Pathology Practice Test 16
Pathology NCLEX Practice Test
Pathology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pathology. This section connects disease mechanisms to clinical manifestations and nursing priorities for safe patient care. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 16th part of the Pathology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pathology Practice Test 16
The nurse is assessing a male client who has suspected syphilis. Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of syphilis?
- Urethritis
- Conjunctivitis
- Chancre lesions
- Penile discharge
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary syphilis classically presents with a painless, indurated ulcer (chancre) at the site of Treponema pallidum inoculation, often with regional lymphadenopathy. This lesion is a hallmark finding that strongly supports the diagnosis when syphilis is suspected. In contrast, urethritis and penile discharge are more typical of gonorrhea or chlamydia urethritis, and conjunctivitis is more consistent with neonatal infection or other STI-associated syndromes rather than classic adult syphilis presentation. Therefore, the presence of a chancre best fits the expected disease manifestation.
The body part that would most likely display jaundice in the dark-skinned individual is the?
- Conjunctiva of the eye
- Soles of the feet
- Roof of the mouth
- Shins
Explanation: Answer reason: In dark-skinned individuals, the sclera/conjunctiva provide a reliable site because they are lightly pigmented and changes are visible under routine assessment. The soles and shins can be heavily influenced by natural pigmentation and lighting, reducing sensitivity for early jaundice detection. Oral mucosa can show jaundice, but the conjunctiva is classically the most consistent and commonly assessed location.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with early cancer of the prostate. Which statement made by the client supports the diagnosis?
- “I have urinary urgency and have to go all the time.”
- “I do not have semen production during intercourse.”
- “I take a lot of ibuprofen for my lower back and hip pain.”
- “I haven’t had any problems going to the bathroom.”
Explanation: Answer reason: ” Early prostate cancer commonly produces lower urinary tract symptoms from prostatic enlargement/irritation causing bladder outlet obstruction and increased frequency/urgency. This symptom aligns with typical early clinical manifestations that prompt evaluation (e.g., urinary hesitancy, weak stream, nocturia, urgency). Pain in the lower back/hip suggests possible advanced metastatic spread to bone rather than early disease. Absent semen production is more consistent with ejaculatory dysfunction from other causes (e.g., medication effects, post-surgical changes) and is not a classic early presenting feature of prostate cancer.
The Sable Tibia is characteristic of?
- Primary Syphilis
- Secondary Syphilis
- Tertiary Syphilis
- Congenital Syphilis
- Neurosyphilis
Explanation: Answer reason: These bony deformities arise from in utero infection with Treponema pallidum and evolve over time rather than appearing in early acquired stages. Primary and secondary syphilis are predominantly mucocutaneous and systemic inflammatory stages without characteristic long-bone bowing. Neurosyphilis refers to central nervous system involvement and does not define this specific tibial deformity.
All of the followings are Signs of systematic infection EXCEPT?
- Fever.
- Vomiting
- Fatigue and loss of energy.
- Enlargement and tenderness of lymph node
Explanation: Answer reason: Tender/enlarged lymph nodes reflect activation of the lymphatic/immune system and can occur with infectious processes. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom more strongly associated with gastrointestinal irritation, toxin ingestion, medication effects, or certain localized infections rather than being a classic hallmark of systemic infection. While vomiting can occur in some infections, it is not among the most characteristic systemic signs compared with fever and generalized fatigue.
Which stage pressure ulcer would just have partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis and dermis?
- Stage I
- Stage II
- Stage III
- Stage IV
Explanation: Answer reason: Partial-thickness skin loss that involves the epidermis and dermis (often appearing as a shallow open ulcer or serum-filled blister) corresponds to Stage 2. Stage 1 is intact skin with nonblanchable erythema, so there is no skin loss. Stages 3 and 4 are full-thickness wounds extending into subcutaneous tissue and deeper structures, respectively, which exceeds dermal involvement.
What potential cause do both Hodgkin’s lymphoma and non Hodgkin’s lymphoma have in common?
- Past history of varicella infection
- Prolonged exposure to UV light
- History of human herpes virus 8
- Past history of Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation: Answer reason: It is classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma and is also linked to several non-Hodgkin lymphomas, particularly in immunocompromised states and certain geographic variants. HHV-8 is more specifically tied to primary effusion lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma–associated disorders rather than being a shared typical cause of both broad categories. Varicella history and UV exposure are not established common etiologic factors for these lymphomas.
What type of brain tumor has the most positive outcome for the client?
- Malignant brain tumor
- Metastatic brain tumor
- Superficial brain tumor
- Benign brain tumor
Explanation: Answer reason: This typically makes complete surgical removal more feasible and reduces recurrence risk compared with infiltrative cancers. Malignant primary tumors are more likely to invade, recur, and require aggressive multimodal therapy with lower overall survival. Metastatic brain tumors indicate systemic cancer and usually reflect more advanced disease burden, which worsens outcomes even if focal brain lesions are treated. “Superficial” location alone does not define biologic behavior and therefore is not a reliable predictor of the best long-term outcome.
What diagnostic finding is used to differentiate Hodgkin’s lymphoma from non Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
- Lymphadenopathy limited to the spleen
- Decreased Beta-2 microglobulin levels
- Elevated lactate dehydrogenase levels
- Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
Explanation: Answer reason: Laboratory markers such as LDH and beta-2 microglobulin are nonspecific and are more useful for tumor burden/prognosis rather than making the specific distinction. Patterns of lymphadenopathy distribution can vary and are not a definitive diagnostic discriminator on their own. Therefore, identifying the diagnostic cell type on histology is the most reliable differentiator.
The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is-?
- Blindness
- Hydrocephalaus
- Peripheral circulatory collapse
- Epilepsy
Explanation: Answer reason: This complication is immediately fatal if not recognized and treated promptly with aggressive resuscitation and antibiotics, making it the most serious. Other listed complications like hydrocephalus or epilepsy represent important neurologic sequelae but are typically less immediately lethal than septic shock. The option that best reflects the highest-mortality, emergent complication is circulatory collapse.
What statement made by the client regarding metastasis demonstrates a lack of understanding of this condition?
- "This means that the cancer is in a new area now."
- "This does decrease the chance of survival."
- "This is an indicator that the cancer is spreading."
- "This must be a new and different type of cancer."
Explanation: Answer reason: " Metastasis refers to the spread of malignant cells from a primary tumor to distant sites while remaining the same cancer type histologically. A metastatic lesion is therefore not a separate, unrelated cancer; it originates from the original primary tumor and is named for that primary site. Recognizing metastasis as spread (often associated with more advanced staging and worse prognosis) supports the other statements as generally accurate. The incorrect statement reflects misunderstanding by implying a completely new cancer rather than dissemination of the existing one.
An oncology nurse is preparing to teach an in-service on acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL.) Which client would be most at risk for the development of ALL?
- A 40 year old male Caucasian
- A 21 year old male African-American
- A 50 year old female Asian American
- A 4 year old female Hispanic-American
Explanation: Answer reason: Epidemiologically, risk is higher in children than adults and is reported to be higher in Hispanic populations compared with some other racial/ethnic groups. Therefore the 4-year-old child aligns best with the strongest age-related risk factor and the listed demographic risk. The adult options are less likely because adult acute leukemias are more often AML rather than ALL, making age the key discriminator here.
A general infection is an infection the affect the?
- Nervous system
- Blood
- Muscles
- Entire body
Explanation: Answer reason: A generalized (systemic) infection is defined by involvement beyond a single localized site, producing body-wide signs and effects. Once pathogens or their toxins disseminate through the bloodstream/lymphatics, multiple organ systems can be affected with systemic inflammatory responses (e.g., fever, malaise, tachycardia). This distinguishes it from infections limited to one system such as the nervous system, muscles, or the blood as a single compartment. “Blood” alone would suggest a bloodstream infection, which is a route/site, but “general infection” refers to systemic spread and whole-body impact.
Swelling due to fluid is?
- Edema
- Anemia
- Asthma
- Ulcer
Explanation: Answer reason: The term for this fluid-related tissue swelling is edema, which commonly presents as pitting swelling in dependent areas like the feet and ankles. Anemia is a deficiency in red blood cells/hemoglobin and does not directly cause localized fluid swelling. Asthma is an airway inflammatory condition, and an ulcer is a break in skin or mucosa—neither describes fluid accumulation swelling.
Which organ can not have cancer?
- Brain
- Lever
- Heart
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary cardiac tumors are rare, but malignant ones (e.g., cardiac sarcomas, primary cardiac lymphoma) do occur, so the premise that the heart “cannot” have cancer is incorrect. The brain can develop multiple primary cancers (e.g., gliomas), and the liver commonly develops hepatocellular carcinoma and metastases. Therefore, none of the listed organs is truly exempt from cancer, but among the options the heart is the common misconception and the expected exam choice.
While providing care for the client diagnosed with a Stage IV cervical cancer, what is indicated by the stage?
- Stage IV indicates that the cancer has spread into one lymph node location.
- Stage IV indicates that the cancer is now responding to the treatment.
- Stage IV indicates that the cancer has now doubled in size.
- Stage IV indicates that the cancer has spread throughout the body.
Explanation: Answer reason: Cancer staging reflects extent of disease spread, with higher stages indicating more advanced, often metastatic, involvement beyond the organ of origin. Stage IV cervical cancer implies distant spread beyond the pelvis (e.g., to distant organs) or invasion of adjacent organs, representing systemic/advanced disease. Lymph-node involvement alone is not what defines stage IV, and treatment response is assessed separately from staging. Tumor size changes (including “doubling”) can influence staging in some cancers but do not define stage IV by themselves.
What statement by the student demonstrates a need for further education regarding information about lymphomas?
- "This cancer is a solid tumor found in the lymphocytes."
- "This cancer can be found in the lymphoid tissue of the body."
- "This cancer is found especially in the lymph nodes and spleen."
- "This cancer is a cancer of the white blood cells of the blood."
Explanation: Answer reason: " Lymphomas are malignant neoplasms of lymphocytes that typically present as cancers of lymphoid tissue (e.g., lymph nodes, spleen, extranodal lymphoid sites) rather than as a “solid tumor” in the way carcinomas commonly are described. The inaccurate framing suggests misunderstanding of the basic classification and origin of lymphoma as a hematologic malignancy. The other statements correctly reflect that lymphoma arises from white blood cells (lymphocytes) and is commonly located in lymphoid tissues such as lymph nodes and spleen. Confusing lymphoma with a generic solid tumor can lead to misconceptions about spread patterns, diagnostic workup, and treatment approaches.
What statement made by the student regarding malignant brain tumors requires further education?
- “Malignant brain tumors occur within the central nervous system.”
- “Malignant brain tumors rarely metastasize from the primary site.”
- “Malignant brain tumors are treated by chemotherapy and radiation.”
- “Metastatic brain tumors are slow spreaders and easily treated.”
Explanation: Answer reason: ” Metastatic tumors to the brain typically indicate aggressive systemic malignancy and are often multiple lesions, making management complex and prognosis guarded. They can cause rapid neurologic deterioration due to edema, hemorrhage, and increased intracranial pressure, so they are not accurately described as slow spreading. Treatment commonly requires a multimodal approach (e.g., corticosteroids for edema, surgery for accessible solitary lesions, stereotactic radiosurgery or whole-brain radiation, and systemic therapy guided by primary cancer), and is not “easy.” In contrast, primary malignant CNS tumors often spread locally/infiltratively and rarely metastasize outside the CNS, which makes the other statements generally consistent with core concepts.
Edema due to hypoproteinemia may be seen in all the following clinical conditions, except?
- Protein losing enteropathy
- Cirrhosis liver
- Malnutrition
- Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: Protein-losing enteropathy, cirrhosis (decreased hepatic albumin synthesis), and malnutrition all directly lower circulating albumin and therefore can cause this mechanism of edema. In nephrotic syndrome, edema is commonly explained in exam frameworks as being largely related to renal sodium and water retention ("overfill"), rather than purely from low oncotic pressure. Therefore it is the best "except" choice among the listed options.
While assessing a neonate at 4 hours after birth, the nurse observes an indentation with a small tuft of hair at the base of the neonate’s spine. The nurse should document this finding as which of the following?
- Spina bifi da cystica
- Spina bifi da occulta
- Meningocele
- Myelomeningocele
Explanation: Answer reason: In spina bifida occulta, the vertebral arch fails to close but the defect is covered by skin, so there is no exposed sac. Meningocele and myelomeningocele typically present with a visible cystic sac (often with neurologic deficits in myelomeningocele), which is not described here. “Spina bifida cystica” refers to open, sac-forming lesions rather than a subtle skin finding.
Cancer of blood cells is called?
- Anemia
- Leukemia
- Hemophilia
- Thalassemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Leukemia specifically refers to cancers of blood-forming tissues (bone marrow) leading to abnormal white blood cells and related cytopenias. Anemia is a low hemoglobin/RBC concentration rather than a malignancy. Hemophilia and thalassemia are inherited disorders of clotting factors and hemoglobin synthesis, respectively, not cancers.
The nurse is assessing a client with Paget’s disease. Which of the following would be an expected finding?
- Bone deformities
- Berry aneurysm
- Heberden’s nodes
- Janeway lesions
Explanation: Answer reason: Paget disease of bone involves disorganized bone remodeling with excessive resorption followed by abnormal formation, producing enlarged but weak and misshapen bone. This leads to characteristic skeletal changes such as bowing of long bones, increased hat size from skull involvement, bone pain, and pathologic fractures—making deformities an expected assessment finding. Berry aneurysm is associated with intracranial arterial defects (often linked to ADPKD), not a primary feature of Paget disease. Heberden’s nodes indicate osteoarthritis, and Janeway lesions are painless lesions seen with infective endocarditis, so neither fits the pathology of Paget disease.
An abnormal accumulation of fluid is known as ...?
- Inflammation
- Edema
- Epistaxis
- Necrosis
Explanation: Answer reason: It commonly results from increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, decreased plasma oncotic pressure (e.g., hypoalbuminemia), increased capillary permeability (inflammation), or lymphatic obstruction. Inflammation is a broader tissue response that can include edema but is not defined solely as fluid accumulation. Epistaxis is nosebleed, and necrosis is tissue death, making them clearly incorrect for this definition-based question.
In the edema phase of pneumonia the client reports a productive cough with clear sputum. What is the cause of the characteristics of the sputum?
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Plasma proteins
- Phagocytosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This transudation/exudation produces thin, clear sputum because it is predominantly fluid with dissolved plasma proteins rather than large amounts of leukocytes or cellular debris. As inflammation progresses and neutrophils and erythrocytes accumulate, sputum typically becomes purulent or rust-colored, which is not described here. Therefore, the clear sputum characteristic in the edema phase is best explained by leakage of plasma proteins into alveolar fluid.
A client being seen in an ambulatory clinic for an unrelated complaint has a dry, scaly, raised rash on the face and upper body and erythema of the palms. The nurse interprets this finding as consistent with early manifestations of which disorder?
- Cardiac disease
- Hypothyroidism
- Sickle cell anemia
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation: Answer reason: Palmar erythema can occur with systemic inflammatory/vascular involvement and supports a systemic process rather than an isolated local dermatitis. Hypothyroidism more typically causes generalized dry, coarse skin and hair changes without a characteristic raised facial rash pattern, and sickle cell disease primarily presents with hemolytic/anemia and vaso-occlusive features rather than this rash distribution. Cardiac disease is not classically associated with a dry, scaly, raised facial/upper-body rash as an early presenting finding.
Which of the following is not an transitive disease?
- Diabetes
- Tuberculosis
- Chicken pox
- Cholera
Explanation: Answer reason: Diabetes mellitus is a non-communicable metabolic/endocrine disorder related to insulin deficiency and/or insulin resistance, so it does not transmit between individuals. In contrast, tuberculosis (airborne), chicken pox (highly contagious viral infection), and cholera (fecal–oral transmission via contaminated water/food) are infectious and transmissible conditions. Therefore, the only non-transmissible choice is the metabolic disease.
What statement made by the student concerning lymph node pattern involvement requires further education regarding Hodgkin’s lymphoma and non Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
- "Hodgkin’s lymphoma usually starts in a single lymph node or chain."
- "The lymph nodes for both types of lymphoma are usually painless."
- "Common location for extranodal non Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the GI tract."
- "The pattern for lymph node involvement is more organized with non Hodgkin’s lymphoma."
Explanation: Answer reason: " Hodgkin lymphoma classically spreads in a predictable, contiguous manner from one lymph node region to the next, whereas non-Hodgkin lymphoma more often has noncontiguous, less orderly spread and can present with multiple peripheral nodes. Therefore, describing the more organized pattern as belonging to non-Hodgkin lymphoma reflects a reversal of the typical spread patterns. The other statements align with common teaching: Hodgkin lymphoma often begins in a single node/chain, lymphadenopathy is often painless in both, and extranodal involvement (including GI tract) is more characteristic of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. This makes the disorganized vs organized nodal spread distinction the key concept being missed.
Enlargement of tonsils is termed?
- Atrophy
- Hypertrophy
- Necrosis
- Fibrosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Clinically, enlarged tonsils are described as tonsillar hypertrophy, commonly seen with recurrent inflammation or lymphoid hyperplasia. Atrophy is the opposite process (shrinkage), so it does not fit enlargement. Necrosis indicates tissue death and fibrosis indicates scar formation, neither of which specifically describes simple tonsillar enlargement.
Infection of bone is called?
- Arthritis
- Osteoporosis
- Osteomyelitis
- Scoliosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This term precisely names the disease process of infection within bone tissue, often arising via hematogenous spread, contiguous infection, or direct inoculation (e.g., trauma/surgery). Arthritis refers to inflammation of a joint, not the bone itself, making it a common but incorrect distractor. Osteoporosis is decreased bone mineral density and fragility, and scoliosis is a spinal curvature deformity—neither is an infectious condition.
Which of the following is an eating disorder?
- Insomnia
- Anorexia nervosa
- Hypertension
- Diabetes
Explanation: Answer reason: This option is defined by restrictive energy intake with intense fear of weight gain and a distorted body image, often causing malnutrition and systemic complications. Insomnia is a sleep-wake disorder rather than a feeding/eating disorder. Hypertension and diabetes are chronic medical conditions that can be influenced by diet but are not classified as eating disorders.
What is the primary pathological feature of osteoarthritis?
- Cartilage degeneration
- Synovial inflammation
- Bone necrosis
- Joint effusion
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly explains classic findings like joint-space narrowing, osteophyte formation, and pain that worsens with use. Synovial inflammation can occur but is usually mild and secondary rather than the main pathologic driver (unlike rheumatoid arthritis). Joint effusion may be present intermittently but is a consequence of joint irritation, not the primary lesion. Bone necrosis describes avascular necrosis, a different disease process.
The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that?
- Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs only in young adults
- Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable
- Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs
- Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes “potentially curable” a classic differentiator emphasized in oncology fundamentals. In contrast, non-Hodgkin lymphomas are a heterogeneous group with variable behavior and are more often described as relapsing/remitting or chronic depending on subtype and stage. Option A is incorrect because Hodgkin lymphoma has a bimodal age distribution (including older adults), and option D is incorrect because non-Hodgkin lymphoma is commonly treated with systemic therapy (e.g., immunochemotherapy) with radiation used selectively.
What is the primary cause of gout?
- Uric acid accumulation
- Calcium deposition
- Cholesterol buildup
- Protein aggregation
Explanation: Answer reason: The most typical mechanism is reduced renal excretion of urate, though overproduction can also contribute. Crystal deposition classically causes acute monoarthritis (often the first metatarsophalangeal joint) and can progress to tophi with chronic disease. Calcium deposition refers more to calcium pyrophosphate disease (pseudogout), a different crystal arthropathy with a different pathogenesis.
A patient with a diagnosis of Churg-Strauss syndrome exhibits allergic and asthma-like symptoms. Based on these symptoms, the healthcare provider would expect a complete blood count to reflect which of the following? Choose 1 answer?
- Eosinophilia
- Thrombocytopenia
- Granulocytosis
- Neutrophilia
Explanation: Answer reason: A CBC therefore commonly shows an elevated eosinophil count, reflecting the underlying eosinophilic tissue infiltration and vasculitis. Neutrophilia more strongly suggests acute bacterial infection or physiologic stress rather than an allergic/asthma-predominant vasculitic process. Thrombocytopenia is not a defining hematologic hallmark of this condition and would prompt evaluation for alternative or secondary causes.
The pediatric nurse specialist teaches nursing students about mumps. Which clinical manifestation will the specialist identify as the most common complication of this disease?
- Pain
- Nuchal rigidity
- Impaired hearing
- A red swollen testicle
Explanation: Answer reason: Orchitis presents with acute testicular pain, erythema, and swelling, often unilateral, and can lead to testicular atrophy and potential fertility issues. Nuchal rigidity suggests meningitis, which can occur but is less common than gonadal involvement. Sensorineural hearing loss is a recognized but relatively uncommon complication compared with orchitis.
Which of the following clients is most likely to acquire hepatitis?
- A child with a bacterial infection
- A client with dysfunction of the biliary system
- A client with metastasis of liver cancer
- An adult with varicella zoster
Explanation: Answer reason: Varicella zoster is a viral illness and, like other systemic viral infections, can be associated with hepatic involvement and hepatitis, making this choice the best match to a situation linked to viral hepatitis risk. In contrast, biliary dysfunction primarily causes cholestasis and jaundice from impaired bile flow rather than an acquired hepatitis infection. Metastatic liver cancer causes hepatic injury and abnormal liver tests but is not an infectious exposure leading to acquiring hepatitis.
Which disease lasts only for a short duration?
- Hereditary
- Chronic
- Acute
- Genetic
Explanation: Answer reason: This contrasts with chronic conditions, which persist for months to years and may require long-term management. “Hereditary” and “Genetic” describe how a condition is inherited or caused at the molecular level, not the time course of illness. Therefore the short-duration descriptor best matches an acute disease.
What are the organs most affected ın closed abdomınal trauma?
- Solid organs such as the spleen and liver
- Hollow organs such as the stomach and Colom
- Important vessels such as descending aorta and vena cava
- Urinary bladder, Uterus and Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen and liver are the classic high-risk sites, so injury often presents with internal bleeding and signs of hypovolemia rather than immediate peritonitis. Hollow viscus injuries can occur but are less frequent in blunt trauma and more likely to present with delayed peritoneal signs from perforation. Major vascular injuries are possible but are comparatively less common and often rapidly fatal, making them less likely as the “most affected” group in typical closed abdominal trauma patterns.
Which of the following is a sign of infection?
- High fever
- Sneezing
- Cough
- All of these
Explanation: Answer reason: Fever is a classic systemic sign driven by pyrogen-mediated elevation of the hypothalamic set point. Cough and sneezing are common manifestations of upper or lower respiratory infections and represent protective reflexes to clear irritants and secretions. While each symptom alone is nonspecific and can be caused by noninfectious conditions, all are recognized signs that can occur with infection, making the combined option the best choice.
A patient presents to your office with what appears to be five mandibular incisors. However, upon radiographic examination, you count four roots. The most likely explanation for this finding is?
- Concrescence
- Hypercementosis
- Fusion
- Gemination.
Explanation: Answer reason: Gemination is an anomaly where a single tooth germ partially divides, producing a tooth that appears as two crowns or an extra tooth clinically while still sharing a single root/canal system. This creates the clinical impression of an increased tooth count, but radiographically the number of roots does not increase proportionally. In contrast, fusion is union of two separate tooth germs and typically reduces the tooth count because two teeth become one, often showing two roots or two canals. Concrescence (cementum union) and hypercementosis (excess cementum) do not explain an apparent increase in the number of crowns with fewer roots.
What is the main pathological feature of acute leukemia?
- Bone marrow infiltration
- Granuloma formation
- Neutrophilic infiltration
- Fibrosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This marrow replacement leads to failure of normal hematopoiesis, explaining the typical anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia/infection risk. The key lesion is diffuse blast infiltration of the bone marrow with possible spillover into blood and extramedullary sites. Granulomas reflect chronic inflammatory conditions, neutrophilic infiltration is more typical of acute bacterial inflammation, and fibrosis is characteristic of myelofibrosis rather than acute leukemia.
What is the main pathological feature of diabetic nephropathy?
- Glomerular sclerosis
- Tubular necrosis
- Interstitial fibrosis
- Vascular thrombosis
Explanation: Answer reason: This glomerular injury is what leads to the hallmark clinical finding of albuminuria progressing to nephrotic-range proteinuria and declining GFR. The classic lesion is nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules), fitting the concept of primary glomerular sclerosis. Tubular necrosis is more typical of ischemic/toxic acute tubular injury, and vascular thrombosis suggests thrombotic microangiopathy rather than the predominant diabetic pattern.
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