Question 1

Which of the following disease is not a cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glaucoma is an eye disease characterized by optic neuropathy, often associated with elevated intraocular pressure, and it is not a neoplasm. Sarcoma and carcinoma are broad categories of malignant tumors arising from mesenchymal and epithelial tissues, respectively. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of adrenal medullary chromaffin cells (typically considered a neoplastic condition, benign or malignant). Therefore, among the options, glaucoma is the non-cancer condition.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of which terms represent neoplastic diseases versus a non-neoplastic condition, which is a core concept in pathology.

Question 2

Peritonitis is .........?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) inflammation of Peritoneum Peritonitis is defined as inflammation of the peritoneum, typically due to infection or chemical irritation from gastrointestinal perforation or other intra-abdominal pathology. This process causes severe abdominal pain with guarding/rigidity and can rapidly progress to systemic inflammatory response, sepsis, and shock. Chest pain is not the defining feature and would suggest a different primary diagnosis.
Category reason: This item tests the medical definition of a disease entity (peritonitis) rather than nursing actions or prioritization, so it fits foundational disease concepts in Pathology.

Question 3

Which of the following is most common type of Hernia present in new Born baby?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In newborns and infants, the most common hernia is an indirect inguinal hernia due to a patent processus vaginalis, allowing abdominal contents to protrude through the inguinal canal. This is especially common in premature infants and is more frequent in males. Umbilical hernias are also common in infants, but inguinal hernias are the most common hernias overall in this age group and carry higher risk of incarceration, making recognition clinically important.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of which hernia type is most prevalent in newborns, a disease-pattern/clinical condition question rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 4

A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She has no complaints but mentions a family history of breast cancer in her mother and sister. On examination, a small, non-tender, firm lump is palpated in her right breast. An ultrasound and biopsy confirm invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC). What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient with invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) of the breast?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For a newly diagnosed, apparently early-stage invasive breast cancer, the next management step is definitive surgical treatment of the primary tumor along with axillary staging. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is the standard initial approach for nodal assessment in clinically node-negative disease and guides adjuvant therapy decisions. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is typically reserved for larger tumors, clinically node-positive disease, or to downstage for breast-conserving surgery. Tamoxifen and radiation are adjuvant treatments selected based on receptor status, surgical choice, and final stage, and are not used as sole initial therapy in this context.
Category reason: This question tests cancer management principles (treatment sequencing and staging for invasive ductal carcinoma), which is foundational disease/treatment knowledge rather than nursing prioritization or bedside interventions, fitting Pathology.

Question 5

High level of bilirubin often results in the following:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Elevated bilirubin leads to yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera because bilirubin pigment accumulates in tissues when its production exceeds hepatic uptake/conjugation or when excretion is impaired (e.g., hemolysis, hepatitis, biliary obstruction). This is the hallmark clinical manifestation of hyperbilirubinemia. Cirrhosis may cause elevated bilirubin but is not the typical direct result of high bilirubin, and hypoxia/diabetes are not characteristic consequences.
Category reason: This tests the clinical manifestation and underlying disease mechanism of hyperbilirubinemia, which is a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 6

Leukemia means?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Blood Cancer Leukemia is a malignancy of hematopoietic (blood-forming) tissues, characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal leukocytes in bone marrow and often peripheral blood. This process disrupts normal marrow function, leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia, and increased infection risk due to ineffective white cells. The other options describe unrelated concepts (e.g., leukorrhea) or incorrect lab patterns (low WBC is leukopenia).
Category reason: This is a definition/meaning question about a malignant blood disorder, which is core disease knowledge classified under Pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 7

Patient: 70-year-old female Presentation: Chronic knee pain x6 months, difficulty climbing stairs, crepitus +, no swelling or redness. Possible Dx:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) Osteoarthritis This presentation is most consistent with a degenerative joint disease characterized by chronic, activity-related pain and crepitus, especially in weight-bearing joints like the knee. The absence of warmth, erythema, and significant swelling argues against an inflammatory arthritis flare. Rheumatoid arthritis typically causes prolonged morning stiffness and symmetric inflammatory synovitis, and gout usually presents with acute, very painful, erythematous swelling. Osteoporosis causes fragility fractures rather than isolated chronic knee pain with crepitus.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of the most likely diagnosis based on symptom pattern and distinguishing features among musculoskeletal conditions, which is foundational disease-process knowledge under Pathology.

Question 8

Patient: 8-year-old boy Presentation: RIF abdominal pain x1 day, vomiting once, low-grade fever, mild tenderness, no diarrhea. Possible Dx:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The constellation of right iliac fossa pain with vomiting and low-grade fever over 1 day is most consistent with early appendiceal inflammation. The absence of diarrhea makes infectious gastroenteritis less likely, and worm infestation typically causes more chronic, nonspecific abdominal symptoms. Mesenteric adenitis can mimic appendicitis but is more commonly associated with recent upper respiratory infection and tends to be more diffuse; given the localized RIF tenderness, appendicitis remains the best single diagnosis among the choices.
Category reason: This item tests diagnostic recognition of a common acute abdominal pathology based on symptom patterns, which is primarily disease-process knowledge rather than nursing interventions.

Question 9

Which clinical outcome is associated with high PLXNB2 expression in patient tumor samples?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High expression of tumor-associated signaling receptors like PLXNB2 is generally linked to a more aggressive phenotype, including increased invasion and metastatic potential. Clinically, that translates into earlier or more frequent development of distant metastases, worsening metastasis-free survival outcomes. The other choices describe protective or anti-tumor effects (better immune control, better chemo response, less angiogenesis), which would be expected to correlate with improved—not worse—survival metrics.
Category reason: This item tests interpretation of a biomarker’s association with cancer prognosis (metastasis-free survival), which is a disease/outcome relationship central to oncology pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 10

Inflammation of the joints is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Arthritis is the general medical term for inflammation of one or more joints, presenting with pain, swelling, warmth, and stiffness. The other options describe different disease processes: asthma is an inflammatory airway disorder, diabetes is a metabolic disorder of glucose regulation, and osteoporosis is reduced bone density without primary joint inflammation. Therefore, the term that matches “inflammation of the joints” is the joint-specific inflammatory condition.
Category reason: This is testing recognition of a disease term/condition definition (inflammation of joints), which is foundational disease-process knowledge and fits Pathology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 11

_____ is a type of bone tumor.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a benign tumor composed of mature bone, commonly arising in craniofacial bones such as the skull and paranasal sinuses. Melanoma is a malignancy of melanocytes (typically skin), adenoma is a benign epithelial/glandular tumor, and lymphoma is a malignancy of lymphoid tissue rather than a primary bone-forming tumor. Therefore, the bone-specific tumor type among the choices is the one derived from bone tissue.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of tumor terminology and tissue of origin (bone-forming vs skin, glandular epithelium, lymphoid), which is foundational disease classification within Pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 12

Patient: 10-year-old male. Presentation: Sore throat + fever + difficulty swallowing x2 days. Tonsils enlarged with white patches. Possible Dx:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The combination of acute fever, odynophagia/dysphagia, and tonsillar exudates over a short 2-day course most strongly fits group A streptococcal pharyngitis. Viral pharyngitis more often includes cough, rhinorrhea, or conjunctivitis rather than prominent exudative tonsillitis. Infectious mononucleosis typically has more prolonged symptoms with marked fatigue and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Peritonsillar abscess usually presents with unilateral swelling, muffled “hot potato” voice, uvular deviation, and trismus, which are not described here.
Category reason: This item asks for the most likely diagnosis based on symptom patterns and physical findings, which primarily tests disease recognition and differential diagnosis rather than nursing interventions, fitting Pathology.

Question 13

Laboratory results of a client with Leukemia indicate elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and uric acid levels. these laboratory result indicates:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Elevated uric acid and BUN in leukemia most commonly reflect increased cellular turnover and protein catabolism with breakdown of nucleic acids (purines), which raises uric acid and nitrogenous wastes. This pattern is classically seen with rapid tumor cell proliferation or lysis and signals high metabolic activity that can stress renal clearance. The other options do not explain these specific laboratory elevations: lymphadenopathy is a physical finding, thrombocytopenia affects bleeding risk, and hepatic encephalopathy is associated with ammonia and liver failure.
Category reason: This item tests interpretation of laboratory abnormalities in leukemia based on underlying disease processes (cell turnover/catabolism), which is primarily biomedical pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 14

Which of the following is true of cavitation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Energy cause the tissues to accelerate and displace outward Cavitation in ballistic trauma refers to the temporary cavity created when kinetic energy from a projectile transfers to tissue, rapidly accelerating it radially away from the wound track. This stretching and displacement can cause significant injury beyond the permanent tract, especially in inelastic tissues. The other options are incorrect because tissues may not fully recoil to baseline, injury is not limited to organs/blood vessels, and hollow organs can be particularly vulnerable to these forces.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism of ballistic cavitation and tissue injury, which is foundational trauma pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 15

Patient with decompensated liver cirrhosis now develops asterisks and flapping tremors what is the cause of this exacerbation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Asterixis (flapping tremor) in decompensated cirrhosis is a classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, often triggered by factors that worsen hyperammonemia or reduce effective circulating volume. Large-volume paracentesis without adequate albumin replacement can cause circulatory dysfunction and precipitate renal hypoperfusion, which can impair ammonia clearance and exacerbate encephalopathy. The other choices are not typical direct precipitants of hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis.
Category reason: This question tests the pathologic mechanism/precipitating factor for hepatic encephalopathy (asterixis) in decompensated cirrhosis rather than a nursing intervention decision, so it fits Pathology under NursingScience.

Question 16

Definitive sign of Compartment syndrome

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects rising intracompartmental pressure causing ischemia of muscles and nerves; stretching the involved muscles provokes severe pain early and is more sensitive than late vascular findings. Pulselessness and pallor are late signs that indicate advanced arterial compromise and potential irreversible damage. Edema may be present but is nonspecific and can occur in many soft-tissue injuries without compartment syndrome.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hallmark clinical finding and underlying ischemic pathophysiology of compartment syndrome, which is primarily a disease-process concept.

Question 17

Which periodontal condition is characterized by reversible gingival inflammation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This condition involves inflammation limited to the gingiva without attachment loss or alveolar bone destruction. Because the supporting periodontal tissues are not yet damaged, removing plaque and improving oral hygiene can return the tissues to health. In contrast, periodontitis features irreversible attachment/bone loss, an abscess is a localized purulent infection, and gingival hyperplasia is tissue overgrowth rather than primary inflammatory disease.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about disease definition and reversibility within periodontal disease, which is primarily pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 18

A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Symmetric small-joint pain in the wrists and fingers with possible low-grade fever and a strong family history is most consistent with early rheumatoid arthritis, which is a chronic autoimmune synovitis. The dominant mechanism is immune-mediated inflammation leading to synovial proliferation (pannus) and progressive joint damage. Lack of rash makes certain inflammatory arthritides (e.g., SLE) less likely, and no exposure history supports a noninfectious etiology. The distribution and chronic inflammatory pattern are not typical for traumatic or hematologic causes.
Category reason: This item asks for the underlying disease mechanism (pathologic process) behind a clinical pattern suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis, which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization task.

Question 19

A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Melanoma risk is strongly increased by fair skin, red/blond hair phenotype, freckling, intense/intermittent UV exposure, and family history. Actinic damage markers (e.g., lentigines) reflect cumulative UV injury and correlate with increased skin cancer risk. While older age is associated with higher melanoma incidence overall, being 35 years old is not a specific risk factor in the way the other listed features are for this patient.
Category reason: This question tests biomedical knowledge of melanoma risk factors and epidemiology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, fitting Pathology.

Question 20

Which of the following features should make a nurse to di...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They are a classic pathognomonic enanthem of measles, appearing as small bluish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa before the generalized maculopapular rash. The other listed findings (coryza, conjunctival injection, and rash) can occur in measles but are not as specific. Recognizing this sign supports early identification and timely infection-control actions.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a disease-specific clinical sign (measles), which is primarily a pathology-focused knowledge item rather than a nursing-intervention judgment scenario.

Question 21

Delirium tremens are withdrawal symptoms of which substance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Alcoholism Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 48–96 hours after reduction or cessation of heavy, prolonged drinking. It features autonomic hyperactivity (tachycardia, hypertension, fever), agitation, confusion, and hallucinations, and can progress to seizures and death without treatment. Withdrawal from opioids causes flu-like symptoms and autonomic discomfort but is not characterized by delirium tremens. Cocaine and cannabis withdrawal may cause mood and sleep disturbances but do not produce classic DT physiology.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a specific withdrawal syndrome and its associated substance, which is a foundational disease/clinical pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 22

Which type of spina bifida is most severe?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the most severe form because both the meninges and spinal cord/nerve roots herniate through the vertebral defect, causing significant neurologic impairment. This commonly leads to motor and sensory deficits below the lesion, neurogenic bladder/bowel, and orthopedic deformities. It also carries higher risk of associated complications such as hydrocephalus and Chiari II malformation compared with meningocele or occulta.
Category reason: This tests comparative severity of congenital neural tube defect types, which is primarily disease classification and clinical consequence—best fit under Pathology.

Question 23

The nurse understands that the diagnosis of oral cancer is confirmed with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Biopsy Definitive confirmation of oral cancer requires histopathologic examination of tissue to identify malignant cellular changes and invasion. Cytology-based or microbiologic tests (e.g., Gram stain, culture) evaluate infection rather than malignancy and cannot establish cancer diagnosis. Oral washing may detect exfoliated abnormal cells but is not sufficiently sensitive or specific to confirm cancer; suspicious lesions still require tissue sampling.
Category reason: This item tests how malignancy is definitively diagnosed (histopathologic tissue confirmation), which is a core concept in pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization decision.

Question 24

In meningomyelocele, the exposed sac contains:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meningomyelocele is an open neural tube defect in which both the meninges and spinal cord elements herniate through a vertebral defect. This distinguishes it from meningocele, where only meninges (and CSF) protrude without neural tissue. Because neural tissue is exposed/contained in the sac, there is higher risk of neurologic deficits and infection. Vertebrae are malformed in the defect but are not the contents of the sac.
Category reason: This tests identification of what anatomical/pathologic structures are involved in a congenital neural tube defect, which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 25

Most common cause of congenital cerebral palsy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most congenital cerebral palsy is linked to antenatal factors that disrupt normal brain development, with hypoxic-ischemic injury before birth being a classic, commonly tested cause. Birth trauma is a much less frequent primary cause than historically believed. Kernicterus from severe neonatal jaundice can cause athetoid/dyskinetic CP but is not the most common overall etiology. Congenital infections can contribute, but they account for a smaller proportion compared with antenatal hypoxic-ischemic mechanisms.
Category reason: The item tests etiologic understanding of a neurologic developmental disorder rather than nursing interventions, fitting foundational disease causation in Pathology.

Question 26

Which of the following is a hallmark sign of Delirium Tremens?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Delirium tremens is the most severe form of alcohol withdrawal and is characterized by acute delirium with prominent autonomic hyperactivity. Patients typically develop marked agitation, disorientation, confusion, hallucinations, and tremor, often accompanied by tachycardia, hypertension, fever, and diaphoresis. Bradycardia and hypotension are not typical hallmark findings because the syndrome is driven by sympathetic overactivity. Hyperglycemia is not a defining clinical feature of this condition.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the classic clinical features of a disease process (severe alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens), which is foundational pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 27

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Autonomic hyperactivity is a hallmark of withdrawal after abrupt reduction/cessation of heavy alcohol use, producing sweating, tremor, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, anxiety, and insomnia. These symptoms can begin within hours and may progress to seizures or delirium tremens if severe. The other options better match intoxication/activation states, depressive syndromes, or Wernicke encephalopathy (ataxia and nystagmus) rather than withdrawal.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the characteristic clinical manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, which is a disease/process presentation rather than a nursing intervention decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 28

Magical thinking, peculiar notions, ideas of reference, illusions and derealisation are part of which personality disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These features reflect odd beliefs/magical thinking and unusual perceptual experiences with cognitive-perceptual distortions, which are characteristic of schizotypal personality disorder (Cluster A). Ideas of reference and derealization-like experiences fit the interpersonal and perceptual eccentricities seen in this disorder. Paranoid personality centers on pervasive distrust without prominent magical thinking or perceptual distortions, schizoid focuses on detachment and restricted affect, and borderline is defined by instability of relationships/affect/impulsivity rather than primary odd beliefs and perceptions.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of defining symptom clusters of a specific personality disorder, which is foundational psychiatric pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 29

When a thrombus develops initially in the veins as a result of stasis or hypercoagulability but without inflammation, the process is referred to as………..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term describes venous thrombosis that forms primarily from stasis or hypercoagulability and is not initially accompanied by inflammatory changes in the vessel wall. In contrast, thrombophlebitis implies inflammation of the vein (often with pain, redness, and tenderness) associated with thrombus formation. “Deep vein thrombosis” and “venous thrombosis” are broader terms and do not specifically distinguish the absence of inflammation at onset.
Category reason: This is testing definitions and distinctions between types of venous thrombus formation and inflammation, which is core disease-process terminology and classification within Pathology.

Question 30

Common symptom of meningitis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meningeal inflammation causes irritation and spasm of neck muscles, producing nuchal rigidity, a classic presentation of meningitis. This is part of the typical triad along with fever and altered mental status, and may be accompanied by headache and photophobia. The other options are nonspecific or not characteristic, whereas neck stiffness directly reflects meningeal irritation.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a hallmark clinical manifestation of an infectious/inflammatory disease process, which falls under Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 31

Which congenital anomaly is not compatible with life?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This defect involves failure of closure of the anterior neural tube with absence of major portions of the brain and calvarium. Because essential brain structures for consciousness and vital functions are missing, survival beyond the neonatal period is not possible. By contrast, meningocele, encephalocele, and hydrocephalus can be compatible with life depending on severity and access to neurosurgical management.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of lethality of specific congenital malformations (neural tube defects), which is primarily a disease/defect classification topic rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task, fitting Pathology.

Question 32

In spina bifida occulta, the skin overlying lesion may show?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spina bifida occulta is a closed neural tube defect in which the skin is intact, so there is no exposed sac or cerebrospinal fluid leakage. A common cutaneous marker over the lumbosacral area is a midline dimple, tuft of hair, or other subtle skin stigma over the defect. Brain herniation is characteristic of encephalocele/Arnold-Chiari-related anomalies rather than occulta itself. Increased head size suggests hydrocephalus, which is more associated with open spina bifida (e.g., myelomeningocele) than occulta.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a congenital defect’s typical clinical/skin findings, which is foundational disease knowledge and best fits Pathology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.

Question 33

Which maternal infection increases risk of microcephaly?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Congenital CMV is a classic TORCH infection associated with brain injury, including periventricular calcifications, ventriculomegaly, sensorineural hearing loss, and microcephaly. Maternal primary infection or reactivation during pregnancy can transmit transplacentally and disrupt fetal neurodevelopment. Rubella more classically causes cataracts, PDA, and hearing loss, while HIV and hepatitis B are not typical causes of fetal microcephaly.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of congenital infections and their fetal malformations, which is foundational disease/pathophysiology content rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 34

Most common site of breast cancer:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This location has the greatest amount of breast (glandular) tissue, including the axillary tail, increasing the probability of malignant transformation occurring there. Epidemiologically, the majority of breast carcinomas are found in this quadrant compared with other regions of the breast. This is a foundational disease-distribution fact used in clinical assessment and screening.
Category reason: This question tests a core epidemiologic/clinicopathologic fact about where breast carcinoma most commonly arises, which fits Pathology rather than nursing-process decision-making.

Question 35

What is the typical time frame for the onset of Delirium Tremens after the last drink?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D. 48-96 hours Delirium tremens is a severe alcohol-withdrawal syndrome that typically develops later than early withdrawal symptoms such as tremor, insomnia, and mild autonomic hyperactivity. The classic onset window is about 48–72 hours after cessation, and it can occur up to 96 hours. It is characterized by delirium, marked autonomic instability (tachycardia, hypertension, fever, diaphoresis), agitation, and may include hallucinations and seizures, making this time frame clinically important for monitoring.
Category reason: This question tests the timing and clinical course of a disease process (alcohol withdrawal progressing to delirium tremens), which is foundational pathophysiology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/priority scenario.

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Delirium Tremens?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Delirium tremens is a severe alcohol-withdrawal state characterized by autonomic hyperactivity and neuropsychiatric symptoms. Typical findings include agitation, confusion, hallucinations, tachycardia, hypertension, fever, and profuse sweating. Hypotension is not a common feature and would suggest alternative or additional problems such as dehydration, sepsis, bleeding, or medication effects that require evaluation.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of clinical manifestations of a disease state (delirium tremens) and distinguishing typical vs atypical signs, which aligns best with Pathology rather than nursing action/prioritization.

Question 37

Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measles (rubeola) classically presents with the triad of cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis during the prodromal (invasive) stage before the rash. Conjunctival inflammation is therefore an expected early physical finding to assess along with fever and Koplik spots. Otitis media and pneumonia are recognized complications but are not as characteristic for early-stage assessment. Membranous laryngitis is more typical of diphtheria or severe airway disease rather than a hallmark early finding of measles.
Category reason: This tests recognition of classic clinical manifestations and stages seen in an infectious disease (measles), which is primarily disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task, fitting Pathology.

Question 38

In Hodgkin's disease, the lymph nodes usually affected first are the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hodgkin lymphoma most commonly presents with painless lymphadenopathy in the cervical (often supraclavicular) chain as the initial site. It typically spreads in an orderly, contiguous pattern from one lymph node group to adjacent groups. Mediastinal involvement is common but is more often seen after or along with cervical node disease. Axillary and inguinal nodes are less common as the first presentation compared with cervical nodes.
Category reason: This item tests disease presentation and typical lymph node involvement patterns in Hodgkin lymphoma, which is a core topic in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 39

The common genetic cause of liver disease in children is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is a relatively common inherited disorder and a leading genetic cause of chronic liver disease in infants and children due to misfolded protein accumulating in hepatocytes. This can present with neonatal cholestasis, hepatitis, and can progress to cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. In contrast, hemochromatosis typically causes clinically significant liver disease later in life, cystic fibrosis more commonly causes pancreatic and pulmonary disease (with liver involvement less common), and glycogen storage diseases are rarer and heterogeneous.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of inherited disease mechanisms and etiologies of pediatric liver pathology rather than nursing interventions, fitting Pathology.

Question 40

Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue suspect. The following is NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever suspects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dengue hospitalization indicators are centered on warning signs of plasma leakage/hemorrhage and evolving shock risk, such as abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, and rising hematocrit suggesting hemoconcentration. Persistent headache can be a significant symptom in febrile illness monitoring, especially when severe or associated with other warning signs. A cough lasting 30 days points instead toward a chronic respiratory condition (e.g., tuberculosis) and is not a dengue-specific criterion for hospital admission in suspected hemorrhagic fever.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of clinical warning signs and pathophysiologic indicators for dengue severity and hospitalization, which is primarily disease-focused knowledge rather than nursing-priority/action decision-making.

Question 41

What is the duration of treatment in newly diagnosed pulmonary TB under the NTEP?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Newly diagnosed drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis under NTEP is treated with a standard 6-month regimen: an intensive phase followed by a continuation phase. The typical structure is 2 months of four drugs (HRZE) then 4 months of three drugs (HRE), totaling 6 months. Longer durations are generally reserved for specific situations such as certain forms of extrapulmonary TB or drug-resistant disease requiring individualized regimens.
Category reason: This item tests standard TB treatment duration under a national program guideline, which is foundational disease-management knowledge rather than a nursing prioritization or intervention scenario; it best fits Pathology.

Question 42

A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for 14 days. The sign of dehydration is classified as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Persistent diarrhea Diarrhea lasting 14 days meets the standard definition of persistent diarrhea (≥14 days). Dysentery requires visible blood in the stool, which is not stated. “Severe” classifications generally depend on accompanying clinical findings (e.g., severe dehydration, systemic toxicity) rather than duration alone, and these are not provided in the stem. Therefore the best classification based strictly on duration is persistent diarrhea.
Category reason: This item tests disease classification based on symptom duration (a pathologic definition of diarrhea subtypes) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it fits Pathology under NursingScience.

Question 43

Which of the following is a warning sign of severe dengue?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These are classic dengue warning signs indicating increased capillary permeability and risk of plasma leakage, which can rapidly progress to shock and organ impairment. Persistent vomiting contributes to dehydration and worsening hemodynamic instability, while abdominal pain can reflect hepatic involvement or evolving plasma leakage. The other options are not recognized warning signs for severe dengue in standard clinical criteria.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of clinical warning signs and severity criteria in an infectious disease process, which is primarily pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 44

First process in wound healing:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wound healing phases (hemostasis/inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling) begin quickly and often proceed simultaneously rather than in a strict stepwise sequence. Early events like clotting and inflammation overlap with the start of proliferation, while collagen deposition and remodeling continue for weeks to months. Because the stem asks for the “first process,” the best scientific correction is that the stages overlap rather than one of the listed later events being universally first. The other options describe specific proliferative or remodeling features that do not consistently occur before all other processes.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of the biology and sequence of tissue repair phases, which is core Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 45

A client 3 days postpartum reports fever (101°F), foul-smelling lochia, and uterine tenderness. What will they cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fever, uterine fundal tenderness, and malodorous lochia in the first week postpartum are classic for postpartum uterine infection. This typically results from ascending polymicrobial infection of the endometrium after delivery and is more common after prolonged labor, multiple vaginal exams, or cesarean birth. UTI would more likely present with dysuria/urgency and lacks foul lochia; mastitis presents with localized breast pain/erythema, not uterine tenderness. Retained products can contribute to subinvolution and bleeding and may predispose to infection, but the symptom cluster most directly indicates endometritis.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a postpartum infectious disease process based on clinical signs (fever, uterine tenderness, foul lochia), which is primarily pathology rather than nursing action/prioritization.

Question 46

Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Septicemia refers to the presence and circulation of pathogenic bacteria along with their toxins in the bloodstream, producing systemic illness. In contrast, bacteremia is bacteria in blood without necessarily implying toxin-related systemic effects, and toxemia is toxins in blood without bacteria. Pyaemia is a form of septicemia characterized by metastatic abscesses due to pyogenic organisms.
Category reason: This tests definitions of bloodstream infection terms (bacteremia, toxemia, septicemia), which is core disease-process terminology in Pathology rather than nursing interventions.

Question 47

A pregnant client with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory finding is expected?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prolonged vomiting with poor oral intake leads to starvation and fat breakdown, producing ketone bodies that appear in the urine. Dehydration and weight loss in this condition commonly correlate with ketonemia/ketonuria as a marker of metabolic compromise. Hyperglycemia is not typical unless there is concomitant diabetes. The other options are nonspecific and not the hallmark lab finding expected from caloric deprivation due to persistent vomiting.
Category reason: This question tests the expected metabolic/laboratory consequence of a disease process (starvation ketosis) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it best fits Pathology within NursingScience.

Question 48

A client continues to stalk a man whom she met briefly 3 years ago. She believes he loves her and eventually will marry her and has been sending him cards and gifts. When she violates a restraining order he has obtained, a judge orders her to undergo a 10-day psychiatric evaluation. What is the most probable psychiatric diagnosis for this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The presentation is a fixed, false belief that another person (often of higher status or a stranger) is in love with the client, despite clear evidence to the contrary. The stalking behavior and repeated attempts to contact the person align with erotomanic delusions rather than jealousy, which centers on a partner’s infidelity. Induced psychotic disorder (shared psychotic disorder) would require adoption of a delusion from a close associate, which is not described here. The persistence for years without broader psychotic symptoms also supports delusional disorder as the best fit.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a specific psychiatric disorder subtype based on defining symptom patterns (erotomanic delusion), which is foundational psychopathology/diagnostic knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 49

A pregnant client with preeclampsia develops right upper quadrant pain, elevated liver enzymes, and thrombocytopenia. The nurse recognizes this as:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This triad (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets) is the defining pattern of HELLP and is a severe variant of preeclampsia. Right upper quadrant/epigastric pain reflects hepatic involvement (capsular distention and risk of hematoma/rupture). Eclampsia requires seizures, gestational hypertension lacks end-organ features, and DIC is a consumptive coagulopathy that is not defined by this classic triad.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a specific obstetric disease entity based on hallmark clinical and laboratory findings, which is primarily foundational pathophysiology/pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 50

Malignant tumor in epithelial cells:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epithelial tissues give rise to carcinomas when malignant transformation occurs. Sarcomas arise from mesenchymal/connective tissues such as bone, muscle, fat, or cartilage, not epithelium. Leukemia is a malignancy of hematopoietic cells in bone marrow and blood, not an epithelial tumor. Therefore the epithelial-origin malignant tumor is best classified as carcinoma.
Category reason: This question tests classification of malignancies by tissue of origin (epithelial vs mesenchymal vs hematologic), which is a core concept in pathology.

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