Question 1

A client has a sliding esophageal hernia. The physician prescribes an H2-receptor antagonist. The nurse explains that H2 receptor antagonist works by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: H2-receptor antagonists block histamine H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells, reducing acid secretion. Antacids neutralize existing acid, sucralfate coats mucosa, and LES pressure is not decreased by H2 blockers.

Question 2

What type of medicine is hyoscine butylbromide following injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) is an antimuscarinic antispasmodic; it blocks muscarinic receptors and is classified as an anticholinergic.

Question 3

Which class of drugs increases the action of sweat glands?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diaphoretics promote sweating by stimulating sweat glands; diuretics increase urine output, digestants aid digestion, and ecbolics stimulate uterine contractions.

Question 4

Which of the following medications does not cross the placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is large and highly charged, so it does not cross the placenta. Morphine, naloxone, and warfarin can cross; warfarin is teratogenic.

Question 5

Which of the following is a progesterone antagonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist; the others are progestins or prostaglandin agents.

Question 6

Which of the following is the most common complication of systemic steroid therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Systemic corticosteroids commonly raise intraocular pressure, leading to steroid-induced glaucoma; the other choices are not typical complications in this context.

Question 7

Dicyclomine tablets are used to treat which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dicyclomine is an anticholinergic antispasmodic used to relieve intestinal smooth muscle spasm, commonly in irritable bowel syndrome, not for Alzheimer's, allergy, or typhoid.

Question 8

Administration of medication into the bone is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intraosseous administration delivers medication directly into the bone marrow. Intrathecal is into the spinal canal, intradermal into the dermis, and subcutaneous into subcutaneous tissue.

Question 9

Pinpoint pupils suggest poisoning with which substance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic sign of opioid poisoning/overdose.

Question 10

What is the drug of choice in acute central anticholinergic syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physostigmine is a tertiary acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that crosses the blood–brain barrier and reverses central anticholinergic toxicity. Neostigmine is quaternary and does not cross the BBB.

Question 11

Which of the following local anesthetic agents has the shortest duration of action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Procaine is an ester local anesthetic rapidly hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases, giving it a short duration. Lidocaine is intermediate, while bupivacaine and ropivacaine are long-acting.

Question 12

Which of the following anti-cancer drugs causes hand and foot syndrome as a side effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hand-foot syndrome (palmar–plantar erythrodysesthesia) is a characteristic adverse effect of capecitabine (and 5-fluorouracil).

Question 13

What type of medicine is Diclofenac?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used as an analgesic for pain and inflammation.

Question 14

The physician prescribes regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Regular insulin (short-acting) given subcutaneously has an onset of action of about 30–60 minutes; faster onsets correspond to rapid-acting analogs, and longer onsets to intermediate insulin.

Question 15

What is the drug of choice for partial seizures?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine is a first-line agent and traditional drug of choice for focal (partial) seizures. Diazepam is for acute status epilepticus; barbiturates and lamotrigine can be used but are not the primary first choice.

Question 16

What adverse effect may SSRIs cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: SSRIs commonly cause GI upset due to increased serotonin activity in the gut. Hypertensive crisis is associated with MAOIs, urinary retention with anticholinergic TCAs, and neuromuscular effects are not typical except in serotonin syndrome.

Question 17

What is the drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bacterial vaginosis is treated first-line with metronidazole (oral or intravaginal). Fluconazole is for candidiasis, and ampicillin/ciprofloxacin are not first-line for BV.

Question 18

Which drug is relatively contraindicated in breastfeeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Propranolol can be concentrated in breast milk and may cause neonatal bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoglycemia; cephalosporins and zidovudine are generally considered compatible with breastfeeding, and many sulfonylureas have minimal transfer.

Question 19

Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aminoglycosides like streptomycin are contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal ototoxicity (risk of congenital deafness). Cephalosporins, erythromycin, and penicillin are generally considered safe.

Question 20

Which of the following is excreted in saliva?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracycline is notably secreted into saliva (and gingival crevicular fluid), reflecting its distribution into oral fluids.

Question 21

What is the most important route of excretion of drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The kidneys are the primary pathway for elimination of most drugs and their metabolites via glomerular filtration and tubular secretion; other routes like sweat, exhaled air, and feces are comparatively minor for most drugs.

Question 22

Which of the following is not an antifungal medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ketoconazole, flucytocine (flucytosine), and voriconazole are antifungal agents, whereas triclabendazole is an anthelmintic used for fluke infections, not a fungal infection.

Question 23

Which drug is used in malignant hyperthermia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dantrolene is the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia; it blocks ryanodine receptors to reduce calcium release in skeletal muscle. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are antipyretics, not effective for this condition.

Question 24

Which anti-tubercular drug is more toxic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among first-line anti-TB drugs listed, isoniazid is classically noted for significant toxicity—especially hepatotoxicity and neurotoxicity—making it the most toxic choice here.

Question 25

Artemether injection is used for the treatment of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Artemether is an artemisinin derivative antimalarial, used particularly for Plasmodium falciparum malaria; it is not used for typhoid, asthma, or anemia.

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT a local route of drug administration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral administration produces systemic effects and is not a local route, whereas topical and intra-articular are local routes; intra-arterial is used for targeted regional delivery.

Question 27

Which drug is the first-line treatment for immediate and long-term prevention of angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nitrates provide immediate relief of angina attacks, while beta blockers are first-line for long-term prevention by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving survival in stable angina. Thus A and C.

Question 28

Which of the following is a toxin (poison of biological origin)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Toxins are poisons of biological origin. Atropine is a plant-derived alkaloid (from Atropa belladonna), whereas Pb, As, and Hg are inorganic heavy metals (toxicants), not biological toxins.

Question 29

What is the term for the administration of a drug into the spinal cavity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intrathecal administration delivers medication into the subarachnoid space/spinal canal. Intraarticular is into a joint, intramedullary is within the marrow/medulla, and intraosseous is into bone.

Question 30

Which of the following is included in pharmacodynamics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pharmacodynamics describes what the drug does to the body, including receptor effects and mechanism of action. Absorption, elimination, and excretion are pharmacokinetics.

Question 31

Which of the following classifications of medications would be MOST often used for clients with schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: First-line treatment for schizophrenia is antipsychotic drugs (neuroleptics). Antidepressants, anxiolytics, and mood stabilizers may be adjuncts but are not primary therapy.

Question 32

Which drug useful in the treatment of asthma lacks bronchodilator action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used for asthma prophylaxis that has no intrinsic bronchodilator effect. Ephedrine, isoproterenol, and metaproterenol are bronchodilators; metoprolol is not used to treat asthma.

Question 33

Which of the following antitussives is non-opium based and has no analgesic or addicting properties?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Noscapine is a non-narcotic antitussive that lacks analgesic and addictive properties, unlike codeine, pholcodeine, and ethylmorphine which are opioid derivatives.

Question 34

Which test is used to identify drug damage due to freezing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Freeze-sensitive vaccines and some drugs are assessed for freezing damage using the shake test; after shaking, abnormal flocculation and rapid sedimentation indicate freezing injury.

Question 35

Which drug class is most often associated with extrapyramidal adverse effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Extrapyramidal symptoms result from dopamine D2 receptor blockade, most classically caused by typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol).

Question 36

Which antihistamine has calcium channel blocking and labyrinthine suppressant properties?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cinnarizine is an H1 antihistamine that also blocks calcium channels and has labyrinthine suppressant action, used for vertigo and motion sickness; the others lack these properties.

Question 37

Which of the following prophylactic agents appears to stabilize mast cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically to prevent allergen-induced mediator release. The other options are bronchodilators or anticholinergic agents, not mast cell stabilizers.

Question 38

What is cetirizine dihydrochloride used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine dihydrochloride is a second-generation antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis and urticaria, not for pain, vomiting, or fever.

Question 39

Ampicillin is a what type of drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ampicillin is a penicillin-class beta-lactam antibiotic that treats bacterial infections, so it is antibacterial.

Question 40

What type of drug is Budesonide?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid used for maintenance therapy in asthma; it is not an NSAID, diuretic, or contraceptive.

Question 41

Metronidazole is least likely to be effective in the treatment of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metronidazole is active against anaerobes and protozoa such as Entamoeba, Giardia, and Trichomonas, but it has no activity against Pneumocystis jirovecii; PCP is treated with agents like TMP-SMX or pentamidine.

Question 42

Terbutaline has preference for stimulation of which of the following receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Terbutaline is a selective β2-adrenergic agonist used as a bronchodilator and tocolytic, indicating preference for beta-2 receptors.

Question 43

Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine is a selective H1 receptor agonist. 4-methyl histamine and impromidine are H2 agonists, and mepyramine is an H1 antagonist.

Question 44

Which drug might help a patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy who is vomiting frequently?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. The other options are not indicated as antiemetics for this use.

Question 45

Mechanistically, which of the following drugs will decrease stomach acid secretion by blockade of histaminic receptors?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that blocks histamine H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells, reducing acid secretion. Pyrilamine and Hydroxyzine are H1 antihistamines, Cisapride is a prokinetic, and Omeprazole inhibits the proton pump, not histamine receptors.

Question 46

Which of the following is a very long-acting beta-2 agonist used for asthma prophylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) used for asthma maintenance/prophylaxis. The others are not LABAs: aminophylline is a methylxanthine, cromolyn is a mast-cell stabilizer, epinephrine is nonselective, and ipratropium is an anticholinergic.

Question 47

Lead poisoning in industries commonly occurs by which route?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Occupational lead exposure in adults is primarily via inhalation of lead fumes and dust (e.g., smelting, welding, battery work). Ingestion is more common in children; dermal and conjunctival absorption are minimal.

Question 48

What is Amoxicillin Tablet used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, commonly respiratory tract infections (including pneumonia). It is not used for malaria or myocardial infarction.

Question 49

Which of the following drugs is used to stop convulsions in epilepsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used to abort seizures/status epilepticus. Azithromycin is an antibiotic, amitriptyline is an antidepressant, and oxytocin induces uterine contractions.

Question 50

What is the primary use of amlodipine tablets?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker primarily indicated for treating hypertension.

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