Question 1

The nurse knows which burn involves the entire thickness of the skin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Full-thickness burns destroy both the epidermis and the entire dermis, often extending into subcutaneous tissue, which defines a third-degree burn. This degree typically presents with leathery, charred, or waxy skin and may be relatively painless due to nerve ending destruction. First-degree burns are limited to the epidermis, and second-degree burns are partial-thickness involving epidermis plus part of the dermis with blistering and significant pain. “Fifth degree” is not part of the standard clinical burn-depth classification used for degree-based descriptions.

Question 2

A client has been diagnosed with late-stage Lyme disease. The nurse anticipates that the client may exhibit which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This results from ongoing immune-mediated inflammation and can present months after the initial infection. Pulmonary abscess is not a typical complication of Lyme disease and would suggest a different bacterial process. Renal failure and sterility are also not characteristic late manifestations compared with joint and neurologic findings.

Question 3

A nurse is reviewing the causes of ulcerative colitis with a client. Which factor is believed to cause ulcerative colitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This immune-mediated process helps explain chronic relapsing symptoms and the association with extraintestinal inflammatory manifestations. Diet composition and constipation are not considered causal mechanisms, though diet can influence symptom severity. Psychological stress can exacerbate flares via neuroendocrine-immune effects, but it is not regarded as the underlying cause.

Question 4

Which diagnostic criterion is considered a major Jones criterion for acute rheumatic fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Major criteria represent characteristic inflammatory manifestations of the disease, particularly involving joints, heart, skin, and the nervous system. Cardiac involvement is a defining manifestation because autoimmune-mediated inflammation can affect endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium and is a key driver of morbidity. In contrast, prolonged PR interval and fever are minor criteria and are less specific, while prior heart disease is not part of the Jones criteria used to establish an acute diagnosis.

Question 5

When inspecting the palms of a child, with which rash would the nurse expect to find no changes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore, inspection of the palms would be expected to show no rash-related changes. In contrast, coxsackie (hand-foot-mouth disease), Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and secondary syphilis commonly involve the palms/soles, making palm findings expected in those conditions. The key discriminating principle is whether the illness characteristically affects palmar/plantar skin.

Question 6

The success of treatment of local radiation depends upon?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local radiation therapy works by delivering a therapeutic dose precisely to the target tissue while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy structures. Treatment success therefore relies heavily on accurate localization and field design so the intended lesion receives the planned dose distribution. If the target area is not correctly designated, the tumor may be underdosed and adjacent normal tissue may be overdosed, reducing efficacy and increasing complications. Factors like tissue injury extent or systemic medications can affect tolerance and side effects, but they are not the primary determinant of whether local radiation effectively treats the intended site.

Question 7

The most serious and irreversible adverse effects of lead intoxication affect which system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This can produce permanent cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, behavioral problems, and encephalopathy—effects that are the most clinically serious and often irreversible. While lead also causes hematologic toxicity (impaired heme synthesis leading to anemia) and can injure kidneys, these are generally less defining for long-term irreversible outcomes compared with neurodevelopmental damage. Therefore, the system with the most serious irreversible effects is the CNS.

Question 8

The nurse is teaching the student nurse about muscular dystrophy. The student nurse asks which form of muscular dystrophy is most common. Which response is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It typically presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscle weakness, Gowers sign, and later cardiopulmonary involvement, reflecting near-absent dystrophin. Becker muscular dystrophy is also X-linked but is less common and generally milder with later onset due to partially functional dystrophin. Limb-girdle and myotonic dystrophies have different inheritance patterns and clinical courses and are not the most common form overall in pediatrics.

Question 9

Which type of burn is very painful and heals without scarring or contractures in approximately 7 to 14 days?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Superficial (epidermal) burns preserve dermal structures, so re-epithelialization occurs quickly and healing is expected within about 1–2 weeks without scarring or contractures. These burns are typically very painful because sensory nerve endings in the dermis remain intact and are irritated by inflammation. In contrast, third- and fourth-degree burns destroy deeper tissues and are often less painful initially due to nerve destruction and they heal with significant scarring and functional loss. Deep second-degree burns extend further into the dermis and commonly take longer to heal and are more likely to scar or contract.

Question 10

Which client is most likely to develop ankylosing spondylitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic presenting symptom is inflammatory low back pain due to sacroiliitis, often with morning stiffness and improvement with activity. The demographic and symptom pattern in this option aligns with the highest pretest probability for the disease. In contrast, isolated knee pain in a teen or new chest pain in an elderly client is more suggestive of alternative musculoskeletal or cardiopulmonary conditions rather than early axial spondyloarthritis. Age 50 hip pain can occur with many degenerative disorders and is less characteristic for initial presentation than early axial back symptoms.

Question 11

The client has been diagnosed with secondary syphilis. Which is an appropriate assessment for the nurse to enter into the client’s record?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Papulosquamous eruptions that can be annular, sometimes pustular, and widespread are consistent with this stage. A chancre is the hallmark of primary infection, while a period with few/no symptoms is more typical of latent syphilis. Destructive, multi-organ lesions are characteristic of tertiary disease (gummas and late complications), not secondary infection.

Question 12

Client education about gout includes which information?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gout is driven by hyperuricemia with precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joints, which triggers an intense inflammatory response and can lead to joint damage over time. Patient education should include this core disease mechanism to support adherence to urate-lowering therapy and flare prevention strategies. Increased purine intake is incorrect because high-purine foods raise uric acid and can precipitate attacks. The statement about uric acid production in the kidney is inaccurate because uric acid is primarily produced from purine metabolism (mainly in the liver) and the kidney primarily excretes it.

Question 13

A 70-year-old male client is diagnosed with syphilis in the secondary stage. Which finding should the nurse expect during assessment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A diffuse maculopapular rash that commonly involves the palms and soles is a hallmark feature and is highly testable. Lymphadenopathy can occur but is typically generalized and often non-tender, making that option less characteristic. Bone/joint involvement and neuropsychiatric changes are more consistent with late (tertiary) disease manifestations such as gummatous lesions or neurosyphilis.

Question 14

A 6-year-old boy is admitted to a pediatric unit for treatment of osteomyelitis. The nurse knows that osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which organism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This organism has virulence factors (e.g., adhesins, toxins) that promote tissue invasion and persistence, making it the classic cause of acute osteomyelitis in pediatrics. A frequent distractor is coagulase-negative staphylococci, which are more associated with prosthetic material or indwelling devices rather than typical community-acquired pediatric bone infection. The other options are not typical causes of osteomyelitis in an immunocompetent child and are more linked to gastrointestinal or opportunistic pulmonary infections.

Question 15

A 69-year-old client develops acute shortness of breath and progressive hypoxia requiring mechanical ventilation after repair of a fractured right femur. The nurse determines that the hypoxia was probably a result of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to sudden dyspnea with rapidly worsening hypoxemia that can progress to respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. The timing after femur fracture/repair strongly points to this mechanism. Atelectasis is common post-op but typically causes milder hypoxemia and improves with coughing, deep breathing, and mobilization rather than rapidly progressing to severe ventilatory failure. Asthma attack and bronchitis are less directly linked to the precipitating event and do not fit the classic post–long-bone fracture complication.

Question 16

A 3-year-old child has palpable purpura of the buttocks and lower extremities. Which condition would the nurse suspect with these symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This condition causes inflammation of dermal vessels, creating raised (palpable), nonblanching purpura rather than flat petechiae/bruising. ITP more typically presents with petechiae and mucosal bleeding due to thrombocytopenia, not a vasculitic palpable rash in this distribution. Rocky Mountain spotted fever often begins on wrists/ankles with systemic toxicity and later spreads, making it less consistent with the described pattern.

Question 17

A child comes to the emergency department feeling feverish and lethargic. Which assessment finding suggests Reye’s syndrome to the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The hallmark clinical picture is encephalopathy (rapidly worsening level of consciousness) together with liver involvement such as hepatomegaly and hepatic dysfunction. The other options describe nonspecific viral upper respiratory symptoms or findings (e.g., splenomegaly) that do not capture the characteristic combination of acute altered mental status plus hepatic enlargement. This pattern should prompt urgent evaluation for increased intracranial pressure and liver failure risk.

Question 18

All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic fatigue syndrome (also termed myalgic encephalomyelitis/CFS) is understood as a complex, multisystem medical condition rather than a primary psychiatric illness. It commonly follows an infectious-like prodrome with persistent fatigue and other systemic symptoms, which aligns with post-viral onset patterns described in many patients. Familial clustering and research into heritability support the possibility of genetic susceptibility. Psychological symptoms can be comorbid or secondary to chronic illness, but they do not define the disorder’s etiology, making this statement the exception.

Question 19

Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reye syndrome is an acute encephalopathy with hepatic dysfunction classically seen in children, especially after viral illnesses when salicylates are used. The statement is false because the typical population is pediatric rather than older adults, and the association with influenza or varicella infections is well described. Nausea/vomiting followed by altered mental status (e.g., drowsiness, behavior changes) reflects rising intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, fitting the clinical picture. Neurologic sequelae can persist in survivors if significant brain injury occurs, so that option remains plausible.

Question 20

The new nurse asks the experienced nurse on the oncology unit why there are more adolescents than clients of other age groups with osteosarcoma. The experienced nurse explains that osteosarcoma has a peak incidence during adolescence due to which occurrence?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During adolescence, accelerated skeletal growth increases cellular proliferation and bone remodeling, which raises the chance of malignant transformation in bone-forming cells. This explains the peak incidence in teenagers and why common sites are around the knee and proximal humerus. Closure of growth plates occurs toward the end of adolescence and would not account for the earlier peak. Sports injuries may prompt evaluation but are not a causative driver of tumor development.

Question 21

Pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) are two manifestations of the same disease. The risk factors for pulmonary embolism are the risk factors for thrombus formation within the venous circulation. These risk factors are known as Virchow’s triad and include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Virchow’s triad describes the three major mechanisms that promote venous thrombosis: stasis of blood flow, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Sluggish venous return (e.g., immobility, heart failure, prolonged travel) allows clotting factors to accumulate and increases the likelihood of thrombus formation that can embolize to the lungs. One distractor is “hypocoagulability,” which would reduce clot formation rather than promote it; the triad includes hypercoagulability instead. The other options are not core elements of the triad as classically defined (it is endothelial injury, not bone injury, and stasis is not defined by decreased central venous pressure).

Question 22

The adolescent, who has been sick for several days, is being seen in a clinic with a tentative diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The illness often includes pharyngitis and fever, but prominent, persistent fatigue with tender/enlarged nodes is a hallmark assessment finding. A varicella-like rash is not a typical expected finding (a rash is more associated with giving amoxicillin/ampicillin during EBV infection), making that choice less fitting. Depressed lymphocyte levels are inconsistent because mono commonly causes lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes rather than lymphopenia.

Question 23

The client asks the nurse to look at a lesion on the client’s body. Which characteristics should prompt the nurse to consider that the client may have a basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This description matches the typical morphology that should trigger suspicion and prompt dermatologic evaluation/biopsy. In contrast, irregular color and border cues are more characteristic of melanoma warning signs, not the classic BCC appearance. A dry hyperkeratotic wart-like papule is more consistent with actinic keratosis or squamous cell carcinoma spectrum, while honey-colored crusted pruritic lesions suggest impetigo.

Question 24

The nurse is aware that which assessment finding distinguishes bulimia nervosa from binge-eating disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key distinguishing feature between these two eating disorders is the presence of recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors. Bulimia nervosa includes behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives/diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise to prevent weight gain after binges, whereas binge-eating disorder does not. Both conditions can involve binge episodes characterized by eating an unusually large amount of food in a discrete period and feeling a lack of control during the episode, so those findings do not differentiate them. Frequency-based statements here are unreliable as a discriminator because binge frequency criteria have varied and are not the defining difference.

Question 25

The nurse is providing care for a client admitted to the burn unit. Select the most appropriate statement that identifies the nutritional needs of the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe burns trigger a catecholamine- and cytokine-driven hypermetabolic, hypercatabolic response that markedly increases energy and protein requirements. If these needs are not met, the patient develops negative nitrogen balance, loss of lean body mass, impaired collagen synthesis, and delayed wound closure. This physiologic state therefore directly contributes to poor healing unless aggressive nutritional support is provided. A common distractor is the “cool environment” idea; warmer ambient temperature actually helps reduce heat loss and metabolic demand in major burns, not cool temperatures.

Question 26

When reviewing the client’s medical record, the experienced nurse discovers that the client’s breast cancer is staged as T4 N3 M1. Which comment made by the experienced nurse to the new nurse is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  TNM staging describes the primary tumor extent (T), regional lymph node involvement (N), and presence of distant metastasis (M), which together reflect disease burden and spread. T4 and N3 indicate advanced local tumor extension and extensive nodal disease, and M1 indicates distant metastasis. Option A is incorrect because it describes limited tumor size and minimal nodal spread, which contradicts T4 N3 and does not address M1. Higher TNM categories generally correlate with worse prognosis (making C incorrect), and tumor differentiation is graded separately (e.g., histologic grade), not classified by TNM (making D incorrect).

Question 27

The nurse should assess the client with bladder cancer for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This finding is a key red-flag symptom that should prompt evaluation even when there is no pain or urinary burning. Dysuria and suprapubic pain more commonly suggest cystitis or other inflammatory lower urinary tract conditions rather than an early bladder tumor. Urinary retention can occur with outlet obstruction (e.g., prostate enlargement) or advanced disease but is not the typical hallmark presentation compared with painless hematuria.

Question 28

Premature closure of coronal suture is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Apert syndrome classically involves coronal craniosynostosis (often bilateral) along with midface hypoplasia and syndactyly. The other choices do not describe craniosynostosis: neurofibromatosis is a neurocutaneous tumor syndrome, and trachoma is an infectious eye disease. Therefore, the syndrome name most directly linked to premature coronal suture closure is the correct selection.

Question 29

Most common cause of death due to burns in early period is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This burn shock is most prominent in the first 24–48 hours and is the leading early killer without rapid, adequate fluid resuscitation. Infection-related mortality typically rises later after several days as wound colonization and immune dysfunction progress. Therefore the earliest period is dominated by circulatory collapse rather than infection.

Question 30

The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of polyarteritis nodosa. Which of the following clinical signs are consistent with this diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism produces elevated blood pressure and is a classic, high-yield clinical feature. Peripheral neuropathy and GI ischemic symptoms can occur, but the prompt asks for the single best sign most characteristic and broadly testable. Hemoptysis is more typical of small-vessel vasculitides with pulmonary capillaritis rather than this condition.

Question 31

An adolescent client has a pending diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which test result does the nurse correlate with this type of cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This finding is highly specific and is the classic diagnostic correlation for Hodgkin lymphoma compared with other hematologic malignancies. In contrast, the Philadelphia chromosome is classically associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia and some cases of ALL, not Hodgkin lymphoma. “Reactive lymph nodes” and nonspecific lymphocytosis can occur with infections or inflammatory conditions and do not establish this diagnosis.

Question 32

The nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The major complication associated with systemic lupus erythematosus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lupus nephritis can progress to significant proteinuria, hematuria, hypertension, and ultimately chronic kidney disease or renal failure, making it a major complication and key driver of morbidity and mortality. Cardiac involvement can occur (e.g., pericarditis), but cardiomegaly is not the classic major complication emphasized for SLE. Desquamation is not a defining systemic complication of SLE, and meningitis is an uncommon neurologic manifestation compared with renal involvement.

Question 33

A slight bluish discoloration around the navel is a sign of hemoperitoneum?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This finding is specifically named Cullen’s sign and points to significant internal bleeding rather than superficial bruising. By contrast, Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs indicate meningeal irritation in meningitis, not abdominal bleeding. Kehr’s sign is referred shoulder pain from diaphragmatic irritation (often splenic injury), which is a different clinical clue than periumbilical discoloration.

Question 34

A client is reviewing the results of recent lab work and diagnostic tests. In addition to an elevated white blood cell count, the nurse assesses worsening pain in the right lower quadrant. The nurse suspects appendicitis and would correctly state which factor to be the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Appendicitis most commonly begins with obstruction of the appendiceal lumen, which leads to mucus accumulation, rising intraluminal pressure, venous congestion, bacterial overgrowth, and subsequent inflammation with leukocytosis and localized right lower quadrant pain. A fecalith (hardened fecal material) is a classic obstructing source and directly explains the progressive pain pattern described. Excessive loose stools are not a typical primary cause of appendiceal obstruction and are more consistent with infectious gastroenteritis. Mesenteric arterial embolism causes acute intestinal ischemia with severe, diffuse pain out of proportion to exam rather than a focal RLQ process, while large-bowel inflammation points more toward colitis/diverticulitis than appendicitis.

Question 35

Early appendicitis pain usually starts at...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: As the inflammation progresses to involve the parietal peritoneum, pain localizes to the right lower quadrant/right iliac fossa at McBurney’s point. This migration pattern helps distinguish early visceral pain from later somatic, localized peritoneal pain. Options like epigastrium or supraorbital region do not match midgut visceral referral patterns typical of appendicitis.

Question 36

Forschheimer’s sign?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Forchheimer sign refers to enanthem consisting of small red macules/petechiae on the soft palate and is classically associated with rubella. It is not confined to the hard palate, making that description inaccurate. It is also not pathognomonic for rubeola, which is instead characterized by Koplik spots.

Question 37

Which of the following is a risk factor for hypovolemic shock?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute blood loss directly decreases circulating volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, making it a classic and primary precipitant. In contrast, an antigen-antibody reaction and gram-negative bacteria are typical triggers for distributive shock (anaphylactic and septic) where vasodilation and capillary leak predominate. Vasodilation itself describes the mechanism of distributive shock rather than a volume-loss risk factor.

Question 38

Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancreatic cancer is typically asymptomatic until advanced, has aggressive biology with early local invasion and distant spread, and only a small minority are surgical candidates at presentation. As a result, overall 5-year survival remains among the lowest of major solid tumors. By contrast, many breast cancers have effective screening and systemic therapies, and squamous cell carcinomas (depending on site) are often detected earlier and can be locally treated.

Question 39

Which of the following signs and symptoms would Nurse include in teaching plan as an early manifestation of laryngeal cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes hoarseness appear sooner than obstructive symptoms, which generally occur later when the tumor enlarges and narrows the airway. Dysphagia is more typical of involvement of adjacent pharyngeal/esophageal structures or more advanced local disease. Stomatitis is an inflammatory mouth condition and is not a characteristic early manifestation of laryngeal malignancy.

Question 40

It is leading cause of death in Infants and Young children-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., complex congenital heart disease, neural tube defects) early in life, sometimes before effective treatment is possible. This cause category remains prominent even as many infectious causes decline with immunization, sanitation, and antibiotic access. In contrast, pneumonia and diarrheal disease are important under-5 killers globally, but as single specific diagnoses they are not typically cited as the overall leading cause across infants and young children in standard pediatric mortality summaries. The broad term “communicable diseases” is nonspecific and overlaps multiple etiologies, making it a weaker best-answer choice than a defined leading category.

Question 41

Which is not a cause of jaundice in the newborn?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Newborns commonly have reduced UDP-glucuronyl transferase activity, so decreased conjugation raises unconjugated bilirubin. Increased bilirubin production from high RBC turnover or hemolysis and impaired excretion due to cholestasis or obstruction can also elevate bilirubin levels. In contrast, increased excretion would lower bilirubin rather than cause jaundice, making it the option that does not fit the pathophysiology.

Question 42

The abnormal development of tissue epithelium is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It commonly arises in epithelial tissues under chronic irritation or oncogenic influences and is considered a premalignant change in many settings (e.g., cervical intraepithelial neoplasia). Metaplasia is a reversible substitution of one mature cell type for another, not “abnormal development.” Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells with preserved differentiation. Anaplasia describes loss of differentiation typical of malignant tumors rather than the precursor abnormal epithelial development described here.

Question 43

During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-year-old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: That historical factor therefore supports malignancy risk rather than benign fibrocystic change. In contrast, cyclic changes in size are classic for fibrocystic disease because symptoms fluctuate with the menstrual cycle. Anovulatory cycles are more associated with benign hormonal irregularity and do not specifically point toward carcinoma, and “increased vascularity” is not a typical discriminating clinical feature compared with the hormone-related patterning of fibrocystic changes.

Question 44

A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stage II indicates the tumor extends beyond the kidney (e.g., into perirenal tissues or vessels) but remains completely resectable with no gross residual disease. Stage I is confined to the kidney and completely resected, matching a common distractor. More extensive peritoneal spread or unresectable disease would correspond to higher stages rather than stage II.

Question 45

Brodie’s abscess is a form of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The defining concept is chronic osteomyelitis with a contained nidus of infection and surrounding sclerotic bone. Osteonecrosis is ischemic bone death rather than infection, and exostosis is benign bony outgrowth without suppuration. Although it can mimic a bone tumor radiographically, its pathology and clinical context are infectious, not neoplastic.

Question 46

Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maximal tenderness at McBurney’s point (about one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus) is a well-known exam finding that supports this diagnosis. A high-fiber diet is generally protective because it reduces constipation and fecalith formation, so it is not a typical risk factor. Pain is usually periumbilical early and then migrates to the right lower quadrant rather than presenting as left lower quadrant pain.

Question 47

What stage of illness is characterized by general signs and symptoms, such as malaise?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., malaise, fatigue, low-grade discomfort) begin to appear before the full clinical picture develops. This contrasts with the incubation period, when the pathogen is present but the person is asymptomatic. The illness stage is when the characteristic, specific signs and symptoms are most evident and peak in severity. Convalescence is the recovery phase, with symptoms resolving and strength returning.

Question 48

A community health nurse visits the Gapuz family because the brothers Gian, 4, and Lean, 5, were diagnosed several years ago as having Duchenne muscular dystrophy. The nurse teaches Mr. and Mrs. Gapuz about muscular dystrophy, including therapeutic management and nursing considerations. Which of the following statements would most likely indicate that Mr. Gapuz has understood the teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive X-linked myopathy with predictable loss of ambulation in late childhood due to ongoing muscle fiber degeneration and weakness. A key teaching point for families is anticipating functional decline and planning early for mobility supports, contracture prevention, and respiratory/cardiac monitoring as the disease advances. Muscle relaxants are not a core therapeutic strategy for altering the disease course, and their effectiveness is not a central management concept in DMD education. Surgery may be used selectively for contractures or scoliosis but does not reliably restore or improve independent walking. Activity should be balanced and low-impact to maintain function and prevent complications, but it cannot prevent progression of the underlying genetic disease.

Question 49

Which of the following conditions is not a complication of Hodgkin’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to cytopenias such as anemia and increased susceptibility to infection. Nausea is also commonly encountered as a complication related to systemic illness and, more prominently, to treatments like chemotherapy and radiation. Myocardial infarction is not a typical direct complication of Hodgkin’s disease itself, making it the best choice as the exception.

Question 50

Swelling of body called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medical term for this tissue fluid accumulation is edema. Anemia is decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin or red cell mass, not swelling. Fever is elevated body temperature from altered hypothalamic set point, and vomiting is forceful expulsion of gastric contents—neither describes tissue swelling.

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