing uterine tone, so it would worsen contractions rather than inhibit them.
Gabapentin tablets is used for ?
- Meningitis
- Seizure
- Dyspepsia
- Dysentery
Explanation: Answer reason: Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication used as adjunctive therapy for partial (focal) seizures and is also widely used for neuropathic pain. It is not a treatment for infections such as meningitis, nor for gastrointestinal conditions like dyspepsia or dysentery. Therefore, among the listed options, the correct indication is seizure control.
Aminocaproic acid injection is used to control?
- Vomiting
- Bleeding
- Contraction
- Blood pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic medication that inhibits plasminogen activation and plasmin activity, thereby preventing breakdown of fibrin clots. It is used to control bleeding associated with hyperfibrinolysis (e.g., certain surgical or hematologic bleeding states). It does not treat vomiting, uterine contractions, or blood pressure abnormalities. Therefore, the correct choice is bleeding.
Which of the following medicine is used to improve breast milk supply?
- Domperidone
- Imodium
- Omeprazole
- Diazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Domperidone is a dopamine D2-receptor antagonist that increases prolactin secretion, which can enhance lactation and is used as a galactagogue in some settings. Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal with no lactation-promoting effect. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor for acid suppression, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine; neither is used to increase breast milk supply and both may pose risks in breastfeeding depending on context.
The punch and die are used in which process?
- Encapsulation
- Tablet compression
- Coating
- Milling
Explanation: Answer reason: Punches and dies are the key tooling components of a tablet press used to compress granules or powder into a solid tablet of a defined shape and imprint. During tablet compression, the upper and lower punches move within the die cavity to apply force and form the tablet. Encapsulation uses capsule shells and filling mechanisms rather than punch-die tooling. Coating and milling are separate unit operations and do not use punches and dies as the primary equipment.
Adrenaline is?
- Neurotransmitter
- Hormone
- Drug
- All of these
Explanation: Answer reason: Adrenaline (epinephrine) functions as a neurotransmitter/neuromodulator in the sympathetic nervous system and as a hormone when released into the bloodstream from the adrenal medulla. It is also used clinically as a drug (e.g., for anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe bronchospasm) administered by injection or infusion. Therefore, it fits all listed roles.
Which medication is used in asthma attacks?
- Salbutamol
- Metformin
- Furosemide
- Lisinopril
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as a rescue inhaler for acute asthma exacerbations because it rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and relieves bronchospasm. Metformin treats type 2 diabetes, furosemide is a loop diuretic for fluid overload/edema, and lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension/heart failure. Therefore, salbutamol is the appropriate medication for asthma attacks.
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