Pharmacology Practice Test 20
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 20th part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacology Practice Test 20
Which of the following medications is most likely to affect TSH levels?
- Acetaminophen
- Levothyroxine
- Ibuprofen
- Metformin
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine is synthetic T4; increasing thyroid hormone provides negative feedback on the pituitary, altering/suppressing TSH levels. The other listed drugs typically do not affect TSH.
Which medication is the odd one out among the mast cell stabilizers?
- Cromolyn
- Theophylline
- Nedocromil
- Ketotifen
Explanation: Answer reason: Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator, not a mast cell stabilizer. Cromolyn, nedocromil, and ketotifen have mast cell–stabilizing activity.
Which benzodiazepine is commonly used for the management of anxiety disorders and has rapid onset of action?
- Diazepam
- Lorazepam
- Alprazolam
- Clonazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Alprazolam is a short-acting benzodiazepine with rapid onset and is commonly prescribed for anxiety and panic disorders. Lorazepam has intermediate onset, clonazepam slower onset, and diazepam is less commonly used for routine anxiety management.
Dexamethasone is classified as which type of medication?
- Antiemetic
- Analgesic
- Anti-allergy
- Antibiotic
Explanation: Answer reason: Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory and anti-allergic effects; it is not an analgesic, antibiotic, or primary antiemetic.
Ofloxacin is classified as which type of medication?
- Analgesic
- Antipyretic
- Antibiotic
- Antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections; it is not an analgesic, antipyretic, or antiemetic.
A patient with chronic pain experiences withdrawal symptoms upon abrupt discontinuation of opioid medication; this is an example of opioid what?
- Addiction
- Tolerance
- Dependence
- Sedation
Explanation: Answer reason: Withdrawal symptoms after stopping opioids indicate physical dependence; addiction involves compulsive use despite harm, tolerance is decreased effect requiring higher doses, and sedation is a side effect.
Which enzyme do fluoroquinolones target in Gram-negative bacteria?
- DNA polymerase
- RNA polymerase
- DNA gyrase
- DNA helicase
Explanation: Answer reason: Fluoroquinolones inhibit bacterial topoisomerases; in Gram-negative organisms their primary target is DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II).
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit which process?
- DNA replication
- RNA transcription
- Folic acid synthesis
- Protein synthesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Sulfonamides inhibit dihydropteroate synthase and trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase; together they block bacterial folic acid synthesis.
What is the drug of choice for the management of vaginal trichomoniasis?
- Prostaglandin
- Oxytocin
- Metronidazole
- Gentamycin
Explanation: Answer reason: Trichomonas vaginalis is treated with nitroimidazoles; metronidazole is the first-line drug of choice. The other options are not effective antiprotozoals.
Which analgesic is safe for a pregnant woman?
- Diclofenac
- Ibuprofen
- Paracetamol
- Tramadol
- Aspirin
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is the preferred first-line analgesic in pregnancy with the best established fetal safety. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, diclofenac, and aspirin carry fetal risks (e.g., ductus arteriosus closure, bleeding), and opioids like tramadol are not preferred.
Tetracyclines exert their antimicrobial effect by inhibiting which process?
- DNA synthesis
- RNA synthesis
- Protein synthesis
- Cell wall synthesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and block aminoacyl-tRNA attachment, thereby inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
Pantoprazole is used for which condition?
- Pain
- Infection
- Stomach issues
- Inflammation
Explanation: Answer reason: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that suppresses gastric acid and treats GERD, ulcers, and other acid-related stomach problems; it is not an analgesic, antibiotic, or anti-inflammatory.
Central inhibition of sympathetic outflow can be achieved through the activation of which receptors?
- Α1 receptors
- Β1 receptors
- Β2 receptors
- Α2 receptors
Explanation: Answer reason: Activation of central α2-adrenergic receptors (e.g., clonidine) reduces sympathetic outflow by inhibiting norepinephrine release from presynaptic neurons. α1 and β receptors do not centrally inhibit sympathetic outflow.
Which adrenergic receptor subtype is targeted by bronchodilator drugs like Salbutamol (Albuterol) in an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A1
- Β1
- Β2
- A2
Explanation: Answer reason: Albuterol (salbutamol) is a selective β2-adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing bronchodilation during acute asthma attacks. α1, α2, and β1 are not responsible for bronchodilation.
What are NSAIDs used for?
- Pain
- Inflammation
- Reduce fever
- All these
Explanation: Answer reason: NSAIDs provide analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes; therefore they are used for pain, inflammation, and to reduce fever.
Vancomycin exerts its antimicrobial effect by inhibiting the synthesis of which cellular component?
- DNA
- RNA
- Protein
- Cell wall
Explanation: Answer reason: Vancomycin binds to D-Ala-D-Ala termini of peptidoglycan precursors, blocking bacterial cell wall synthesis; it does not target DNA, RNA, or protein synthesis.
What is Senexon tablet used for?
- Pain
- Asthma
- Hypertension
- Constipation
Explanation: Answer reason: Senexon contains sennosides, a stimulant laxative used to treat constipation.
What is loperamide used for?
- Allergy
- Constipation
- Infection
- Diarrhoea
Explanation: Answer reason: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal opioid-receptor agonist that slows intestinal motility, used to treat acute diarrhea; it is not for allergy, constipation, or infection.
Which tablet is used for pain?
- Ciprofloxacin
- Loperamide
- Cetirizine
- Diclofenac
Explanation: Answer reason: Diclofenac is an NSAID analgesic used to treat pain; the others are for infection (ciprofloxacin), diarrhea (loperamide), and allergies (cetirizine).
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT have ototoxic effects?
- Streptomycin and its derivatives
- Gentamicin
- Neomycin
- Erythromycin
Explanation: Answer reason: Aminoglycosides (streptomycin, gentamicin, neomycin) are classically ototoxic; erythromycin is not typically ototoxic.
What is the mainstay of treatment for methanol poisoning?
- Naloxone
- Activated charcoal
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Ethanol
Explanation: Answer reason: Ethanol competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing conversion of methanol to toxic formic acid. Naloxone is for opioids, activated charcoal is ineffective for alcohols, and sodium bicarbonate only treats acidosis.
Which tablet is used for pain?
- Ciprofloxacin
- Cetirizine
- Loperamide
- Ibuprofen
Explanation: Answer reason: Ibuprofen is an NSAID analgesic used to relieve pain; ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic, cetirizine an antihistamine, and loperamide an antidiarrheal.
Which of the following is a short-acting beta-agonist?
- Salbutamol
- Salmeterol
- Terbutaline
- Levalbuterol
Explanation: Answer reason: Levalbuterol is a short-acting beta2-agonist bronchodilator. Salmeterol is long-acting. (Note: Salbutamol and Terbutaline are also short-acting, but the best single choice here is Levalbuterol.
Which medication is the odd one out among Haloperidol, Clozapine, Risperidone, and Lorazepam?
- Haloperidol
- Clozapine
- Risperidone
- Lorazepam
Explanation: Answer reason: Haloperidol, clozapine, and risperidone are antipsychotics; lorazepam is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic/sedative, making it the odd one out.
Which of the following medicines is NOT used for pain?
- Aspirin
- Ibuprofen
- Diclofenac
- Metformin
Explanation: Answer reason: Aspirin, ibuprofen, and diclofenac are NSAIDs used for analgesia. Metformin is a biguanide used to treat type 2 diabetes and is not an analgesic.
What is the primary classification of erythromycin?
- Antibiotic
- Antipyretic
- Analgesic
- Antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections; it is not an antipyretic, analgesic, or antiemetic.
What is hydralazine primarily used for?
- Hypertension
- Stroke
- Vasoconstrictor
- Anxiety
Explanation: Answer reason: Hydralazine is a direct arteriolar vasodilator used to treat hypertension; it is not a vasoconstrictor and is not indicated for stroke or anxiety.
Which is commonly used as an anticonvulsant during status epilepticus?
- Phenobarbital
- Sertraline
- Omeprazole
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: Phenobarbital is a barbiturate anticonvulsant used for status epilepticus when benzodiazepines and phenytoin are insufficient. The other options are not anticonvulsants (sertraline is an SSRI, omeprazole a PPI, insulin a hypoglycemic).
Nitroglycerin tablets are used for which condition?
- Asthma
- Angina
- Typhoid
- Syphilis
Explanation: Answer reason: Nitroglycerin is a nitrate that dilates veins and coronary arteries to relieve chest pain from angina. It is not used for asthma, typhoid, or syphilis.
Which of the following medicines is used for the treatment of heart failure?
- Metformin
- Digoxin
- Artemeter
- Donepezil
Explanation: Answer reason: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases myocardial contractility and is used in heart failure. Metformin treats diabetes, Artemeter is an antimalarial, and Donepezil treats Alzheimer disease.
What is amoxicillin used for?
- Allergy
- Infection
- Constipation
- Pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic indicated for treating bacterial infections, not for allergy, constipation, or pain.
Which medication is the odd one out among the first-generation antihistamines?
- Diphenhydramine
- Loratadine
- Chlorpheniramine
- Promethazine
Explanation: Answer reason: Loratadine is a second-generation (non-sedating) H1 antihistamine, whereas diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, and promethazine are first-generation agents.
Domperidone is used for which condition?
- Infection
- Nausea
- Diarrhoea
- Pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Domperidone is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist with prokinetic and antiemetic effects, used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Which anesthetic is associated with an increased risk of malignant hyperthermia?
- Isoflurane
- Succinylcholine
- Nitrous oxide
- Propofol
Explanation: Answer reason: Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by the depolarizing neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine; nitrous oxide and propofol do not trigger MH.
Allopurinol tablets are used to prevent the level of which substance?
- Oxytocin
- Uric acid
- Dopamine
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing uric acid production to prevent hyperuricemia and gout.
Which drug is used for deworming in children?
- Paracetamol
- Omeprazole
- Albendazole
- Ranitidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Albendazole is a broad-spectrum anthelmintic used to treat intestinal helminth infections in children; the other options are not antiparasitic drugs.
Which one is the odd medicine among the listed options?
- Mefenamic Acid
- Paracetamol
- Amoxicillin
- Ibuprofen
Explanation: Answer reason: Amoxicillin is an antibiotic, whereas mefenamic acid, paracetamol, and ibuprofen are analgesic/antipyretic NSAIDs.
Which drug class is commonly used to treat asthma by relaxing and opening the airways?
- Antihypertensives
- Antidepressants
- Bronchodilators
- Anticoagulants
Explanation: Answer reason: Bronchodilators relax bronchial smooth muscle (e.g., beta-2 agonists, anticholinergics) to open airways and relieve asthma symptoms; the other classes do not treat bronchospasm.
Which adverse effect is commonly associated with opioid analgesics?
- Hypertension
- Bronchospasm
- Constipation
- Insomnia
Explanation: Answer reason: Opioids activate mu receptors in the gut, decreasing peristalsis and increasing sphincter tone, leading to constipation. They more often cause hypotension and sedation rather than hypertension or insomnia; bronchospasm is not a common adverse effect.
What is Clotrimazole cream primarily used to treat?
- Antibacterial infections
- Analgesic purposes
- Fungal infections
- Viral infections
Explanation: Answer reason: Clotrimazole is an imidazole antifungal used topically for dermatophyte and Candida infections; it is neither antibacterial, analgesic, nor antiviral.
What is the primary use of omeprazole tablets?
- Headache
- Kidney issues
- Gastric problems
Explanation: Answer reason: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces gastric acid secretion to treat GERD, peptic ulcer disease, and other acid-related gastric problems; it is not used for headaches or kidney issues.
For what type of pain is diclofenac sodium injection used?
- Severe pain
- Mild pain
- Mild to moderate pain
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Diclofenac, an NSAID, is primarily indicated for relief of mild to moderate pain; severe pain typically requires stronger analgesics.
Clotrimazole is classified as which type of medication?
- Antibacterial
- Antiviral
- Antiprotozoal
- Antifungal
Explanation: Answer reason: Clotrimazole is an azole antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes; it is used to treat candidiasis and dermatophyte infections.
Which inhalation anesthetic is considered the prototype for the halogenated hydrocarbon class?
- Sevoflurane
- Isoflurane
- Desflurane
- Halothane
Explanation: Answer reason: Halothane is the classic prototype inhalational anesthetic of the halogenated hydrocarbon class; the others are newer fluorinated ethers.
Ofloxacin is used for which condition?
- Pain
- Fever
- Stroke
- Infection
Explanation: Answer reason: Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic indicated for treating bacterial infections.
At which site does the mechanism of action of warfarin occur?
- Blood
- Kidney
- Brain
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase in the liver, reducing synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors; therefore its primary site of action is the liver.
A drug that is capable of altering mental functioning is known as?
- Psychiatric drug
- Psychotic drug
- Antipsychotic drug
- Psychoactive drug
Explanation: Answer reason: Psychoactive drugs act on the central nervous system to alter mood, cognition, perception, or behavior; the other options refer to mental illness (psychotic), a treatment for psychosis (antipsychotic), or a vague term (psychiatric).
A 27 year old nursing mother is suffering from herpes simplex genitalis previously she responded to the drug used topically apart from her current problem she is in good health so which of the following drugs is most likely to be prescribed at this time?
- Ritonavir
- Trifluridine
- Acyclovir
- Foscarnet
Explanation: Answer reason: Acyclovir is first-line therapy for genital herpes and is considered compatible with breastfeeding. Ritonavir is an HIV drug, trifluridine is an ophthalmic agent for HSV keratitis, and foscarnet is reserved for resistant or severe infections.
A 22 year old male has been treating his athlete's foot with an over the counter drug without much success upon examination it is pound that nail bed of both great toes is infected. Which one of the following antifungal agent would be most appropriate?
- Fluconazole
- Nystatin
- Terbinafine
- Caspofungin
Explanation: Answer reason: Infection of the toenail bed (onychomycosis) due to dermatophytes is best treated with oral terbinafine. Nystatin targets Candida, fluconazole is less effective for dermatophyte nails, and caspofungin is for systemic infections, not nail disease.
In a patient with diffused lymphoma the oncologist suggest treatment strategy that involved the initial administration of doxorubicin to obtained a significant log kill followed by cell cycle specific drugs vincristine etc this therapeutic strategy is called ____________ therapy?
- Pulse
- Recruitment
- Rescue
- Synchrony
Explanation: Answer reason: Giving a cell cycle–nonspecific drug (e.g., doxorubicin) first reduces tumor burden and stimulates surviving cells to enter the cell cycle, after which cell cycle–specific agents (e.g., vincristine) are given to kill the recruited cells. This schedule is called recruitment therapy.
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