Question 1

Which of the following is a diuretic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing urine output. It is used to treat edema and hypertension. Insulin is an antidiabetic hormone, diazepam is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic, and loratadine is an antihistamine—none are diuretics.

Question 2

Which drug prevents blood clots?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 in platelets, decreasing thromboxane A2 formation. This impairs platelet aggregation and helps prevent arterial thrombosis and clot formation. Vitamin C is a nutrient, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic without antiplatelet effect, and ranitidine is an H2 blocker for gastric acid.

Question 3

Citrizine Dihydrochloride is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine dihydrochloride is a second-generation H1 antihistamine. It is indicated for relief of allergic symptoms such as sneezing, rhinorrhea, itchy/watery eyes, and urticaria. It does not treat pain, fever, or vomiting, which require different drug classes.

Question 4

Allopurinol and colchicine are used in the treatment of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase to reduce uric acid production, a key therapy for chronic gout. Colchicine inhibits microtubule-mediated neutrophil activity, treating and preventing acute gout flares. These agents are not treatments for constipation, angina, or epilepsy.

Question 5

Heparin is a form of ___?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that potentiates antithrombin III, thereby inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa to prevent fibrin clot formation. It is used for prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism and during procedures requiring anticoagulation. It is not an analgesic, antibiotic, or related to abortion care.

Question 6

Adipex tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adipex-P is a brand name for phentermine, a sympathomimetic appetite suppressant. It is indicated as a short-term adjunct to diet and exercise for weight reduction in patients with exogenous obesity. It is not used to treat seizures, malaria, or psoriasis.

Question 7

Expired drugs causes damage to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Expired medications can degrade into toxic metabolites that increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. A classic example is outdated tetracyclines causing proximal tubular injury and Fanconi-like syndrome. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable because they concentrate and excrete many drugs and their breakdown products. Hence, kidney damage is the most recognized risk of taking expired drugs.

Question 8

Nefopam tablets is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nefopam is a centrally acting non‑opioid analgesic used for relief of moderate pain, often in acute or postoperative settings. It works primarily by inhibiting reuptake of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, reducing pain transmission. It is not used to treat allergies, typhoid infection, or epilepsy, which require different drug classes.

Question 9

Drug of choice for treatment of toxoplasmosis in pregnant lady is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In pregnancy, spiramycin is preferred for acute maternal toxoplasmosis to reduce transplacental transmission because it concentrates in the placenta and is safer in early gestation. Pyrimethamine is teratogenic and generally avoided in the first trimester, used later only with sulfadiazine and folinic acid if fetal infection is confirmed. Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy, and penicillin is ineffective against Toxoplasma gondii.

Question 10

Which antifungal medication is usually prescribed for vaginal yeast infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vulvovaginal candidiasis is most commonly caused by Candida albicans, and first-line therapy includes a single oral dose of the azole antifungal fluconazole or topical azoles. Acyclovir is an antiviral used for herpes simplex, not fungal infections. Isoniazid treats Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and oseltamivir is an antiviral for influenza. Therefore, fluconazole is the appropriate antifungal choice.

Question 11

Epival tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epival is divalproex sodium, which is a valproate antiepileptic. It is indicated for treatment of various seizure types and for prevention of migraine and management of bipolar mania. It is not a therapy for stroke, hemorrhoids, or pneumonia.

Question 12

A 3-year-old child presented with accidental ingestion of a drug of his grandparent who was taking treatments for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Child’s BP was 80/40 mmHg, PR was 170 bpm. Serum electrolytes were normal. What is the probable drug he has ingested?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, causes peripheral vasodilation leading to marked hypotension with reflex sinus tachycardia—consistent with BP 80/40 mmHg and PR 170 bpm. Verapamil and beta-blockers typically produce bradycardia and AV block rather than tachycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradyarrhythmias and may show hyperkalemia in acute overdose. Frusemide would more likely cause volume depletion or electrolyte abnormalities, not acute reflex tachycardia with normal electrolytes.

Question 13

Which antihypertensive is commonly used in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methyldopa has long safety data in pregnancy and is commonly used for chronic hypertension. In contrast, ACE inhibitors such as ramipril, lisinopril, and enalapril are contraindicated due to fetotoxic effects including renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, and skull abnormalities. Therefore, methyldopa is the best choice among the listed options.

Question 14

Loperamide is used against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal that acts as a peripheral mu-opioid receptor agonist in the gut, slowing intestinal motility and increasing absorption of fluids and electrolytes. It is indicated for acute, noninvasive diarrhea. It does not treat allergic reactions, vomiting, or fever. Use is avoided in dysentery or suspected invasive bacterial diarrhea with high fever or blood in stool.

Question 15

Antipyretic drugs reduce?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antipyretics lower an elevated body temperature by reducing prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamus, thereby lowering the thermoregulatory set point. Examples include acetaminophen and NSAIDs. While many antipyretics also have analgesic effects, their defining action is reduction of fever, not blood pressure or blood glucose.

Question 16

A drug used to reduce fever is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antipyretics reduce fever by lowering the hypothalamic temperature set point, commonly through inhibition of prostaglandin E2 synthesis (e.g., acetaminophen, NSAIDs). Analgesics primarily relieve pain, antiseptics prevent or stop microbial growth on tissues, and antacids neutralize gastric acid. Therefore, the correct term for a fever-reducing drug is antipyretic.

Question 17

The drug most widely tried against AIDS virus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zidovudine (AZT, azidothymidine) was the first antiretroviral widely used against HIV and is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that blocks viral DNA synthesis. Miconazole is an antifungal, not active against HIV. Nonoxynol is a spermicide used for contraception. Virazole (ribavirin) has activity against some RNA viruses but is not effective therapy for HIV.

Question 18

Folic Acid is usually prescribed for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Folic acid is routinely recommended before conception and during early pregnancy to support DNA synthesis and red blood cell production and to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus. Requirements increase during pregnancy, so supplementation of 400–800 mcg daily is advised. While folate may be used in other populations, the standard prophylactic use is for pregnant individuals.

Question 19

Which drug helps to slow the heart rate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker that reduces sympathetic stimulation of the SA and AV nodes, decreasing heart rate and myocardial contractility. Adrenaline and epinephrine (same drug) are catecholamines that typically increase heart rate via beta-1 stimulation. Dopamine also increases heart rate at moderate to high doses. Therefore, atenolol is the agent that slows heart rate.

Question 20

Mebeverine tablets is used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mebeverine is a musculotropic antispasmodic that directly relaxes gastrointestinal smooth muscle, reducing spasms and cramping, commonly used in irritable bowel syndrome. It has minimal anticholinergic effects compared with classic antispasmodics. It is not an antihistamine, antacid, or antimalarial.

Question 21

Oral pills mainly contain _____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combined oral contraceptive pills typically contain an estrogen (e.g., ethinyl estradiol) and a progestin. These hormones suppress ovulation via negative feedback on the hypothalamic–pituitary–ovarian axis and thicken cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. Testosterone, insulin, and cortisol are not components of standard oral contraceptives.

Question 22

Which medication is a bronchodilator and anticholinergic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ipratropium is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist that produces bronchodilation by blocking M3 receptors in airway smooth muscle, making it an anticholinergic bronchodilator. Salbutamol is a beta-2 agonist bronchodilator, not anticholinergic. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, and diphenhydramine is an antihistamine.

Question 23

Klaricid injection is used for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Klaricid (clarithromycin) is a macrolide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. It is indicated for treating bacterial infections such as respiratory and skin/soft tissue infections. It has no activity against viruses and is not an antifungal agent.

Question 24

In following which drug control the progress of AIDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zidovudine (AZT) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that blocks HIV reverse transcriptase, reducing viral replication, raising CD4 counts, and slowing disease progression when used as part of combination antiretroviral therapy. Ampicillin and streptomycin are antibacterial agents and have no activity against HIV. Dexona (dexamethasone) is a corticosteroid, not an antiretroviral.

Question 25

Frusemide drug used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Frusemide (furosemide) is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, causing potent diuresis. It is used to reduce edema in heart failure, renal disease, and to manage hypertension. It has no antimicrobial or analgesic properties, so options A and C are incorrect.

Question 26

Line down the middle of a tablet is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The groove on many tablets is a recessed (debossed) score that facilitates splitting the tablet into equal doses. While commonly referred to as a score or scoring line, it is technically a debossed feature created during tablet compression. This marking guides accurate division; however, not all tablets are intended to be split (e.g., many extended-release forms).

Question 27

Which medicine is commonly used to reduce high blood sugar?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is the first-line oral antihyperglycemic for type 2 diabetes; it lowers hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity, reducing fasting and postprandial glucose. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and angina, not hyperglycemia. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and diclofenac is an NSAID. Thus, metformin is the correct choice to reduce high blood sugar.

Question 28

Metformin is prescribed for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metformin is a first-line oral biguanide for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity, lowering blood glucose without causing weight gain or hypoglycemia. It is not used to treat fever, common cold, or epilepsy.

Question 29

Diazepam is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A receptor activity, producing anxiolytic, sedative, and muscle-relaxant effects. It is indicated for acute anxiety states, muscle spasms, seizures, and alcohol withdrawal. It is not used to treat fever, cough, or common cold.

Question 30

Headache is treated by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A headache is a pain symptom, and the primary drug class for treating pain is analgesics (e.g., acetaminophen, NSAIDs). Antipyretics primarily reduce fever, antacids neutralize gastric acid, and antibiotics treat bacterial infections. Therefore, analgesics are the appropriate treatment class for headache.

Question 31

Meloxicam tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meloxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with preferential COX-2 inhibition that reduces prostaglandin synthesis. It is indicated for analgesia and anti-inflammatory effects in conditions like osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. It is not an antiemetic and does not treat asthma or cough; in fact, NSAIDs can exacerbate asthma in sensitive patients.

Question 32

Yr-old female G2P1 at 27 weeks presents with post-coital spotting and vaginal discharge. There is cervix with mucopurulent cervical discharge. Chlamydia NAAT test is positive for Chlamydia. Which is the treatment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pregnant patients with confirmed Chlamydia trachomatis infection are treated with azithromycin 1 g PO as a single dose, which is safe and effective in pregnancy. Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy due to effects on fetal bones and teeth. Fluoroquinolones like levofloxacin are avoided in pregnancy, and penicillin/streptomycin are not effective for chlamydial infections. Partner treatment and test-of-cure are recommended but the best immediate therapy choice is azithromycin.

Question 33

Antibiotics are used to kill?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antibiotics are agents that target bacterial structures or processes such as cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, or DNA replication. Viruses lack these bacterial targets and replicate inside host cells using host machinery, so antibiotics are ineffective against them. Therefore, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not viral illnesses.

Question 34

Beta blockers are mainly used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Beta blockers reduce heart rate, myocardial contractility, and renin release by blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors, lowering blood pressure. They are first-line or adjunctive agents for hypertension and are also used in angina and certain arrhythmias. Fever and infection are not treated with beta blockers, and nonselective beta blockers can exacerbate asthma by causing bronchoconstriction.

Question 35

Opioid acts on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Opioids primarily act as agonists at μ (mu) opioid receptors, often written as 'U' in simple text. Activation of μ receptors produces analgesia and also effects such as euphoria, respiratory depression, miosis, and decreased gastrointestinal motility. Alpha and beta receptors are adrenergic, not opioid. Beta blockers are antagonists at beta-adrenergic receptors and are unrelated to opioid mechanisms.

Question 36

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding penicillin-binding proteins and blocking transpeptidation of peptidoglycan, leading to cell lysis. Erythromycin (a macrolide) inhibits protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit. Tetracycline inhibits the 30S subunit, and ciprofloxacin inhibits DNA gyrase/topoisomerase. Therefore, penicillin is the agent that targets cell wall synthesis.

Question 37

Ibuprofen act as a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis. This provides analgesic and antipyretic effects, making it a pain reliever. It has no antimicrobial activity, so it is not an antibiotic, antifungal, or antiviral.

Question 38

Topiramate tablet is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Topiramate is an anticonvulsant indicated for treatment of focal and generalized seizures in epilepsy. It works via multiple mechanisms, including voltage-gated sodium channel blockade, enhancement of GABA activity, and antagonism of glutamate receptors. It is also used for migraine prevention, but it is not used for constipation or cancer therapy.

Question 39

Mifepristone tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mifepristone is a progesterone-receptor antagonist that disrupts the maintenance of early pregnancy, leading to decidual breakdown and cervical softening. It is used with misoprostol for medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy, typically up to 70 days gestation. It is not indicated for diarrhea, hemorrhoids (piles), or meningitis.

Question 40

Tranexamic acid injection is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that inhibits the activation of plasminogen to plasmin, thereby preventing fibrin clot breakdown. This stabilizes formed clots and reduces hemorrhage. It is used for various bleeding indications such as traumatic bleeding and menorrhagia, not for bronchitis, asthma, or angina.

Question 41

Erythropoietin injection is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) is a recombinant hormone that stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow. It is used to treat anemia, particularly in chronic kidney disease, chemotherapy‑induced anemia, and certain HIV treatments. It does not treat vomiting, pain, or infections.

Question 42

Amantadine hydrochloride tablets is used for ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amantadine is an antiparkinsonian agent that increases dopamine release and blocks NMDA receptors, improving bradykinesia and rigidity in Parkinson's disease and drug‑induced extrapyramidal symptoms. It is not indicated for acromegaly, Addison's disease, or albuminuria. Historically it also had antiviral activity against influenza A, but its primary clinical use now is Parkinsonism.

Question 43

Which medicine is used for treatment of peptic ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that suppresses gastric acid secretion by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in gastric parietal cells, promoting healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers. PPIs are first-line therapy for peptic ulcer disease and are included in H. pylori eradication regimens. Lornoxicam is an NSAID that can worsen or cause ulcers, while Tandolax is a laxative and Gen_M is not a standard anti-ulcer agent.

Question 44

Duphalac syrup is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Duphalac contains lactulose, an osmotic disaccharide laxative. It draws water into the colon, softening stools and promoting peristalsis, making it indicated for the treatment of constipation. It is not used to treat infections such as malaria, pneumonia, or typhoid. Lactulose is also used to reduce ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy, but the primary use listed here is constipation.

Question 45

Drug use in Diabetes insipidus...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Desmopressin is a synthetic analog of vasopressin (ADH) that selectively activates V2 receptors in the kidney to increase water reabsorption, making it the treatment of choice for central diabetes insipidus. ACE inhibitors like captopril and calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine and verapamil treat hypertension, not DI. Desmopressin reduces polyuria and polydipsia by concentrating urine.

Question 46

Ciprofloxacin is not recommended in which group of patients?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin are generally avoided in children due to risk of cartilage toxicity and arthropathy observed in juvenile animals and reported in pediatric use. They may be used only when benefits clearly outweigh risks (e.g., serious infections without alternatives). In adults and the elderly, ciprofloxacin can be used with caution for tendinopathy, CNS effects, and QT issues. In diabetics, dysglycemia is a concern but not an absolute contraindication.

Question 47

Iodine is used as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Topical iodine (e.g., povidone-iodine) is a halogen antiseptic used for skin preparation and wound cleansing due to broad-spectrum activity against bacteria, viruses, and fungi. It is not an antacid and is not used systemically as an antibiotic. It also is not a laxative. Therefore, the correct classification is antiseptic.

Question 48

Which drug is used in angina pectoris?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nitroglycerin is the first-line medication for acute angina pectoris; it releases nitric oxide, causing venodilation and coronary vasodilation, which reduces preload and myocardial oxygen demand. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are analgesics with no role in treating ischemic chest pain. Metformin is an antidiabetic agent and not used for angina management.

Question 49

Bisacodyl is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that increases peristalsis by directly irritating the colonic mucosa and altering fluid and electrolyte transport. It is used for short‑term relief of constipation and for bowel preparation. It has no role in treating diabetes or cough.

Question 50

Which is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that blocks AT1 receptors, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone effects to lower blood pressure and protect kidneys. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, metoprolol is a beta-1 selective beta blocker, and digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. Therefore, only losartan is an ARB among the options.

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