Question 1

Which of the following statements concerning Dipyridamole is true?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dipyridamole inhibits adenosine reuptake and phosphodiesterase leading to vasodilation, can cause coronary steal with relative hypoperfusion distal to stenoses, and is used as an antiplatelet agent; therefore all statements are true.

Question 2

Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Potassium channel openers (e.g., diazoxide, minoxidil, nicorandil) open ATP-sensitive K+ channels, hyperpolarizing membranes and stabilizing them near resting potential, leading to vascular smooth muscle relaxation. Option A describes calcium channel blockers; B misattributes action to stimulation of nerve endings; C lists hemodynamic effects typical of beta-blockers/CCBs, not KCOs.

Question 3

All of the following statements regarding vasodilators are true EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, not a dopamine receptor antagonist. The other statements are true: hydralazine can cause reflex tachycardia, nitroprusside is a balanced arteriolar and venous dilator, and minoxidil can cause hypertrichosis.

Question 4

The reason of beta-blockers administration for hypertension treatment is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Beta-blockers lower blood pressure primarily by decreasing heart rate and contractility, reducing cardiac output (heart work). They do not mainly cause vasodilation, reduce blood volume, or depress the vasomotor center.

Question 5

Choose the group of antihypertensive drugs which diminishes the metabolism of bradykinin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ACE inhibitors block angiotensin-converting enzyme (kininase II), which degrades bradykinin; inhibition reduces bradykinin metabolism, increasing its levels. Other listed classes do not have this effect.

Question 6

The reason of diuretics administration for hypertension treatment is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diuretics lower blood pressure primarily by reducing intravascular volume and total body sodium, decreasing cardiac output and vascular reactivity. The other options describe mechanisms of other antihypertensive classes.

Question 7

MAT refers to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MAT stands for Medication-Assisted Treatment, which involves medications like buprenorphine/Suboxone to treat addiction.

Question 8

What is the primary use of Cefixime & Ofloxacin Tablets?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cefixime (a cephalosporin) and ofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) are antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections, not malaria or isolated fever.

Question 9

What is the primary action of paracetamol?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is primarily an analgesic and antipyretic; among the options, only antipyretic matches its main action. The others relate to cough suppression, asthma therapy, or antiemesis.

Question 10

Which part of the nephron does Lasix work on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Question 11

How do oral contraceptives primarily prevent pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combined oral contraceptives primarily prevent pregnancy by suppressing the LH surge and inhibiting ovulation; they do not destroy sperm or a zygote.

Question 12

What is the primary use of clotrimazole cream?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clotrimazole is an imidazole antifungal used topically to treat dermatophyte and Candida infections; other options are unrelated.

Question 13

What is the drug of choice for malaria in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mefloquine is recommended for malaria prophylaxis and treatment in pregnancy when chloroquine resistance is common; doxycycline is contraindicated and atovaquone-proguanil is not recommended in pregnancy. Chloroquine is used only where sensitivity exists.

Question 14

Mefenamic acid tablets belong to which of the following classes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mefenamic acid is a fenamate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), not a diuretic, cytotoxic agent, or coagulant.

Question 15

How often can cetirizine be taken in a day?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine with about a 24-hour duration of action; standard dosing is once daily.

Question 16

Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat erectile dysfunction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist producing vasoconstriction and is used for priapism and hypotension, not for treating erectile dysfunction. Alprostadil (a PGE1 analogue) and apomorphine have been used for ED.

Question 17

Oral contraceptive pills are given in which type of dose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral contraceptives are taken to prevent pregnancy, so their dosing is prophylactic (preventive) rather than therapeutic or titrated.

Question 18

What is the antidote for heparin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protamine sulfate binds and neutralizes heparin, reversing its anticoagulant effect. The other options are antidotes for different toxicities (anticholinergic, iron, and opioids).

Question 19

What is the primary use of this injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most common indicated use for an injection of this type is as an antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting; the other options refer to unrelated therapeutic categories.

Question 20

Red syndrome is a side effect of which drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Red man syndrome (flushing/erythema from histamine release, often with rapid infusion) is a classic adverse effect of vancomycin.

Question 21

What is the primary use of Ondansetron Injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, not for urinary infections or bleeding control.

Question 22

What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and detoxifies the toxic metabolite NAPQI in acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose.

Question 23

Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the management of status epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam, phenytoin, and anesthetic agents like thiopentone are used for acute status epilepticus. Carbamazepine is an oral maintenance drug for focal seizures and is not used to treat status epilepticus.

Question 24

Which of the following aminoglycoside drugs has the maximum potential for ototoxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among aminoglycosides, kanamycin has the highest risk of cochlear ototoxicity; gentamycin and streptomycin are more vestibulotoxic, and amikacin is less than kanamycin.

Question 25

Which of the following anticoagulants binds with calcium and prevents blood clotting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxalate chelates calcium, removing the Ca2+ required for coagulation. Heparin works via antithrombin, warfarin inhibits vitamin K–dependent factors, and protein is not an anticoagulant.

Question 26

Misoprostol is contraindicated in which type of patients?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Misoprostol (a PGE1 analog) stimulates uterine contractions and can cause miscarriage; thus it is contraindicated in pregnancy when used for gastric protection.

Question 27

What is the primary adverse effect to monitor for after a furosemide (Lasix) injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Furosemide commonly causes fluid-electrolyte shifts and GI upset such as nausea/vomiting; UTI or bleeding are not primary adverse effects of Lasix injection.

Question 28

Which drug is most likely causing excessive flatulence in a 48-year-old male who recently started a new agent for type 2 diabetes management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acarbose, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, delays carbohydrate absorption leading to fermentation by colonic bacteria and prominent flatulence. Other agents are less associated with flatulence (metformin more with diarrhea, sulfonylureas with hypoglycemia/weight gain, SGLT2 with GU infections, DPP-4 generally well tolerated).

Question 29

What is the primary action of the streptokinase injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic drug that acts on blood clots; among the given choices, the only option related to its therapeutic target is bleeding/clotting, making C the best match.

Question 30

What is the best prophylaxis for febrile seizures?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intermittent diazepam during febrile episodes is the preferred prophylaxis to reduce recurrence of febrile seizures; acetaminophen does not prevent seizures, and phenytoin/phenobarbital are not recommended due to limited efficacy and adverse effects.

Question 31

Which of the following drugs does NOT dilate bronchi during an acute asthmatic attack?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nedocromil is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically to prevent bronchospasm; it does not provide bronchodilation during an acute attack. The others are bronchodilators useful in acute asthma.

Question 32

Vancomycin is discovered as a substitute of which antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vancomycin was introduced in the 1950s as an alternative to penicillin, particularly for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infections.

Question 33

What is the primary action of the paracetamol injection described?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is primarily an antipyretic and analgesic; it reduces fever via central COX inhibition. It is not associated with causing vomiting, urinary infection, or bleeding as primary actions.

Question 34

What is the primary use of the snake venom antivenom injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Snake antivenom injections are used to neutralize venom after snakebite envenomation; the other options are unrelated to antivenom therapy.

Question 35

What is the primary action of metronidazole?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metronidazole has activity against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa (e.g., Trichomonas, Giardia, Entamoeba), so it is both an antibacterial and an antiprotozoal agent.

Question 36

Which type of Plasmodium is quinine used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Quinine is primarily used for severe or chloroquine‑resistant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

Question 37

What does PGE2 stand for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) is the pharmaceutical compound known as dinoprostone. It is used clinically for cervical ripening and induction of labor by promoting cervical softening and uterine contractions.

Question 38

Which medication is commonly used for cervical ripening during labor induction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dinoprostone (PGE₂) softens and dilates the cervix, making it the most widely used medication for cervical ripening.

Question 39

Which of the following drug is used during Labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent used to induce or augment labor by stimulating uterine smooth muscle contractions. Adrenaline is a catecholamine for anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest, not labor. "Mesoprostal" (misoprostol) is a prostaglandin used for cervical ripening and postpartum hemorrhage but oxytocin is the standard intrapartum agent for augmentation. Alprostadil (PGE1) is used to maintain ductus arteriosus patency or for erectile dysfunction.

Question 40

Artemether is for ............?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Artemether is an artemisinin derivative used as a first-line antimalarial, commonly in combination with lumefantrine, to treat Plasmodium falciparum malaria. It rapidly reduces parasitemia by generating free radicals within the parasite. It has no role in treating hypertension, HIV, or nonspecific dizziness.

Question 41

Levofloxacin is use for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections such as respiratory tract, urinary tract, and skin infections. It has no analgesic properties, so it is not used for pain. It is ineffective against viral illnesses like the common cold. Therefore, the correct indication among the options is infection.

Question 42

Antitubercular drug which causes Optic neuritis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ethambutol commonly causes dose-related optic neuritis, presenting with decreased visual acuity and red–green color discrimination defects. The risk is higher with higher doses and renal impairment, so baseline and periodic visual testing are recommended. Rifampicin causes orange discoloration of body fluids and hepatotoxicity, isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy, and pyrazinamide is associated with hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity.

Question 43

Which is the drug of choice for severe & complicated malaria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For severe and complicated malaria, WHO recommends intravenous artesunate as first line because it lowers mortality compared with quinine and clears parasitemia more rapidly with fewer adverse effects. Quinine is now an alternative only when artesunate is unavailable. Primaquine targets liver hypnozoites or gametocytes, not severe disease. Chloroquine is used only in sensitive strains and is ineffective for most severe falciparum cases.

Question 44

After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The onset of action is the time from drug administration to the first detectable therapeutic effect. Peak plasma level is the highest concentration achieved, not the initial response. Drug half-life is the time for serum concentration to decrease by 50%. Plateau refers to steady-state concentration during repeated dosing.

Question 45

Streptokinase is inactive until it binds to circulating plasminogen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Streptokinase is a nonenzymatic protein that must form a complex with plasminogen to gain proteolytic activity. The streptokinase–plasminogen complex then converts additional plasminogen to plasmin, leading to fibrinolysis. Therefore, streptokinase is inactive on its own until binding to circulating plasminogen.

Question 46

Drug which increased Digoxin toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Verapamil inhibits P‑glycoprotein and reduces renal clearance of digoxin, increasing serum digoxin concentrations and the risk of bradyarrhythmias and AV block. Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and typically decreases susceptibility to digoxin toxicity from hypokalemia. KCl can mitigate toxicity when hypokalemia is present. Calcium gluconate may worsen arrhythmias in established digoxin toxicity but does not classically raise digoxin levels like verapamil does.

Question 47

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat high blood pressure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that lowers blood pressure by reducing angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. Ibuprofen is an NSAID and can actually increase blood pressure. Metformin treats type 2 diabetes, and amoxicillin is an antibiotic. Therefore, lisinopril is the agent commonly used for hypertension.

Question 48

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Calcium gluconate antagonizes the neuromuscular and cardiac effects of excess magnesium by restoring calcium–magnesium balance at the neuromuscular junction and myocardium. It is given intravenously (e.g., 10% solution) to reverse respiratory depression, hypotension, and loss of reflexes from magnesium toxicity. Atropine treats bradycardia from cholinergic excess, insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, and flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.

Question 49

________ is an expectorant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Guaifenesin is the prototypical expectorant that increases respiratory tract fluid and decreases mucus viscosity, aiding in productive cough. Codeine, dextromethorphan, and benzonatate are antitussives that suppress the cough reflex rather than mobilize secretions. Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic that breaks disulfide bonds in mucus; it does not act as an expectorant.

Question 50

The drug of choice for induction of ovulation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clomiphene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that blocks hypothalamic estrogen receptors, increasing GnRH release and subsequently FSH and LH, which trigger ovulation. Ethinyl estradiol is an estrogen used primarily in contraceptives, not to induce ovulation. Danazol is an androgenic agent used for conditions like endometriosis. Levonorgestrel is a progestin used for contraception, including emergency contraception.

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